Pre- Clinic 1 Final Test Prep 1. NUR MISC. DENTAL HYGIENE

Clinic 1 Final Test Prep Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. __B__ 1. Who was the first woman to become a dental assistant? a. Jennie D. Spurrier b. Malvina Cueria c. Irene Newman d. Lucy B. Hobbs-Taylor __D__ 2. Which early American dentist is credited with developing the principle of extension for prevention? a. Robert Woofendale b. John Baker c. Paul Revere d. G.V. Black __A__ 3. Which of the following is credited with beginning the science of forensic dentistry? a. Paul Revere b. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen c. G.V. Black d. Pierre Fauchard __C__ 4. Horace H. Hayden and Chapin A. Harris contributed to the advancement of dentistry by a. being the first African American dental students. b. discovering x-rays. c. establishing the first dental school. d. setting the standard for dental assisting textbooks. __B__ 5. To maintain accreditation status, dental and dental auxiliary schools are required to be reviewed every _____ years. a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 12 __C__ 6. The report Oral Health in America was released by the _______________ in 2000. a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. White House c. surgeon general d. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) __B__ 7. Who was one of the first dentists to travel throughout the American colonies? a. Pierre Fauchard b. Robert Woofendale c. Leonardo da Vinci d. John Baker__C__ 8. Who was the “Grand Old Man of Dentistry”? a. Pierre Fauchard b. John Baker c. G.V. Black d. Robert Woofendale ___C_ 9. When were cases of what later was identified as acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) first reported? a. 1950 b. 1970 c. 1980 d. 1990 __C__ 10. Professionalism a. is what you do in the dental office, as distinguished from what you do on your own time. b. is what you say in the dental office, as distinguished from what you say on your own time. c. is an attitude that is apparent in everything you do and say, in and out of the dental office. d. means that you have a job. ___C_ 11. Teamwork in the dental office is important. The letters TEAM stand for a. treat everyone as members. b. take everything as money. c. together everyone accomplishes more. d. two equals a lot more. __A__ 12. Important personal qualities of the dental assistant include a. demonstrating sensitivity to the patient’s needs. b. not feeding into the patient’s needs. c. creating rapport by discussing aspects of your personal life. d. being a good talker to distract the patient from the stress of the dental visit. __B__ 13. The dental assistant can demonstrate work responsibility by all except a. arriving on time. b. leaving early to clear space for others. c. volunteering to help a coworker. d. staying for the full shift. __C__ 14. Which of the following is not a member of the dental healthcare team? a. Dental assistant b. Dental hygienist c. Dental supply representative d. Dental laboratory technician __C__ 15. ________________ describes the seated dentist and chairside assistant working as an efficient team.a. Single-handed dentistry b. Two-handed dentistry c. Four-handed dentistry d. Shared responsibility __A__ 16. An ADA-accredited dental assisting program requires a curriculum including content in which of the following areas? a. Didactic, laboratory, clinical b. Didactic and laboratory, but not clinical c. Laboratory and clinical, but not didactic d. Laboratory only __D__ 17. What is required before a dental laboratory technician can fabricate a crown? a. A telephone call or fax from the dental office b. A predetermination from the insurance company c. Radiographic images of the tooth to be restored d. A prescription from a dentist ___D_ 18. Which of the following normally does not work in the dental office with the other members of the dental health team? a. Dentist b. Business assistant c. Dental hygienist d. Dental laboratory technician __B__ 19. Dental education programs usually last ___ academic years. a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 __B__ 20. The minimal education requirement for a registered dental hygienist is _____ academic years of college study and an associate’s degree in an ADA-accredited dental hygiene program. