Test Bank for Forensic Biology 2nd Edition Richard Li |All Chapters |Latest A+

Test Bank for Forensic Biology 2nd Edition Richard Li |All Chapters |Latest A+ Test Bank for Forensic Biology 2nd Edition Richard Li Chapter 1 Crime Scene Investigation of Biological Evidence (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Dried blood evidence should be packed in a: (a) Paper bag (b) Plastic bag (c) Glass jar (d) Tin can 2 A wet bloody shirt should be: (a) Packed as soon as possible (b) Air dried prior to packing (c) Air dried and not packed (d) Dried with heat 3 An example of crime-scene reconstruction is: (a) Re-enactment (b) Re-creation (c) Criminal profiling (d) None of the above 4 In the FTA method: (a) The DNA stays on the paper (b) The DNA does not stay on the paper 5 Which of following is true? (a) The crime scene search patterns are only used for outdoor scenes (b) The crime scene search patterns are only used for indoor scenes (c) The systematic search patterns could be substituted by experience (d) None of the above 6 Which of the following is true? (a) To prevent immediate loss of potential evidence, a warrantless search is justified (b) To prevent immediate loss of potential evidence, a warrantless search can be conducted but the evidence is not admissible in court. 7 A chain of custody record includes: (a) Every individual who handled the evidence (b) Every individual from law enforcement agencies who handled the evidence 8 Which of following is true for crime-scene reconstructions: (a) The event prior to a crime (b) The event during a crime (c) The event subsequent of a crime (d) All of the above 9 Which of the following is true for fingernail scrapings? (a) Separating left and right nails (b) Combining left and right nails, if no defense wound is observed (c) All of above (d) None of above 10 Which of the following is not a commonly encountered pathogen? (a) HIV (b) Hepatitis virus (c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (d) Diabetes mellitus 11 Dried bloodstains may be collected by: (a) Cutting out a stain (b) Scraping a stain (c) Tape lifting a stain (d) All of the above 12 What is the most proper definition of corpus delicti in forensic science? (a) Body in a death investigation (b) Physical evidence demonstrated that a crime has occurred (c) Criminal motive (d) Criminal behavior 13 A forensic examination process including examination of biological evidence follows a basic sequence of steps. Which of the following lists the correct sequence? (a) Recognition, identification, individualization, and reconstruction (b) Recognition, individualization, identification, and reconstruction (c) Identification, recognition, individualization, and reconstruction (d) Individualization, recognition, identification, and reconstruction 14 A photo log should include: (a) Date of incident (b) Date and time photo taken (c) Roll number of film (d) All of the above 15 What is modus operandi? (a) Method of operation (b) Death investigation (c) Estimation time of death (d) Criminal motive 16 Locard’s theory of exchange best collaborates with which type of evidence? (a) Transfer evidence (b) Conditional evidence (c) Associative evidence (d) None of the above Chapter 2 Crime Scene Bloodstain Pattern Analysis (a single correct answer for each question) 1 A blood stain pattern where the majority of drops of blood are not broken into smaller droplets is likely caused by: (a) High velocity impact spatters (b) Medium velocity impact spatters (c) Low velocity impact spatters (d) All of above 2 As the distance falling increases, the diameter of a bloodstain usually: (a) Stays the same (b) Increases (c) Decreases (d) None of the above 3 What would commonly produce a flow pattern? (a) Postmortem disturbance (b) Movement of the body (c) A and B 4 Forward spatter patterns from shootings are: (a) Originated from perforating wounds (b) Originated from entrance wounds 5 Which of the following affects blood spatter patterns (a) Surface texture (b) Surface resilience (c) Surface porosity (d) All of above 6 A weapon striking pooled blood causes it to fly out in (a) A trail pattern (b) A contact-transfer pattern (c) A radial spatter pattern (d) An arc pattern (cast-off) 7 A pattern formed by swinging a blood-covered weapon is (a) A trail pattern (b) A contact-transfer pattern (c) A radial spatter pattern (d) An arc pattern (cast-off) 8 A pattern formed by movement of victim or perpetrator is (a) A trail pattern (b) A contact-transfer pattern (c) A radial spatter pattern (d) An arc pattern (cast-off) 9 A pattern generated by touching a bloody object with a surface is (a) A trail pattern (b) A contact-transfer pattern (c) A radial spatter pattern (d) An arc pattern (cast-off) 10 Small stains formed when droplets detach from the parent drop are (a) Parent stains (b) Satellite stains (c) Spines 11 The trajectory of blood droplet could be reconstructed from: (a) The width of the stain alone (b) The length of the stain alone (c) All of the above 12 Blood stain pattern reconstruction could provide information of (a) Direction of the blood stain (b) Dropping distance (c) Angle of impact of blood drop (d) All of the above Chapter 3 Forensic Biology: A Subdiscipline of Forensic Science (a single correct answer for each question) 1 A blood sample collected from a drug-overdose case should be submitted to: (a) A forensic toxicology section of a laboratory (b) A controlled substances section of a laboratory 2 Blood group typing can be useful to: (a) Exclude a suspect (b) Identify a suspect with a high degree of certainty 3 Which of the following was the first forensic DNA technique developed? (a) STR (b) VNTR (c) AFLP (d) SNP 4 The polymorphic markers on Y chromosomes can be useful for: (a) Paternity testing (b) Identifying a victim by comparing samples of maternal relative DNA 5 The polymorphic markers on mitochondrial DNA can be useful for: (a) Paternity testing (b) Identifying a victim by comparing samples of maternal relative DNA 6 Which of following is true for evidence having class characteristics (a) Useful for excluding a suspect (b) Useful for including a suspect with a high degree of certainty (c) Having little evidential value (d) None of the above 7 DNA evidence can be considered a tool for: (a) Identification (b) Comparison (c) Class characterization (d) Individualization 8 Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to a determination of common origin. Which type of evidence can yield such results? (a) Fingerprints (b) Random striations on weapons (c) DNA evidence (d) All of the above 9 What type of evidence is also referred to as trace evidence? (a) Pattern (b) Transfer (c) Associative (d) Conditional 10 An identification process is: (a) A comparison of class characteristics of evidence (b) A comparison of individual characteristics