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ATLS Post-Test: Comprehensive Q&A for Trauma Management

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ATLS Post-Test: Comprehensive Q&A for Trauma Management

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Advanced Life Support ATLS
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Advanced Life Support ATLS









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Institution
Advanced Life Support ATLS
Module
Advanced Life Support ATLS

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Uploaded on
June 23, 2025
Number of pages
6
Written in
2024/2025
Type
Exam (elaborations)
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Questions & answers

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ATLS Post-Test: Comprehensive Q&A for
Trauma Management
1. Primary and Secondary Surveys

A 30-year-old male with blunt trauma has a GCS of 8 and unequal pupils. What is the priority intervention?
A. CT head B. Intubation C. IV fluids D. Mannitol
Answer: B Rationale: GCS ≤ 8 and unequal pupils suggest severe traumatic brain injury. Intubation secures the airway,
prevents hypoxia, and is the priority (ATLS, p. 34).
1.

During the primary survey, when is the neurological assessment completed?
A. Before airway B. After breathing C. After circulation D. After disability
Answer: D Rationale: Neurological assessment (disability,“D”) occurs after airway (A), breathing (B), and circulation
(C) in the primary survey (ATLS, p. 12).
2.

A 25-year-old female with chest trauma has absent breath sounds on the left. What is the next step?
A. Chest X-ray B. Needle decompression C. Intubation D. IV fluids
Answer: B Rationale: Absent breath sounds suggest pneumothorax. Needle decompression is urgent to restore venti-
lation (ATLS, p. 58).
3.

When is the secondary survey performed?
A. Before airway assessment B. After primary survey C. During resuscitation D. After CT imaging
Answer: B Rationale: The secondary survey follows primary survey completion and stabilization (ATLS, p. 20).
4.

A 40-year-old male with pelvic trauma has hypotension. What is the initial management?
A. CT pelvis B. Pelvic binder C. Surgery D. Blood transfusion
Answer: B Rationale: Hypotension in pelvic trauma suggests bleeding. A pelvic binder stabilizes fractures, reducing
hemorrhage (ATLS, p. 108).
5.

What does the “E”in the primary survey stand for?
A. Evaluation B. Exposure C. Extremities D. Evacuation
Answer: B Rationale: “E”(Exposure/Environmental control) involves removing clothing to assess injuries while
preventing hypothermia (ATLS, p. 14).
6.

A 42-year-old female with blunt trauma has a BP of 90/60 and tachycardia. What is the next step?
A. CT scan B. IV fluids C. Surgery D. Vasopressors
Answer: B Rationale: Hypotension and tachycardia indicate shock. IV fluids are the initial management (ATLS, p.
76).
7.

A 35-year-old male with trauma has a suspected spinal injury. What is the priority?
A. CT spine B. Cervical collar C. Steroids D. Surgery
Answer: B Rationale: Cervical collar immobilizes the spine to prevent further injury (ATLS, p. 166).
8.

A 50-year-old male with trauma has a distended abdomen. What is the diagnostic tool?
A. X-ray B. FAST exam C. MRI D. Laparoscopy
Answer: B Rationale: FAST exam detects free intraperitoneal fluid in trauma (ATLS, p. 90).
9.

1

, A 28-year-old female with trauma has a GCS of 10. What is the classification?
A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Critical
Answer: B Rationale: GCS 9–12 indicates moderate traumatic brain injury (ATLS, p. 132).
10.

A 45-year-old male with trauma has a BP of 80/50. What is the shock class?
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
Answer: C Rationale: BP 80/50 suggests Class III shock (30–40
11.

A 33-year-old male with trauma has a suspected tension pneumothorax. What is the sign?
A. Bilateral breath sounds B. Tracheal deviation C. Normal BP D. Clear chest X-ray
Answer: B Rationale: Tracheal deviation is a classic sign of tension pneumothorax (ATLS, p. 58).
12.
2. Airway and Breathing Management

A 27-year-old male with facial trauma has stridor. What is the next step?
A. Intubation B. Cricothyroidotomy C. Oxygen mask D. CT head
Answer: B Rationale: Stridor indicates airway obstruction. Cricothyroidotomy is urgent when intubation fails (ATLS,
p. 42).
1.

A 32-year-old female with chest trauma has a tension pneumothorax. What is the treatment?
A. Chest tube B. Needle decompression C. Intubation D. Surgery
Answer: B Rationale: Needle decompression relieves tension pneumothorax, followed by chest tube (ATLS, p. 58).
2.

A 38-year-old male with rib fractures has pain limiting breathing. What is the management?
A. Intubation B. Analgesia C. Chest tube D. Surgery
Answer: B Rationale: Analgesia improves ventilation in rib fractures (ATLS, p. 60).
3.

A 29-year-old male with pulmonary contusion has worsening hypoxia. What is the management?
A. Chest tube B. Supplemental oxygen C. Surgery D. Diuretics
Answer: B Rationale: Supplemental oxygen manages pulmonary contusion hypoxia (ATLS, p. 62).
4.

A 34-year-old female with chest trauma has subcutaneous emphysema. What is the likely cause?
A. Cardiac tamponade B. Pneumothorax C. Esophageal rupture D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: B Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema suggests pneumothorax in chest trauma (ATLS, p. 58).
5.

A 40-year-old male with trauma has a flail chest. What is the initial management?
A. Surgery B. Oxygen and analgesia C. Chest tube D. Intubation
Answer: B Rationale: Oxygen and analgesia stabilize flail chest (ATLS, p. 60).
6.

A 31-year-old female with neck trauma has expanding hematoma. What is the next step?
A. CT neck B. Intubation C. Surgery D. Observation
Answer: B Rationale: Expanding hematoma threatens airway; intubation secures it (ATLS, p. 44).
7.

A 36-year-old male with trauma has a GCS of 7. What is the airway management?
A. Oxygen mask B. Intubation C. Cricothyroidotomy D. Observation
Answer: B Rationale: GCS ≤ 8 requires intubation to protect the airway (ATLS, p. 34).
8.


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