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 __B__ 21. Which of the following duties cannot be delegated to a dental hygienist? a. Removing deposits on teeth b. Providing endodontic treatment c. Placing sealants d. Administering local anesthesia __A__ 22. Dental public health dentists treat the __________ rather than the individual. a. community b. association c. family d. general dentist__C__ 23. Which of the following protects the confidentiality of patient health information? a. EPA b. OSHA c. HIPAA d. OSAP __B__ 24. Which of the following is true concerning continuing education (CE) for dental assistants? a. CE is a legal requirement in every state. b. It is the ethical obligation of dental assistants to update their knowledge and skills. c. CE requirements are established by the federal government. d. CE is not important. __D__ 25. The American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA) code of ethics are a. laws. b. the same as the American Dental Association (ADA) code of ethics. c. useful for discussing philosophical differences but are not applicable to everyday life. d. voluntary standards. __A__ 26. Which of the following refers to a person’s freedom to think, judge, and act independently without undue influence? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Nonmaleficence d. Veracity __C__ 27. Which of the following statements is true concerning statutory law? a. There are four types of statutory law: criminal, civil, contract, and tort. b. Civil law seeks to punish the offender, whereas criminal law seeks to compensate the victim. c. Statutory law involves laws enacted by legislation through U.S. Congress, state legislature, or local legislative bodies. d. Insurance fraud is an example of a civil act that may be committed in a dental office. __A__ 28. Not doing something that should have been done is an act of a. omission. b. commission. c. civil disobedience. d. breach of contract. ___C_ 29. Which of the following is the first of the “four Ds” that must be present for a malpractice suit against a dentist to be successful? a. Damages b. Dereliction c. Duty d. Direct cause__B__ 30. Which of the following is considered the best defense against a malpractice lawsuit? a. Good dental assistants and dental records b. Prevention and good communication with the patient c. A treatment plan and good billing practices d. A good dentist and an informed consent __B__ 31. Which of the following doctrines would be invoked in a situation where a dentist extracted the wrong tooth? a. Respondeat superior b. Res ipsa loquitur c. Res gestae d. Direct cause __B__ 32. A dentist usually refers a patient when a. he or she does not want to treat the patient. b. the case is unusual and conditions are beyond the dentist’s scope of expertise. c. the patient has early adult periodontitis. d. the patient does not have dental insurance benefits. __A__ 33. ____________ is (are) not included in the patient chart. a. Patient financial records b. Examination records c. Radiographs d. Correspondence to or about a patient __D__ 34. Which of the following is the correct way for a dental assistant to correct a chart entry? a. Use ink to write over the incorrect entry. b. Get a new, blank history form and discard the one with the correct entry. c. Use Wite-Out or other correction fluid to cover up the old entry. d. Draw a single line through the original entry so that it can still be read. ___D_ 35. Which of the following is an offense that may result in a variety of penalties, including fines, loss or suspension of the license to practice dentistry, mandatory continuing education, counseling, or community service? a. Felony b. Malpractice c. Misdemeanor d. Infraction __A__ 36. Which of the following offenses is most likely to result in imprisonment? a. Felony criminal b. Misdemeanor criminal c. Infraction criminal d. Civil __B__ 37. A malpractice suit is an example of ______ law. a. contract b. tort c. administratived. infraction __A__ 38. Which of the following categories of civil law is established through the written word or by a verbal agreement? a. Expressed contract b. Implied contract c. Administrative d. Tort __C__ 39. Which of the following is able to provide an expressed contract for emergency treatment of a 16- year-old child who broke a tooth in the neighbor’s driveway? a. The neighbor b. The child c. The child’s parent d. Sixteen-year-old brother of the child __C__ 40. Violation of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations would be involved with which of the following types of law? a. Contract law b. Tort law c. Administrative law d. Contract law __A__ 41. Which of the following is legally necessary to dismiss a patient from a dental practice? a. Written notice of termination b. Forwarding the original patient record to the subsequent dentist c. A signed release form by the patient and the dentist d. A hold-harmless clause in a