of evidence 11 Alu elements are the most abundant type of human (a) SINEs (b) LINEs Chapter 4 Sources of Biological Evidence (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following can be isolated from hair roots or follicles? (a) Nuclear DNA (b) Mitochondrial DNA (c) Both of the above 2 Which of the following is true? (a) Nuclear DNA can be isolated from white blood cells (b) Nuclear DNA can be isolated from red blood cells 3 Bite mark evidence discovered at a crime scene: (a) Contains biological materials for forensic DNA analysis (b) Should not be collected for forensic DNA analysis since it is usually contaminated (c) Should not be collected for forensic DNA analysis since it is usually degraded 4 Which of the bone cells is the major source of DNA? (a) Osteocytes (b) Osteoclasts 5 Which of the following may contain DNA in an aged tooth? (a) Enamel (b) Dentin (c) Cementum 6 Which of the following is true? (a) Shed skin cells usually contain a nucleus (b) Shed skin cells usually lack a nucleus 7 Which of the following hair may have more nuclear DNA? (a) Anagen hair (b) Catagen hair (c) Telogen hair 8 Which of the following is true? (a) WTC 1 (the North Tower) was the first of the Twin Towers to be hit by a plane on September 11th, and the first to be destroyed. (b) WTC 1 (the North Tower) was the first of the Twin Towers to be hit by a plane on September 11th, and the last to be destroyed. (c) WTC 2 (the North Tower) was the first of the Twin Towers to be hit by a plane on September 11th, and the first to be destroyed. (d) WTC 2 (the South Tower) was the first of the Twin Towers to be hit by a plane on September 11th, and the last to be destroyed. 9 For severely decomposed remains, what types of samples should be collected for possible DNA testing? (a) Solid tissue samples such as tooth, bone, hair, and deep muscle (b) Biological fluids such as blood, urine, stomach contents, and vitreous humor 10 Which of the following can be more likely isolated from naturally shed hair? (a) Nuclear DNA (b) Mitochondrial DNA (c) Both of the above 11 Mitochondrial DNA can usually be found in: (a) Shed hair (b) Pulled hair (c) Animal hair (d) All of the above 12 Which of the following types of biological evidence contains haploid cells? (a) Hair (b) Blood stains (c) Seminal stains (d) Saliva stains Chapter 5 Nucleic Acid Extraction (a single correct answer for each question) 1 In the organic extraction method: (a) DNA is in the solvent phase (phenol, etc.). (b) DNA is in the buffer phase (water, etc.). (c) Protein is in the buffer phase (water, etc.). (d) Both (a) and (c). 2 Which of the following method would you select to test a DNA sample extracted by the Chelex method? (a) RFLP (b) STR 3 Which of the following is true for Chelex: (a) silica (b) ion-exchange resin (c) binds to DNA (d) all of above 4 In the Chelex method (a) DNA is extracted by Chelex (b) Mg2+ is needed for Chelex method (c) Chelex binds to DNA degradation enzyme and inhibits its activity (d) Chelex removes Mg2+ 5 In the Chelex procedure, heme can be removed by (a) washing cells before boiling (b) washing cells after boiling 6 In differential extraction (a) DTT forms the disulfide bridge of the sperm membrane (b) DTT breaks the disulfide bridge of the sperm membrane 7 To isolate one ng of DNA, you need (a) haploid cells (b) haploid cells (c) haploid cells (d) haploid cells 8 DNA binds to silica: (a) in the presence of chaotropic salts (b) in the absence of chaotropic salts 9 Which of the following is true for FTA paper method: (a) DNA is immobilized on the FTA paper (b) Cellular materials are immobilized on the FTA paper 10 The extraction negative control: (a) Monitors contamination from evidence collection to final analysis. (b) Monitors contamination occurring during extraction only. (c) Monitors contamination from extraction to amplification. (d) Monitors contamination from extraction to final analysis. 11 When a blood stain is extracted using the Chelex method: (a) It is important to remove the supernatant from the initial soak. (b) It is important to extract the supernatant from the initial soak. 12 Sperm cells and epithelial cells are observed under a microscope. The extracted sperm cell fraction has no DNA; the epithelial cell fraction contains DNA. Which of the following has gone wrong? (a) The PBS buffer (b) The proteinase K (c) The DTT (d) All of the above 13 During Chelex extraction, the extract was heated to 100° C, cooled down, and stored. (a) The Chelex-extracted DNA usually does not reanneal to double-stranded DNA (b) The Chelex-extracted DNA usually reanneals to double-stranded DNA Chapter 6 DNA Quantitation (a single correct answer for each question) 1 What would be the average molecular weight of a nucleotide? (a) about 300-400 (b) about 400-500 (c) about 500-600 (d) about 600-700 2 The probe D17Z1 for DNA quantitation (a) Recognizes all DNA including human DNA (b) Recognizes mammal DNA including human DNA (c) Recognizes higher primate DNA including human DNA (d) Can detect bacterial DNA 3 In real-time PCR method for DNA quantization, (a) Free intact probes generate the fluorescent signal (b) Hybridized probes generate the fluorescent signal (c) Reporter domain that is cleaved from non-fluorescent quencher (NFQ) generates the fluorescent signal (d) None of the above 4 The fluorescence signal of real-time PCR DNA quantitation is generated by (a) Reporter domain of the probe (b) The quencher domain of the probe (c) The minor groove binder domain of the probe (d) None of the above 5 Using the slot blot method for DNA quantitation, (a) The probe is on the membrane (b) The DNA to be tested is on the membrane 6 Which of the following assays quantifies total DNA in a sample and is not specific for human and other primate DNA? (a) Slot Blot (b) PicoGreen microtiter plate assay (c) Real-time quantitative PCR (qPCR) (d) None of the above 7 Which of following DNA quantization methods require known concentration of DNA standard? (a) Slot blot assay (b) Real-time PCR method for DNA quantization (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 8 For forensic DNA analysis of crime scene evidence (a) Higher primate specific DNA quantitation is required (b) Higher primate specific DNA quantitation is used but not required 9 Which of the DNA quantitation can be affected by PCR inhibitors? (a) Slot Blot (b) PicoGreen microtiter plate assay (c) Real-time quantitative PCR (qPCR) (d) None of the above 10 Internal PCR controls (IPC) (a) Monitors amplicon concentration (b) Monitors PCR inhibition 11 Which of the following is true? (a) Higher Ct value indicates lower amounts of template DNA (b) Higher Ct value indicates higher amounts of template DNA 12 Given that a haploid cell has 23 chromosomes with approximately 3 x 109 bp of DNA, how much DNA by weight does a haploid cell contain? (An average base pair is 618 g/mol and 1 mole contains 6.02 x 1023 molecules.) (a) 3 picograms (b) 3 nanograms (c) 3 micrograms 13 One ng of DNA can be obtained from approximately: (a) diploid cells (b) diploid cells (c) diploid cells (d) diploid cells 14 Which of the following is true? (a) Most DNA quantitation methods do not require standard curves. (b) Most DNA quantitation methods require standard curves. 