ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Proctored Exam Version A & B
(2025/2026) – Actual Exam Questions with Verified Detailed
Answers | Guaranteed Pass
Practice Questions
Question 1. A client with acute pancreatitis reports severe abdominal pain. Which po-
sition should the nurse recommend to alleviate discomfort?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Fetal position with knees drawn up
C. Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
D. High Fowler’s with arms supported
Correct Answer: B Rationale: The fetal position with knees drawn up re-
duces tension on the abdominal muscles and pancreas, alleviating pain in
acute pancreatitis. Supine (A) or prone (C) positions may increase discom-
fort, and High Fowler’s (D) is less effective for abdominal pain relief.
Question 2. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which
laboratory value is most specific for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific for cardiac mus-
cle damage and remains elevated for up to 7–10 days, making it the gold
standard for diagnosing myocardial infarction. CK (A) and myoglobin (C)
are less specific, and CRP (D) indicates inflammation but not cardiac injury.
Question 3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min
D. Encourage deep breathing with a spirometer
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm, im-
proving airflow and reducing dyspnea in COPD. Supine position (B) wors-
ens breathing, high oxygen flow (C) may suppress respiratory drive, and
spirometry (D) is secondary to immediate symptom relief.
1
,Question 4. A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling around the mouth. What is the
nurse’s first action?
A. Assess for Chvostek’s sign
B. Administer calcium gluconate as prescribed
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Encourage oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Tingling around the mouth suggests hypocal-
cemia due to parathyroid gland disruption. Assessing for Chvostek’s sign
confirms this before administering calcium (B), notifying the provider (C),
or encouraging fluids (D), which is unrelated.
Question 5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a blood glucose of 500 mg/dL.
Which intervention should the nurse expect to implement first?
A. Administer regular insulin IV
B. Provide oral glucose tablets
C. Initiate potassium replacement
D. Administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: A Rationale: IV regular insulin corrects hyperglycemia
and halts ketone production in DKA. Oral glucose (B) is contraindicated,
potassium replacement (C) follows initial insulin therapy, and bicarbonate
(D) is used only for severe acidosis.
Question 6. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates a
potential complication?
A. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
C. Drainage of 50 mL/hr in the collection chamber
D. Mild pain at the insertion site
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal cham-
ber indicates an air leak, a potential complication requiring immediate in-
vestigation. Tidaling (A) is normal, 50 mL/hr drainage (C) is expected, and
mild pain (D) is common.
Question 7. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte im-
balance should the nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
2
, Correct Answer: B Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potas-
sium excretion, risking hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C),
and hypocalcemia (D) are not primary concerns with furosemide.
Question 8. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. Which dietary
recommendation should the nurse provide?
A. Avoid broccoli and cabbage
B. Increase intake of eggs
C. Consume carbonated beverages
D. Limit fresh fruit consumption
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Broccoli and cabbage are gas-producing foods
that increase colostomy odor. Eggs (B) also contribute to odor, carbonated
beverages (C) increase gas, and fresh fruits (D) are generally beneficial.
Question 9. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
B. Mild nausea without vomiting
C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
suggests peritoneal inflammation, indicating possible appendiceal rupture,
requiring urgent surgical evaluation. Mild nausea (B), low-grade fever (C),
and normal heart rate (D) are less specific.
Question 10. A client with cirrhosis reports abdominal distension. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Measure abdominal girth
B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
C. Encourage a high-protein diet
D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Measuring abdominal girth quantifies ascites,
guiding further management. Diuretics (B) are secondary, high-protein diets
(C) may worsen hepatic encephalopathy, and supine position (D) does not
address distension.
Question 11. A client with a peptic ulcer is prescribed omeprazole. Which client statement
indicates understanding of the medication?
A. “I’ll take it with my morning coffee.”
B. “I’ll take it 30 minutes before breakfast.”
C. “I can stop it once my symptoms are gone.”
3
(2025/2026) – Actual Exam Questions with Verified Detailed
Answers | Guaranteed Pass
Practice Questions
Question 1. A client with acute pancreatitis reports severe abdominal pain. Which po-
sition should the nurse recommend to alleviate discomfort?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Fetal position with knees drawn up
C. Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
D. High Fowler’s with arms supported
Correct Answer: B Rationale: The fetal position with knees drawn up re-
duces tension on the abdominal muscles and pancreas, alleviating pain in
acute pancreatitis. Supine (A) or prone (C) positions may increase discom-
fort, and High Fowler’s (D) is less effective for abdominal pain relief.
Question 2. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which
laboratory value is most specific for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific for cardiac mus-
cle damage and remains elevated for up to 7–10 days, making it the gold
standard for diagnosing myocardial infarction. CK (A) and myoglobin (C)
are less specific, and CRP (D) indicates inflammation but not cardiac injury.
Question 3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min
D. Encourage deep breathing with a spirometer
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm, im-
proving airflow and reducing dyspnea in COPD. Supine position (B) wors-
ens breathing, high oxygen flow (C) may suppress respiratory drive, and
spirometry (D) is secondary to immediate symptom relief.
1
,Question 4. A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling around the mouth. What is the
nurse’s first action?
A. Assess for Chvostek’s sign
B. Administer calcium gluconate as prescribed
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Encourage oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Tingling around the mouth suggests hypocal-
cemia due to parathyroid gland disruption. Assessing for Chvostek’s sign
confirms this before administering calcium (B), notifying the provider (C),
or encouraging fluids (D), which is unrelated.
Question 5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a blood glucose of 500 mg/dL.
Which intervention should the nurse expect to implement first?
A. Administer regular insulin IV
B. Provide oral glucose tablets
C. Initiate potassium replacement
D. Administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: A Rationale: IV regular insulin corrects hyperglycemia
and halts ketone production in DKA. Oral glucose (B) is contraindicated,
potassium replacement (C) follows initial insulin therapy, and bicarbonate
(D) is used only for severe acidosis.
Question 6. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates a
potential complication?
A. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
C. Drainage of 50 mL/hr in the collection chamber
D. Mild pain at the insertion site
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal cham-
ber indicates an air leak, a potential complication requiring immediate in-
vestigation. Tidaling (A) is normal, 50 mL/hr drainage (C) is expected, and
mild pain (D) is common.
Question 7. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte im-
balance should the nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
2
, Correct Answer: B Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potas-
sium excretion, risking hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C),
and hypocalcemia (D) are not primary concerns with furosemide.
Question 8. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. Which dietary
recommendation should the nurse provide?
A. Avoid broccoli and cabbage
B. Increase intake of eggs
C. Consume carbonated beverages
D. Limit fresh fruit consumption
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Broccoli and cabbage are gas-producing foods
that increase colostomy odor. Eggs (B) also contribute to odor, carbonated
beverages (C) increase gas, and fresh fruits (D) are generally beneficial.
Question 9. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
B. Mild nausea without vomiting
C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
suggests peritoneal inflammation, indicating possible appendiceal rupture,
requiring urgent surgical evaluation. Mild nausea (B), low-grade fever (C),
and normal heart rate (D) are less specific.
Question 10. A client with cirrhosis reports abdominal distension. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Measure abdominal girth
B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
C. Encourage a high-protein diet
D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Measuring abdominal girth quantifies ascites,
guiding further management. Diuretics (B) are secondary, high-protein diets
(C) may worsen hepatic encephalopathy, and supine position (D) does not
address distension.
Question 11. A client with a peptic ulcer is prescribed omeprazole. Which client statement
indicates understanding of the medication?
A. “I’ll take it with my morning coffee.”
B. “I’ll take it 30 minutes before breakfast.”
C. “I can stop it once my symptoms are gone.”
3