written contract __C__ 42. Legal problems with patients are best avoided by maintaining ________ with all patients. a. extended office hours b. efficient staff c. good rapport and open communication d. good records __A__ 43. Which of the following is not true concerning the content of an Informed Consent Form? a. A signed informed consent form guarantees protection for the dentist from patient claims that he or she was not fully informed about a procedure. b. The informed consent form should be signed by the dentist, the patient, and a witness. c. The consequences of not performing treatment should be discussed as well as the consequences of performing treatment. d. Both proposed treatment and treatment alternatives should be discussed. __B__ 44. Many states identify dental professionals as __________ of suspected cases of child abuse. a. the frontline of identification b. mandated reporters c. excessively overeager d. injudicious__D__ 45. Which of the following is the most common form of elder abuse? a. Physical neglect or injury b. Emotional abuse or deprivation c. Sexual abuse d. Financial exploitation __B__ 46. The patient record is a. a temporary document. b. a permanent document. c. not considered a legal document. d. not sufficient enough to be used as a reference tool in a forensic case. __A__ 47. The primary source of information used to determine the overall quality of care the patient receives is the a. patient record. b. encounter form. c. patient survey. d. treatment plan. __B__ 48. A patient who reports for an initial appointment should be a. asked to provide a social security number. b. asked to complete a medical and dental history, and be told why the information is needed. c. asked to fill out patient forms and answer questions over the phone. d. notified that the form does not need to be signed. __B__ 49. A patient’s medical–dental history should be updated a. once a year. b. every time the patient comes into the office. c. every 6 months. d. only after a major illness. __B__ 50. The most graphic and detailed part of the patient record is the a. patient registration form. b. clinical examination form. c. treatment plan. d. progress notes section. __B__ 51. Expected outcomes of treatment and description of possible complications are recorded on the a. treatment plan. b. informed consent form. c. clinical examination. d. progress notes. __B__ 52. Each of the following is an advantage of an electronic dental record except a. safeguarding access in many locations of the dental office. b. lower initial cost than paper dental records. c. easier inquiries regarding insurance status than paper dental office records.d. sharing health information with authorized providers. __B__ 53. After patients review the HIPAA written policy, they sign a form that a. states that they understand the privacy policy. b. acknowledges the patient’s receipt of the privacy policy. c. states that the patient understands the Patient Bill of Rights. d. states that the patient understands OSHA. __A__ 54. What is the average range of the body’s oral resting temperature? a. 97.6 to 99 F b. 95 to 99.5 F c. 96.5 to 100 F d. 93.5 to 99.5 F __D__ 55. The respiration characteristics noted in a patient record include the rate and a. rhythm. b. depth. c. rise and fall. d. Both A and B. __C__ 56. The amount of labor the heart must exert to pump blood throughout the body is known as the a. respiration rate. b. pulse rate. c. blood pressure. d. heart rate. __B__ 57. Blood pressure is recorded with a. the diastolic value over the systolic value. b. systolic pressure being the point at which a sharp tapping sound is heard. c. diastolic pressure reflecting the amount of pressure required for the left ventricle of the heart to compress or push oxygenated blood out into the blood vessels. d. the systolic pressure being the second and lower number recorded. __C__ 58. A “large adult” blood pressure cuff is appropriate for a patient with an arm circumference of a. 8 to 10 inches. b. to 13 inches. c. to 17 inches. d. to 20 inches. __A__ 59. A normal blood pressure for adults is less than _____ mm Hg. a. 120 over 80 b. 140 over 95 c. 100 over 50 d. 160 over 110 __D__ 60. A blood pressure reading in an adult patient that would be considered high blood pressure (hypertension) stage 2 is _____ mm Hg. a. 120 over 80b. 180 over 120 c. 140 over 90 d. 160 over 108 __B__ 61. The instrument used for measuring a patient’s blood pressure in the arteries is a a. thermometer. b. sphygmomanometer. c. pulse oximeter. d. electrocardiogram (ECG). __B__ 62. One technique used to detect periodontal