15 The probe in the real-time PCR method for DNA quantitation contains (a) A reporter domain (b) A quencher domain (c) Both reporter and quencher domains (d) None of the above 16 In the real-time PCR method for DNA quantitation (a) CT is defined as the number of cycles where the amplification curve of the sample crosses the threshold. (b) Tm is defined as the number of cycles where the amplification curve of the sample crosses the threshold. 17 Which of the following would be true if the water bath temperature were set higher than usual during a slot blot DNA quantitation? (a) DNA bands would not be observed. (b) DNA bands would be enhanced. 18 Absence of a signal or low sensitivity of a slot blot DNA quantitation could be due to (a) Inactivity of substrate for reporter enzyme (b) Degradation of DNA probe (c) Inactivity of oxidant (d) All of the above 19 Detecting signals of nonhuman DNA samples, such as bacterial DNA, during slot blot DNA quantitation may be due to (a) Excessive salt concentration in wash solution (b) Excessively high temperature of water bath Chapter 7 Amplification by Polymerase Chain Reaction (a single correct answer for each question) 1 DNA denaturing and annealing could be affected by (a) Temperature (b) Ionic strength (c) The length and nucleotide composition of DNA molecule (d) All of above 2 At the melting temperature, (a) The 50% of the DNA strands are single stranded (b) The 100% of the DNA strands are single stranded (c) The 75% of the DNA strands are single stranded (d) The 25% of the DNA strands are single stranded 3 Which of following is true? (a) Increasing GC content of a DNA molecule will increase melting temperature (b) Decreasing GC content of a DNA molecule will increase melting temperature 4 The order of steps in PCR cycling is (a) Anneal, denature, and extension (b) Denature, anneal, and extension (c) Extension, denature, and anneal (d) Extension, anneal, and denature 5 The temperature parameters of PCR are determined by (a) primer length (b) primer melting temperature (c) primer base content (d) all of above 6 The negative control for the amplification (a) Contains PCR components without template (b) Contains PCR components without polymerase (c) Contains PCR components without magnesium (d) Contains PCR components without dNTPs 7 For degraded DNA samples (a) Shorter alleles are amplified better than longer ones (b) Longer alleles are amplified better than shorter ones 8 Which of the following techniques can be affected by PCR inhibitors? (a) Real-time PCR method for DNA quantitation (b) STR analysis (c) mtDNA analysis (d) All of above 9 Reverse transcriptase PCR: (a) The first reaction is to synthesize cDNA from RNA (b) The first reaction is to synthesize amplicons from the cDNA template 10 Which of the following is a universal primer (a) Oligo dT primer (b) Random hexamer primer (c) All of above (d) None of above 11 Which of the following can be used to synthesize cDNA from a specific mRNA (a) Sequence-specific primer (b) Universal primer 12 Which of the following can be used to synthesize cDNAs from total mRNAs (a) Sequence-specific primer (b) Universal primer 13 In what phase of PCR is the cycle threshold measured? (a) Background (b) Exponential product growth (c) Linear product growth (d) Plateau 14 The melting temperature of double stranded DNA can be affected by (a) pH (b) Ionic strength (c) Length of DNA molecule (d) All of the above 15 Which of the following is true? (a) GC pairs have three hydrogen bonds. (b) GC pairs have two hydrogen bonds. 16 The negative control in amplification monitors contamination (a) From evidence collection to final analysis (b) From DNA extraction to final analysis (c) Occurring only during amplification (d) From amplification to final analysis 17 For multiplex STR analysis, fluorescent labeling of PCR products may be accomplished by (a) Fluorescently labeled 5' end-labeled primers (b) Fluorescently labeled dNTPs (c) Fluorescent intercalating dye 18 The role of magnesium in a PCR reagent is (a) To inhibit DNA degradation (b) Required by DNA polymerase (c) Required for the annealing step (d) Required by the denaturation step 19 Which of the following may be affected by PCR inhibitors? (a) PCR-based assays (b) Restriction enzyme-based assays (c) Serology-based assays (d) All of the above 20 How can you overcome problems with PCR inhibition? (a) Add more DNA polymerase. (b) Add less DNA template. (c) Remove inhibitor using filtration devices. (d) All of the above. 21 During a hot start PCR (a) AmpliTaq Gold polymerase is activated. (b) AmpliTaq Gold polymerase is inactivated. (c) AmpliTaq Gold polymerase is added. 22 Which of the following is true? (a) Some DNA polymerases also have nuclease activities. (b) DNA polymerases have no nuclease activity. (c) Nucleases have polymerase activities. (d) None of the above. 23 Contaminated DNA may be detected if (a) The contamination occurred during DNA extraction. (b) The contamination occurred during DNA amplification. (c) All of the above. 24 During set-up of a PCR, Chelex resin was accidentally loaded from a DNA sample into the PCR reagent. The Chelex resin (a) May affect the reaction. (b) Will not affect the reaction. Chapter 8 DNA Electrophoresis (a single correct answer for each question) 1 During electrokinetic injection (a) DNA injection is carried out by applying voltage (b) DNA injection is carried out by applying suction (c) More charged analytes can be injected by increasing the voltage. (d) More charged analytes can be injected by increasing the volume. (e) a and c 2 Which of the following is the supporting matrix for capillary electrophoresis? (a) Acrylamide (b) Methylenebisacrylamide (c) Polydimethylacrylamide 3 Which of the following is the supporting matrix for RFLP? (a) Agarose (b) Polyacrylamide 4 In capillary electrophoresis (a) DNA is separated based on their sizes (b) DNA is separated based on their charges 5 To estimate the sizes of ssDNA fragments that are smaller than 1000 bases (a) The relative mobility method is more accurate than the Local Southern method (b) The Local Southern method is more accurate than the relative mobility method 6 Which of the following works for the electrophoresis of very large DNA molecules? (a) Ogston model (b) Biased reputation model 7 Which of the following is for forming cross-linking polyacrylamide? (a) APS (ammonium persulfate) (b) TEMED (tertramethylethylene diamine) (c) BIS (methylenebisacrylamide) 8 Which of the following requires size standards to determine the size of DNA fragments? (a) Agarose slab gel electrophoresis (b) Polyacrylamide slab gel electrophoresis (c) Capillary electrophoresis (d) All of above 9 During STR analysis, the resolution of the electrophoresis could be improved by a (a) Non-denaturing electrophoresis system (b) Denaturing electrophoresis system 10 Preparing samples for capillary electrophoresis with an addition of formamide is intended to produce (a) Non-denaturing DNA strands (b) Denaturing DNA strands 11 During capillary electrophoresis (a) DNA migrates away from the anode and moves toward the cathode. (b) DNA migrates away from the cathode and moves toward the anode. 