disease is a. the use of a sharp-pointed explorer. b. periodontal probing. c. palpation. d. transillumination with a mouth mirror. __A__ 63. The standard classification system used to describe the location of decay and the best method for restoring a tooth was developed by a. G.V. Black. b. Edmund Kells. c. Horace Hayden. d. Pierre Fauchard. __C__ 64. A dental charting system that uses the geometric diagram style represents the teeth with a. illustrations that resemble the actual crowns of the teeth. b. squares. c. circles. d. triangles. __A__ 65. The tooth-numbering system that begins numbering the maxillary right third molar as tooth #1 and ends with the mandibular right third molar as tooth #32 is the a. Universal System. b. Palmer Notation System. c. International Standards Organization/Fédération Dentaire Internationale System. d. Bracket Numbering System. __A__ 66. The examination of the cheeks, mucosa, lips, palate, tonsil area, tongue, and floor of the mouth to detect any abnormalities is the _____ examination. a. soft tissue b. oral cavity c. hard tissue d. oral mucosa __B__ 67. An instrument used to evaluate pocket depth during examination and charting of the periodontium is a a. mouth mirror. b. periodontal probe. c. cotton pliers. d. gauze square.__C__ 68. Responsibilities of the dental assistant in documenting the clinical examination include a. using the periodontal probe to determine pocket depths. b. diagnosing caries. c. charting the correct tooth and correct conditions. d. determining tooth mobility. __B__ 69. Tooth mobility is evaluated and charted in the _____ examination. a. soft tissue b. periodontal c. extraoral d. intraoral imaging __D__ 70. The purpose of using photography as a diagnostic tool is to a. identify the patient. b. identify and understand specific problems. c. document results with before and after photographs. d. accomplish both B and C. __A__ 71. In the Universal Numbering System, tooth #21 would be the _____ premolar. a. mandibular left first b. mandibular right first c. maxillary right first d. mandibular right second __A__ 72. In the Universal Numbering System, the four lateral incisors would be identified as teeth numbers a. 7, 10, 23, and 26. b. 6, 11, 22, and 27. c. 8, 9, 24, and 25. d. 7, 10, 24, and 25. __A__ 73. In the Palmer Notation System, 1 represents a. central incisors. b. lateral incisors. c. third molars. d. first molars. __C__ 74. Treatment that needs to be completed is charted in a. black. b. blue. c. red. d. green. __A__ 75. The number on the Dental Mobility Scale that indicates slight mobility is a. 0. b. 1. c. 2. d. 3.__A__ 76. The four letters that indicate the primary second molars in the Universal Numbering System are a. A, J, K, and T. b. E, F, O, and P. c. B, I, L, and S. d. C, H, M, and R. __D__ 77. A characteristic of healthy soft tissue is a. a light pink color. b. uniform color. c. no swelling. d. All of the above. __C__ 78. All the following specific areas of a dental office require privacy except the a. administrative/business area. b. clinical treatment areas. c. sterilization center. d. dentist’s private office. __D__ 79. The goal in designing the dental treatment area is to achieve a. comfort and mobility for the dental team. b. privacy and comfort for the dental patient. c. setup of the dental equipment in the least amount of space possible. d. Both A and B __B__ 80. When the dental chair is in the supine position, the a. back of the chair is positioned at a vertical 90-degree angle. b. patient is positioned as if lying down. c. patient’s head is lower than the feet. d. patient is in the correct position for exposure of radiographs and for taking impressions. __C__ 81. The ideal temperature for the reception area of a dental office should be __° F. a. 68 b. 70 c. 72 d. 74 __B__ 82. The goal of the evening routine for clinical areas in a dental practice is a. leaving the office as soon as patient treatment is completed for the day. b. leaving the office ready for patient care in the morning. c. the responsibility of the dentist to perform, in most practices. d. the responsibility of the business office staff members to perform, in most practices. __D__ 83. The master switches to be turned on when opening the office in the morning, and turned off when closing the office in the evening are a. the central air compressor. b. the vacuum unit. c. the dental and radiographic units.d. All of the above. __C__ 84. An oral evacuation system should be flushed a. biweekly. b. monthly. c. weekly. d. daily. __D__ 85. The upright position is used for all the following except a. patient arrival and dismissal. b. taking of radiographs. c. taking of impressions. d. restoration of cavities. __D__ 86. Why is it important to not touch a new halogen light bulb with bare fingers when an old treatment room light is being replaced? a. It will reduce the intensity of the light output. b. It will change the color spectrum of the light, which will hinder shade matching for ceramic restorations. c. The glass on the surface of the bulb is fibrous and will pierce bare fingers. d. The oil from the fingers will cause the bulb to overheat and break. __D__ 87. The dental staff lounge should be used a. by the staff during personal time. b. for staff meetings. c. to store dental supplies in the staff refrigerator. d. Both A and B are correct. __A__ 88. Team dentistry is also referred to as a. four-handed dentistry. b. six-handed dentistry. c. teamwork. d. expanded-function dentistry. ___A_ 89. The dentist and the dental assistant try to eliminate or reduce class ________ movements to reduce stress and body fatigue. a. IV and V b. III and IV c. II and III d. I and II __B__ 90. For the right-handed operator, the mouth mirror is transferred with the ________ hand and the explorer is transferred with the _________ hand. a. right; right b. right; left c. left; right d. left; left__B__ 91. When the mouth mirror is used intraorally, the mirror must be positioned ___________ to the working surface. a. perpendicular b. parallel c. skewed mesially d. skewed distally __B__ 92. When performing a single-handed instrument transfer with a right-handed dentist, the dental assistant transfers the dental instrument with __________ hand. a. the right b. the left c. either ___B_ 93. All the following are goals of team dentistry, or four-handed dentistry, except to a. minimize stress and fatigue during dental procedures. b. cause back pain and muscle aches. c. follow motion economy during instrument transfer. d. use moisture control techniques to improve visibility of the work field. __C__ 94. In the classification of motions, which classification involves the movement of fingers, wrist, and elbow? a. I b. II c. III d. IV __A__ 95. The position of the dental assistant during chairside procedures includes all the following except a. feet resting on the floor. b. 4 to 6 inches above the operator. c. seated well back on stool. d. positioned as close as possible to the dental chair. __C__ 96. The proper distance between the patient’s face and the operator’s face should be approximately _________ inches. a. 6 to 8 b. 10 to 12 c. 12 to 14 d. 14 to 16 __C__ 97. Which of the classification of motions should only be used with single-handed transfer? a. Class I, Class IV, and Class V b. Class I, Class III, and Class V c. Class I, Class II, and Class III d. Class I, Class II, and Class V __D__ 98. When turning on the dental light over a patient seated and positioned in the supine position, the dental light is directed a. at the patient’s face. b. over the operator’s head.c. in the patient’s mouth. d. on the patient’s chest. __D__ 99. The correct positioning of the operator’s stool should include a. feet on base. b. thighs elevated higher than hips. c. backrest positioned to support the upper portion of the back. d. None of the above. __D__100. Which instrument grasp holds the instrument in the palm of the hand and uses the thumb to stabilize and guide the instrument? a. Reverse palm-thumb grasp b. Palm grasp c. Pen grasp d. Palm-thumb grasp __D__101. When greeting and escorting the patient to the treatment room, a dental assistant should a. address patient using his or her title. b. establish eye contact and smile. c. introduce himself or herself. d. do all of the above. __B__102. Instruments are set up on the dental procedure tray a. from right to left. b. from left to right. c. alphabetically from A to Z. d. numerically from low to high. __B__103. The instruments placed on the tray setup after the examination instruments are classified as a. restorative. b. hand cutting. c. accessory. d. prosthodontic. __C__104. A restorative instrument made from anodized aluminum or Teflon is a(n) a. amalgam carrier. b. condenser. c. composite placement instrument. d. plastic instrument. __D__105. The mouth mirror is used for a. indirect vision and light reflection. b. tissue protection. c. cheek retraction. d. All of the above. __B__106. The three specific parts of hand instruments are the a. handle, angle, and end. b. handle, shank, and working end.c. point, blade, and nib. d. shank, angles, and blade. __D__107. Uses of a mouth mirror include a. providing a patient view. b. retraction and tissue