12 The laser used for STR fluorescence detection (a) Excites the dye molecules (b) Measures the light intensity emitted from the dye molecules 13 The electrophoresis separation of STR samples is performed under which condition to improve size precision? (a) At room temperature (b) In the presence of heat 14 Which of the following is true for capillary electrophoresis? (a) As the salt level increases in the sample, fewer DNA molecules are injected (b) As the salt level increases in the sample, more DNA molecules are injected 15 The absence of electric current during capillary electrophoresis may be due to (a) Low buffer levels in the reservoirs (b) Bubbles in the capillary (c) All of the above Chapter 9 Detection Methods (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following is a DNA intercalating dye? (a) Ethidium bromide (b) SYBR Green (c) All of above 2 Which of the following can be used to label DNA? (a) Streptavidin (b) Horseradish peroxidase (c) Biotin 3 Which of the following binds to biotin? (a) Streptavidin (b) Horseradish peroxidase 4 Which of the following is for the estimation of size of the STR fragment? (a) Sizing standards (b) Allelic ladders 5 Which of the following is for determining the allele of the STR fragment? (a) Sizing standards (b) Allelic ladders 6 Which of the following is utilized by the forensic community to detect STR fragments? (a) JOE (b) LIZ (c) All of the above 7 What is a common method for detecting STR fragments in forensic laboratories? (a) Alkaline phosphatease (b) Biotin (c) Fluorescent detection (d) All of the above 8 Which of the following is the substrate of horseradish peroxidase? (a) Luminol and its derivatives (b) 3,3',5,5'-tetramethylbenzidine (TMB) (c) All of the above 9 Which of the following is the substrate of alkaline phosphatase? (a) LumigenPPD (b) 3,3',5,5'-tetramethylbenzidine (TMB) (c) All of the above 10 Which of the following is usually labeled in an alkaline phosphatase-based detection method? (a) A probe (b) A primer (c) Both of the above 11 Which of the following is usually labeled with biotin for a hybridizationbased assay? (a) A probe (b) A primer (c) All of the above 12 Which of the following is usually labeled with a fluorescent dye for a PCRbased assay? (a) Dideoxynucleotides (b) A primer (c) Both of the above Chapter 10 Serology Concepts (a single correct answer for each question) 1 A monoclonal antibody (a) binds to a single epitope of an antigen (b) binds to two epitopes of an antigen (c) binds to multiepitopes of an antigen (d) all of above 2 What do antiglobulins usually recognize? (a) variable region of immunoglobulins (b) conserved region of immunoglobulins 3 Which of the following is a precipitation-based assay? (a) A primary reaction assay (b) A secondary reaction assay 4 Which of the following is more sensitive? (a) Primary binding assays (b) Secondary binding assays 5 Which of the following is true? (a) Affinity refers to the interaction between a single epitope on the antigen and a single binding site on an antibody (b) Avidity refers to the interaction between a single epitope on the antigen and a single binding site on an antibody 6 What makes a monoclonal antibody different from a polyclonal antibody? (a) Monoclonal antibodies are specific (b) Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous (c) Monoclonal antibodies can be obtained in unlimited quantities (d) All of above 7 Which of the following is true for a primary binding reaction? (a) Binding between a single epitope of an antigen and a single binding site of an antibody (b) Binding between a single epitope of an antigen and bivalent binding sites of an antibody (c) Binding between multiepitope of an antigen and a single binding sites of an antibody (d) Binding between a multiepitope of an antigen and bivalent binding sites of an antibody 8 The overall strength of binding between an antibody and an antigen is called (a) Affinity (b) Avidity 9 What do antiglobulins recognize? (a) Immunoglobulins (b) Globulins (c) All of above 10 Which of the following involves excess antigen? (a) Prozone (b) Postzone (c) Zone of equivalence Chapter 11 Serology Techniques: Past, Current, and Future (a single correct answer for each question) 1 The antibody–antigen–antibody sandwich can be formed using: (a) A single monoclonal antibody (b) Two monoclonal antibodies that recognize different epitopes of an antigen (c) All of the above 2 Which of the following method is based on a primary reaction? (a) Immunochromatographic assay (b) Ouchterlony assay 3 Which of the following is true for the high-dose hook effect? (a) It involves excess amounts of antigen (b) It involves excess amounts of antibody 4 Which of the following is true for the prozone effect? (a) It involves excess amounts of antigen (b) It involves excess amounts of antibody 5 Which of the following is true for precipitation-based assays? (a) It involves soluble antigens (b) It involves cell surface antigens 6 Which of the following is true for agglutination-based assays? (a) It involves soluble antigens (b) It involves cell surface antigens 7 In a immunochromatographic assay, a) Too much antigen may cause a false-negative result b) Too much antigen may cause a false-positive result 8 Which of the following is more sensitive? (a) Primary binding assays (b) Secondary binding assays 9 In immunodiffusion assays: (a) An antigen-containing gel is usually employed. (b) An antibody-containing gel is usually employed. 