protection. c. indirect vision. d. Both B and C __D__108. The instrument used to measure the sulcus, or pocket depth, of the periodontium of each tooth is the a. double-ended explorer. b. right-angled explorer. c. millimeter ruler. d. periodontal probe. __D__109. Articulating paper can be used to check a patient’s bite on a. a crown or bridge. b. a denture. c. a new restoration. d. All of the above. __C__110. A Woodson (FP-1) is a a. single-ended instrument used for burnishing the surface of a newly placed amalgam restoration. b. single-ended instrument that is used for carving proximal surfaces of a newly placed amalgam restoration. c. double-ended instrument with a nib on one end and a paddle on the other end. d. double-ended instrument with a plugger on one end and an amalgam knife on the other end. __B__111. The working end of an explorer is best described as a. rigid. b. thin and wirelike. c. having a semidull tip. d. All of the above. __C__112. Which of the following is the best way to organize hand instruments and be prepared for a procedure? a. Autobags b. Storage in drawers c. Preset cassettes d. Storage in pouches __A__113. A plugger is also known as a(n) a. amalgam condenser. b. composite knife. c. amalgam carrier. d. amalgam carver.__D__114. The part of the instrument that attaches the working end to the handle is the a. point. b. angle. c. blade. d. shank. ___A_115. The ____________ handpiece operates from air pressure and reaches speeds up to 450,000 rpm. a. high-speed b. laser c. ultrasonic d. laboratory __B__116. The _____________ handpiece supplies a water coolant, because it can generate enough frictional heat on a tooth to cause possible damage to the pulp. a. air-abrasion b. high-speed c. low-speed d. ultrasonic __C__117. The ultrasonic handpiece is used for a. cavity preparation. b. polishing. c. scaling. d. adjusting dentures. ___A_118. A dental handpiece is identified as a _________ instrument that __________ be sterilized before reuse. a. critical; must b. semicritical; must c. semicritical; may or may not d. noncritical; may not be __C__119. The term applied to all rotary instruments that have a sharp cutting head with blades is a. wheel. b. diamond. c. bur. d. finishing stone. __A__120. Which type of bur is used to remove caries during tooth preparation? a. Round b. Straight fissure plain cut c. Straight fissure cross-cut d. Tapered fissure plain cut ___D_121. The most varied category of rotary instruments is a. diamond rotary instruments. b. laboratory burs. c. carbide burs.d. abrasive rotary instruments. ___C_122. The two most common types of dental handpieces are __________________ handpieces. a. high-speed and laser b. ultrasonic and laser c. low-speed and high-speed d. high-speed and ultrasonic __A__123. All of the following are uses for a low-speed motor except a. removal of old or faulty restorations. b. finishing and polishing restorations. c. root canal treatment. d. coronal polishing and removal of stains. __D__124. The handpiece that uses mechanical, radiant water energy and sound vibrations to create a pulsating effect on a tooth surface for the removal of calculus and stains is the ____________ handpiece. a. high-speed b. laser c. low-speed d. ultrasonic __B__125. All of the following are correct about diamond rotary instruments except they a. have a metal base with flecks of industrial diamonds. b. are inexpensive. c. increase cutting ability. d. shorten preparation time and increase productivity. __C__126. It is recommended to wipe the light port on the fiber optic handpiece with an alcohol swab to remove excess lubricant because the a. lubricant is toxic if placed in a patient’s mouth. b. lubricant will turn to sludge when autoclaved and gum up the handpiece. c. light will be dimmed if any lubricant remains. d. components of the handpiece will become more brittle if exposed to the lubricant for an extended period of time. __D__127. Air abrasion handpieces are most effective when used for a. external stain removal. b. sealants. c. tactile feedback to identify sound dentin. d. Both A and B __B__128. The three most common methods used to isolate a specific area of the mouth include a. mouth prop, index and middle fingers, and gauze square. b. cotton rolls, dry angles, and the dental dam. c. cotton roll, dental dam, and index and middle fingers. d. mouth prop, gauze squares, and cotton rolls.