10 Tissue-specific differentially methylated regions (TDMRs) show differential DNA methylation patterns between different tissues. Which of the following is true? (a) Semen-specific TDMRs are hypermethylated in spermatozoa (b) Semen-specific TDMRs are hypomethylated in spermatozoa 11 Which of the following can potentially be used for the identification of bodily fluids ? (a) mRNA-based assay (b) miRNA-based assay (c) All of the above 12 Which of the following is true for the nondestructive identification techniques of bodily fluids? (a) The techniques do not consume the evidence at all (b) The techniques can potentially identify multiple bodily fluids in question using only one sample of the evidence (c) All of the above Chapter 12 Identification of Blood (a single correct answer for each question) 1 The presumptive blood tests are very specific for blood samples. (a) True (b) False 2 A false positive blood test may be caused by (a) Household cleaning agents (b) Certain vegetables (c) Reductants (d) A and B 3 Which of the following may be used in the dark? (a) Kastle-Meyer test (b) LMG test (c) Luminol test (d) Teichmann test 4 Which of the following requires an excitation light source? (a) Kastle-Meyer test (b) LMG test (c) Luminol test (d) fluorescin test 5 Which of the following requires hydrogen peroxide? (a) Kastle-Meyer test (b) LMG test (c) Tetramethylbenzidine test (d) All of above 6 Which of the following encodes a hemoglobin chain? (a) HBA1 (b) PBGD (c) SPTB 7 Which of the following is a colored chemical in Kastle-Meyer test? (a) Phenolphthalin (b) Phenolphthalein 8 A color change occurring immediately upon adding presumptive assay substrate indicates (a) A contamination of oxidant in a sample (b) A contamination of reductant in a sample 9 Treating samples under high temperature can permanently inactivate peroxidases present in the samples. (a) True (b) False 10 Bleach may react with Luminol and lead to. (a) A false positive result (b) A false negative result 11 Presumptive blood tests are usually. (a) Sensitive (b) Not sensitive (c) Specific (d) Time consuming 12 The crystal test for blood samples is human specific (a) True (b) False 13 A stain can presumptively be identified as blood by the (a) Amelogenin test (b) Kastle-Meyer test (c) Acid phosphatase test (d) Amylase test 14 Which of the following is true? (a) Heme is a component of hemoglobin. (b) Hemoglobin is located in the red blood cells. (c) Hemoglobin is responsible for carrying oxygen. (d) All of the above. 15 Which of the following applies to the identification of blood? (a) The Takayama assay acts on hemoglobin. (b) The acid phosphatase test acts on hemoglobin. (c) The amylase assay acts on hemoglobin. (d) The amelogenin test acts on hemoglobin. 16 Which of the following is true? (a) A positive Kastle-Meyer test produces a pink color. (b) A positive Kastle-Meyer test produces a green color. (c) A positive LMG test produces a pink color. (d) None of the above. Chapter 13 Species Identification (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following can be used for species identification? (a) Antihuman albumin antiserum (b) Antihuman hemoglobin antibody (c) Antihuman glycophorin A antibody (d) All of the above 2 Most antihuman sera usually react with (a) Higher primates (b) Non-primates (c) Invertebrates 3 Which of the following is the most sensitive method for identification of species origin of a blood sample? (a) Immunochromatographic assay (b) Ouchterlony assay 4 Which of the following is true? (a) The reciprocal of the highest dilution giving a positive reaction is known as the titer (b) The reciprocal of the lowest dilution giving a positive reaction is known as the titer (c) The reciprocal of the highest dilution giving a negative reaction is known as the titer (d) The reciprocal of the lowest dilution giving a negative reaction is known as the titer 5 Which of the following is true for partial identity? (a) Antigens in two samples have the same epitope (b) Antigens in two samples have the same molecular composition 6 Which of the following is true for two identical antigens? (a) When two precipitate lines are fused (b) When two precipitate lines are crossed (c) When two precipitate lines are spurred 7 Which of the following is true? (a) Antihuman glycophorin A antibody can be used for species identification (b) Antihuman glycophorin A antibody can be used for blood identification (c) All of the above 8 When is it necessary to perform a species identification test? (a) It can be useful for screening to exclude or eliminate nonhuman samples unrelated to an investigation (b) Species identification kits such as immunochromatographic devices allow field testing by crime scene investigators to confirm human evidence samples to be collected (c) All of the above 9 The titration of antibodies is intended to prevent the: (a) Prozone effect (b) Postzone effect (c) High-dose hook effect 10 Human glycophorin A and hemoglobin assays can be used for: (a) Blood identification (b) Species identification (c) All of the above Chapter 14 Identification of Semen (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following is used to test for the presence of semen? (a) Acid phosphatase (b) Fluorescin (c) TMB (d) Luminol 2 Which of the following is true? (a) Semen can be identified by the presence of spermatozoa. (b) Semen contains seminal vesicle-specific antigen. (c) Semen contains prostate-specific antigen. (d) All of the above. 3 Prostate-specific antigen can be present in seminal stains (a) In cases of oligospermia (low sperm count) (b) In cases of aspermia (absence of sperm) (c) In cases of successful vasectomy (d) all of the above 4 Seminal vesicle specific antigens can be present in seminal stains (a) In cases of oligospermia (low sperm count) (b) In cases of aspermia (absence of sperm) (c) In cases of successful vasectomy (d) all of the above 5 Mitochondria are located at (a) The acrosomal cap (b) Head of a spermatozoon (c) Middle piece of a spermatozoon (d) Flagellum of a spermatozoon 6 Which of the following is the substrate of acid phosphatase? (a) Naphthyl phosphate (b) Methylumbelliferone phosphate (c) All of above (d) None of above 7 Which of the following is a more sensitive method? (a) Colorimetric acid phosphatase assay (b) Fluororimetric acid phosphatase assay 8 Which of the following encodes PSA? (a) KLK (b) PRM1 (c) PRM2 9 In a immunochromatographic assay (a) Too much antigen may cause a false-negative result (b) Too much antigen may cause a false-positive result 10 Spermatazoa can be present (a) In cases of oligospermia (b) In cases of aspermia (c) In cases of successful vasectomy (d) All of the above 11 Which of the following stains the nucleus? (a) Nuclear fast red (b) Picroindigocarmine 12 An alternate light source is useful when searching for (a) Semen stains (b) Saliva stains (c) Both A and B Chapter 15 Identification of Saliva (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following is considered confirmatory for identifying saliva? (a) Starch–iodine assay (b) Phadebas assay (c) Use of antihuman salivary amylase antibody (d) All of the above 2 Salivary amylase is encoded at (a) Amy1 locus (b) Amy2 locus 3 Which of the following is a human amylase? a) Alpha amylase b) Beta amylase 4 Which of the following can be used as a marker for saliva? a) Histatin b) Protamine c) Kallilkrein