__C__129. Dental dams are made of either latex or latex-free material and come precut as squares that measure ________ inches for treating the permanent dentition. a. 4 ´ 4 b. 5 ´ 5 c. 6 ´ 6 d. 7 ´ 7 __C__130. The isolation of anterior teeth is usually a. only on the tooth being restored. b. on the tooth being restored and one tooth on each side. c. from canine to canine. d. on the quadrant in which the tooth to be restored is located. __A__131. All of the following describe an operative suction tip except a. smaller in circumference than a surgical suction tip. b. beveled working end. c. made of plastic or stainless steel. d. designed with a straight or slight angle in the middle. __C__132. Which thickness of rubber dam material is most widely used for operative procedures? a. Extra thin b. Thin c. Medium d. Heavy __A__133. The part of the dental dam clamp that encircles the tooth and must be firmly seated to stabilize the clamp is the a. jaws. b. bow. c. wings. d. forceps holes. __B__134. When holes are punched in the dental dam, they are spaced _________ mm between the edges of the holes. a. 2.0 to 2.5 b. 3.0 to 3.5 c. 3.5 to 4.0 d. None of the above is correct. __D__135. The dental dam material between the holes of the punched dam is called the a. ligature. b. bow. c. jaws. d. septum. __A__136. When the high-speed handpiece is positioned on the occlusal surface of tooth #3, where would the assistant position the HVE? a. Buccal surface of #2 b. Buccal surface of #4c. Lower left buccal vestibule d. Lingual surface of #3 __B__137. To provide optimal effectiveness, an ointment type of topical anesthetic should remain on the site of injection for a minimum of a. 2 to 5 seconds. b. 15 to 30 seconds. c. 2 minutes. d. 3 to 5 minutes. __A__138. Which of the following choices represents the lowest ratio, meaning greatest concentration, of vasoconstrictor in local anesthetic? a. 1:20,000 b. 1:50,000 c. 1:100,000 d. 1:200,000 __C__139. The time from when the local anesthetic takes complete effect until the complete reversal of anesthesia is called the __________ of the anesthetic agent. a. induction b. life span c. duration d. innervation __B__140. To be certain that the anesthetic solution is not injected into a blood vessel, the dentist a. asks the patient whether the injection is uncomfortable or not. b. always aspirates before depositing any solution. c. uses a periodontal ligament syringe. d. advances the needle until bone is contacted. __B__141. One advantage of nitrous oxide use in a dental setting is that a. special training is not required for the dentist and dental assistant. b. it is the only method of conscious sedation where the patient can drive herself or himself home following the appointment. c. the patient is rendered unconscious. d. induction and recovery are slow, which is an advantage in long procedures. ___C_142. Current dental office nitrous oxide/oxygen flow meters have a fail-safe system that will stop the flow of N2O whenever the percentage of O2 drops to below ______ percent. a. 70 b. 50 c. 30 d. zero __C__143. The different levels of consciousness and unconsciousness are referred to as stages of anesthesia; these stages include all of the following except stage a. I (analgesia). b. II (excitement). c. III (cardiac arrest).d. Both A and C are correct. _B___144. Which of the following is true regarding the use of electronic anesthesia? a. The dental assistant holds the unit and adjusts the level of the pain-blocking signal according to the patient’s wishes. b. There are three pads used. c. The procedure leads to significantly more postoperative numbness than injection anesthesia. d. A needle is still necessary to get the electrical signal to the site of action at the apex of the tooth root. __A__145. The most common form of topical anesthetic used to control a gag reflex during an intraoral radiographic procedure is a. spray. b. liquid. c. ointment. d. patch. __C__146. The vasoconstrictor added to lidocaine local anesthetic to prolong its effect is a. alcohol. b. nitrous oxide. c. epinephrine. d. aspirin. __D__147. Which of the following ratios of vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic would contain the lowest level of vasoconstrictor? a. 1:100,000 b. 1:20,000 c. 1:50,000 d. 1:200,000 __C__148. In patients with an acute infection in a tooth or soft tissue, local anesthetics are not as effective because of an increase a. of blood flow. b. in swelling. c. in lymphocytes (white blood cells). d. None of the above is correct. __D__149. What can cause paresthesia? a. Trauma to the nerve b. Bleeding into or around the nerve c. Contaminated anesthetic solution d. All of the above. __A__150. The length of time from injection to complete and effective conduction blockage is called a. induction. b. infiltration. c. duration. d. indication.