d) Spectrin 5 Which of the following is true? a) Human amylases cleave linear starch randomly b) Human amylases cleave linear starch at terminal ends 6 Where are amylases secreted? (a) Salivary glands (b) Pancreas (c) Both of the above 7 Which of the following reacts with Phadebas reagent? (a) Human salivary amylase (b) Human pancreatic amylase (c) Plant amylase (d) Bacterial amylase (e) All of the above 8 Which of the following can distinguish human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase? (a) Starch–iodine assay (b) Phadebas assay (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 9 In an iodine test (a) Starch reacts with iodine to form a colored complex (b) Amylase treated starch reacts with iodine to form a colored complex 10 When is an amylase mapping assay necessary? (a) Searching for possible saliva stains (b) When stains can be visualized using a 470 nm wavelength light source (c) All of the above Chapter 16 Identification of Vaginal Secretions and Menstrual Blood (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following cells can be stained using Lugol’s iodine solution? (a) Vaginal epithelial cells (b) Oral mucosa epithelial cells (c) Urinary tract epithelial cells (d) All of the above 2 Which of the following gene encodes vaginal acid phosphatase? (a) ACP1 (b) ACP2 (c) ACP3 (d) ACP5 (e) ACPT (f) Not known 3 4-methylumbelliferyl phosphate (MUP) is a substrate of (a) prostate acid phosphatase (b) vaginal acid phosphatase (c) All of the above 4 Which of the following has higher electrophoretic mobility toward an anode (a positively charged electrode)? (a) prostate acid phosphatase (b) vaginal acid phosphatase 5 Which one, of the following markers, can be used for the identification of vaginal secretions? (a) MUC4 (b) HBD1 (c) MMP7 (d) MMP11 (e) a and b 6 The D-dimer assay can positively identify (a) Menstrual blood samples (b) Peripheral blood (c) Postmortem blood (d) All of the above (e) a and c 7 Which of the following is the predominant isoenzyme in menstrual blood? (a) LDH1 (b) LDH2 (c) LDH3 (d) LDH4 (e) LDH5 (f) d and e 8 Which of the following has higher electrophoretic mobility toward an anode (a positively charged electrode)? (a) LDH1 (b) LDH2 (c) LDH3 (d) LDH4 (e) LDH5 9 Which of the following is a purple dye used for detecting LDH activity? (a) Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) (b) Formazan (c) All of the above 10 Which of the following is the most sensitive and specific marker for distinguishing menstrual blood from peripheral blood? (a) MMP7 (b) MMP11 (c) All of the above Chapter 17 Identification of Urine, Sweat, Fecal Matter, and Vomitus (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following is a confirmative assay for the identification of urine ? (a) Identification of Urea (b) Identification of Creatinine (c) Identification of Tamm–Horsfall Protein (d) Identification of 17-Ketosteroids (e) c and d 2 DMAC assay is for (a) Identification of Urea (b) Identification of Creatinine (c) Identification of Tamm–Horsfall Protein (d) Identification of 17-Ketosteroids 3 Which of the following is likely found in urine? (a) Creatine (b) Creatinine (c) All of the above 4 Which of the following assay is used for the identification of creatinine? (a) Jaffe’s assay (b) DMAC assay (c) All of the above 5 Tamm–Horsfall protein is exclusively synthesized in the epithelial cells of (a) Collecting duct (b) Distal tubule (c) Henle’s loop (d) Proximal tubule 6 In addition to urine, some of 17-ketosteroid conjugates are present in serum. (a) TRUE (b) FALSE 7 Dermcidin has been identified as a potential biomarker of (a) Urine (b) Sweat (c) All of the above 8 Which of the following fragments has characteristics that are used for fecal matter identification? (a) Plant dermal tissues (b) Plant vascular tissues (c) Animal skeletal muscle fibers (d) All of the above 9 Urobilin can be found in (a) Fecal materials (b) Urine (c) All of the above 10 Pepsin can be detected in (a) Fecal materials (b) Urine (c) Gastric fluid (d) Sweat Chapter 18 Blood Group Typing and Protein Profiling (a single correct answer for each question) 1 What is the molecular basis for designating an individual a nonsecretor? (a) Fut1 mutation (b) Fut2 mutation 2 Which serum antibody does a type B individual have? (a) Anti-A (b) Anti-B (c) Anti-A and anti-B (d) Neither 3 Which of the following performs better when testing an aged blood stain? (a) Lattes crust assay (b) Absorption–elution assay 4 In a blood group typing test, antibodies bind to antigens located on the surfaces of erythrocytes. Which of the following is true for this type of assay? (a) Agglutination assay (b) Hemagglutination assay 5 Which of the following antigen(s) does a type O individual have? (a) A antigen (b) B antigen (c) A and B antigen (d) Neither A nor B antigen 6 Which of the following is the terminal sugar molecule of B antigen? (a) N-acetylglucosamine (b) Galactose (c) Fucose (d) N-acetylgalactosamine 7 Historically, forensic protein profiling is carried out using (a) Denaturing protein electrophoresis (b) Renaturing protein electrophoresis 8 Erythrocyte phosphoglucomutase is a marker used for forensic protein profiling, which is one of (a) Erythrocyte isoenzymes (b) Hemoglobins (c) Serum proteins 9 Which of the following protein separation methods is based on the charge of protein molecules? (a) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (b) Isoelectric focusing technique (c) All of the above 10 Haptoglobin is a marker used for forensic protein profiling, which is one of (a) Erythrocyte isoenzymes (b) Hemoglobins (c) Serum proteins Chapter 19 Variable Number Tandem Repeat Profiling (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which probe is located at the flanking regions of VNTRs? (a) MLP (b) SLP 2 Which of the following DNA samples can be used in the RFLP method? (a) DNA extracted by the Chelex method (b) DNA extracted by the organic solvent method (c) DNA extracted by the silica-based method (d) b and c 3 Failure to obtain an RFLP profile can be caused by (a) DNA degradation (b) Star activity of restriction enzyme (c) Partial restriction digestion 4 Mixed samples from more than one donor can be analyzed via the (a) MLP technique (b) SLP technique 5 Which of the following is more sensitive? (a) RFLP (b) AFLP 6 In RFLP, an extra band pattern can be caused by (a) Mutations (b) Star activity (c) Partial restriction digestion (d) All of the above 7 In RFLP, a band with a larger size than the true allele can be caused by (a) Mutations (b) Star activity (c) Partial restriction digestion (d) a and c 8 DNA fingerprinting was carried out using (a) MLP technique (b) SLP technique (c) Both a and b 9 Which of the following techniques can detect the discrete alleles of a profile? (a) AFLP (b) RFLP (c) All of the above 10 Which of the following statements is true for AFLP? (a) The larger alleles may not be consistently detected as the small alleles (b) The small alleles may not be consistently detected as the large alleles Chapter 20 Autosomal Short Tandem Repeat Profiling (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Non-template adenylation can be observed (a) During DNA extraction (b) During DNA amplification (c) During DNA electrophoresis 2 If non-template adenylation occurs, (a) The PCR product is usually a +adenine product (b) The template product is usually a +adenine product (c) The PCR product is usually a -adenine product 3 Null allele could be due to (a) Mutations in the primer binding sequences of STR flanking regions on a DNA template (b) Mutations in STR repeat regions on a DNA template (c) Mutations in STR flanking regions (but not the primer binding sequences) on a DNA template 4 Which of the following could be detected by STR analysis (a) Deletion mutation in core repeat (b) Insertion mutation in core repeat (c) Nucleotide replacement in core repeat (same length but different sequence) (d) a and b 5 For moderately degraded DNA samples (a) Shorter alleles work better than longer alleles for STR analysis (b) Longer alleles work better than shorter alleles for STR analysis 6 To identify the presence of a mixture (a) More than 2 alleles per loci has to be observed (b) More than 3 alleles per loci has to be observed (c) More than 4 alleles per loci has to be observed 7 Your STR testing shows neither size standards nor PCR products. What is a possible explanation? (a) An electrophoresis problem (b) An amplification problem (c) A detection problem (d) a and c 8 Which of the following is true for PCR-based STR techniques? (a) PCR inhibitors can block amplifying template DNA, causing a failure to obtain STR profiles (b) Although PCR inhibitors can block amplifying template DNA, they do not affect obtaining STR profiles (c) Both a and b 9 The allelic ladder should (a) Be mixed with the DNA sample (b) Not be mixed with the DNA sample 10 Which of the following can be the cause of triallelic patterns? (a) Chromosomal duplication (b) Duplicated fragment chromosome (c) DNA sequence duplication at STR flanking regions (d) All of above 11 Which of the following STR marker is more valuable in analyzing mixtures? (a) D18S51 (because it possesses a larger numbers of alleles) (b) TPOX (because it possesses not so many numbers of alleles) 12 For paternity testing, which of the following is preferred? (a) Markers with low mutation rate (b) Markers with high mutation rate 13 Forensic STR markers usually are located in the (a) Coding region of genomic DNA (b) Noncoding region of genomic DNA 14 The most commonly used STRs are tetrameric repeats. Why? (a) Because dimeric and trimeric repeats are less common (b) Because pentameric and hexameric repeats have high stutter effects (c) Because dimeric and trimeric repeats have high stutter effects (d) None of the above 15 Alleles of the same length that have different sequences (a) Can be detected by current STR analysis methods (b) Cannot be detected by current STR analysis methods 16 A stutter peak is usually (a) One repeat unit shorter than the true allele (b) One repeat unit longer than the true allele 17 The STR loci currently used in forensic labs (a) Are found only in humans (b) May be found in humans and other primates 18 Which of the following is the more sensitive method? (a) RFLP (b) STR 19 The length of STR fragments used for current forensic DNA testing is approximately (a) 10,000 to 50,000 base pairs (b) 1000 to 5000 base pairs (c) 100 to 500 base pairs 20 Which of the following may cause someone to mistake a profile as a DNA mixture? (a) Stutter products (b) Triallelic patterns due to extra chromosomal occurrences (c) Both of the above 21 With STR testing, which of the following is usually fluorescently labeled for PCR amplification? (a) dNTPs (b) PCR primers 22 Which of the following have lower mutation rates? (a) STRs (b) SNPs 23 During capillary electrophoresis, the size standards should (a) Be mixed with the DNA sample (b) Not be mixed with the DNA sample 24 You have obtained alleles 15 and 16 at one locus from an STR kit. Another STR kit reveals only allele 16 during testing of the same sample. How can this be explained? (a) Sample mix-up (b) Mixture (c) Null allele due to a mutation at the primer binding sequence 25 What conclusion can be made if only a partial DNA profile is obtained? (a) The sample may have some degradation (b) Preferential amplification (c) All of the above 26 Mixture profiles can be identified using (a) RFLP (b) STR (c) All of the above 27 Your STR testing showed size standards but no PCR products. What can cause this? (a) An electrophoresis problem (b) An amplification problem (c) A detection problem 28 Identical quantities of stutter products should be observed among various loci. (a) TRUE (b) FALSE Chapter 21 Sex Chromosome Haplotyping and Gender Identfication (a single correct answer for each question) 1 The bones of a missing male victim have been recovered. Which of the following reference samples should be collected to identify the remains using Y-STR tests? (a) The father (b) The uncle (c) The sister (d) The brother (e) a, b and d 2 The human Y chromosome contains: (a) Psuedo-autosomal region (b) Non-Recombining Portion of Y chromosome (c) A & B (d) None of the above 3 Most of forensic Y-STR loci are located at (a) PAR1 (b) PAR2 (c) MSY 4 The STR loci at the Y chromosome are usually referred to as (a) Non-linked STRs (b) Haplotype loci (c) Either A or B (d) None of the above 5 This marker refers to an STR that is duplicated at more than one site on the Y chromosome. (a) DYS458 (b) DYS19 (c) DYS385 (d) DYS393 6 Which of the following locus always show two alleles? (a) DYS385 (b) DYS389 (c) DYS390 (d) DYS391 7 Which of the following locus may show either one or two alleles? (a) DYS385 (b) DYS389 (c) DYS390 (d) DYS391 8 Which of the following is true? (a) The discrimination power of Y-STR is higher than that of autosomal STR (b) The discrimination power of Y-STR is lower than that of autosomal STR 9 Which of the following is true? (a) The mutation rate in Y-STR is higher than that of mtDNA (b) The mutation rate in Y-STR is lower than that of mtDNA 10 The amelogenin locus of the (a) X chromosome has a 6-base pair deletion at intron 3. (b) Y chromosome has a 6-base pair deletion at intron 3. 11 Most Y chromosome STRs used for forensic analysis are (a) Trimeric repeats (b) Tetrameric repeats (c) Pentameric repeats (d) Hexameric repeats 12 The Y chromosomes should be identical among (a) Brothers from the same father (b) Half-brothers from the same father (c) Both of the above 13 Which test is most preferred for sex identification? (a) Y-STR (b) Y-SNP (c) Amelogenin marker 14 Which of the following has a lower mutation rate? (a) Y-STR (b) Y-SNP 15 The Y chromosome is always located in the (a) Mitochondria (b) Nucleus (c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b Chapter 22 Single Nucleotide Polymorphism Profiling (a single correct answer for each question) 1 A bi-allelic SNP have a maximum of (a) 1 different genotypes (b) 2 different genotypes (c) 3 different genotypes (d) 4 different genotypes 2 In the reverse blot method of HLA DQA1 testing (a) The probe is labeled with biotin. (b) The primer is labeled with biotin. 3 Single nucleotide polymorphisms testing (a) Can be useful for analyzing moderately degraded DNA samples (b) is more useful for testing mixed samples from more than one donor than STR analysis (c) can have higher discriminating power than that of STR loci 4 Which of the following is an example of a single nucleotide polymorphism? (a) A base substitution on Y chromosome (b) A base substitution on autosomal DNA (c) A base substitution on mitochondrial DNA (d) All of the above 5 Most SNPs are (a) Biallelic (b) Triallelic (c) Tetraallelic (d) All of the above 6 Most SNPs for human identification reside in (a) Noncoding regions of DNA (b) Exons that do not change the amino acid compositions of proteins (c) Exons that change the amino acid compositions of proteins (d) All of the above 7 SNPs for phenotyping usually reside in (a) Noncoding regions of DNA (b) Exons that do not change the amino acid compositions of proteins (c) Exons that change the amino acid compositions of proteins (d) All of the above 8 Which of the following can be used for DNA sequencing? (a) ddNTPs (b) 3’O-allyl-dNTPs (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 9 De novo genome sequencing is usually for sequencing (a) Uncharacterized genomes (b) Characterized genomes (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 10 Which of the following techniques is an example of sequencing by synthesis? (a) Pyrosequencing (b) Cyclic reversible termination (c) Both a and b Chapter 23 Mitochondrial DNA Profiling (a single correct answer for each question) 1 The bones of a missing female victim have been recovered. Which of the following reference samples should be collected to identify the remains using mtDNA tests? (a) The father (b) The uncle (c) The sister (d) The brother (e) c and d 2 At a crime scene, a hair shaft with no root is recovered. Which of the following types of analysis would be most useful: (a) RFLP (b) rDNA (c) Y-STR (d) MtDNA 3 This is defined as the presence of two nucleotides at a single site with overlapping peaks in a sequence electropherogram: (a) Length heteroplasmy (b) Sequence heteroplasmy (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 4 In a mtDNA reporting format you see “228N.” What does this mean? (a) There is an unresolved sequence ambiguity observed at site 228 (b) The Mitotype carries an N (c) The Mitotype carries an A (d) None of the above 5 What are the kinds of samples that can be used for the forensic DNA analysis of a missing person case? (a) Family reference samples (b) Unidentified human remains samples (c) Direct reference samples (such as a toothbrush belonging to the victim) (d) All of above 6 Which of the following works better for DNA samples obtained from decomposed remains? (a) STR analysis (b) RFLP analysis (c) mtDNA analysis 7 Heteroplasmy is usually observed in (a) Nuclear DNA (b) Mitochondrial DNA (c) The Y chromosome (d) All of the above 8 Human mtDNA consists of approximately how many base pairs? (a) About 1,650 (b) About 16,500 (c) About 165,000 (d) About 1,650,000 9 What is the revised Cambridge reference sequence? (a) The human mtDNA reference sequence. (b) The primate mtDNA reference sequence. (c) Reference sequence with the human hypervariable region only. (d) Reference sequence with the primate hypervariable region only. 10 Which of the following is true for mtDNA? (a) The heavy strand has a higher GC content than that of light strand (b) The light strand has a higher GC content than that of heavy strand 11 Mitochondrial DNA should be identical among (a) Half-brothers from the same mother (b) Half-Sisters from the same mother (c) Sisters and brothers from the same mother (d) All of the above 12 mtDNA usually can be found in (a) Shed hair (b) Pulled hair (c) All of the above 13 Which part of the mtDNA genome is currently used with forensic casework? (a) The D-loop (b) The coding region (c) About 75 % of human mitochondrial genome (d) STR region 14 What is the length of the HVI region of mtDNA? (a) About 1,600 base pairs (b) About 700-800 base pairs (c) About 300-400 base pairs (d) About 100-200 base pairs 15 Which of the following is utilized in DNA sequencing? (a) 3’dNTP (b) 2’3’ddNTP (c) 3’dNTP and 2’3’ddNTP 16 Which of the following would be preferred? (a) Perform mtDNA sequencing prior to the mtDNA LinearArray test. (b) Perform the mtDNA LinearArray test prior to mtDNA sequencing. 17 If the questioned and known samples differ by a single nucleotide in a forensic mtDNA analysis (and no heteroplasmy is present), the conclusion should be: (a) Exclude (b) Cannot exclude (c) Inconclusive 18 Which of the following has the lowest mutation rate? (a) STRs (b) Autosomal SNPs (c) Mitochondrial HV sequences 19 mtDNA testing may be used to determine (a) Maternal inheritance (b) Paternity 20 Which of the following is true? (a) An individual may have more than one mtDNA type in a single tissue. (b) An individual may exhibit one mtDNA type in one tissue and a different type in another tissue. (c) An individual may be heteroplasmic in one tissue sample and homoplasmic in another tissue sample. (d) All of the above 21 What region of the mtDNA D loop is used in forensic analysis? (a) The heavy strand (b) The light strand (c) Hypervariable regions (d) tRNA 22 Which of the following is true in mtDNA sequencing? (a) Signal dropout is common after the C stretch of HV1 when polymorphic T is absent. (b) Signal dropout is common after the C stretch of HV1 when polymorphic T is present. 23 An electropherogram of an mtDNA sequence has a C/T at position 16093 but not at any other position. Which of the following is most likely? (a) Contamination (b) Heteroplasmy (c) DNA mixture Chapter 24 Forensic DNA Databases: Tools for Crime Investigations (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following is not a part of CODIS? (a) Forensic index which contains DNA profiles with crime scene evidence (b) Offender index which contains profiles of convicted offenders (c) Suspect index which contains profiles of suspects 2 CODIS is an acronym for (a) Convicted offender DNA index system (b) Combined DNA index system (c) Codified information system (d) Code of detection in identification of suspects 3 Which country's DNA database was established in 1995? (a) U.S. (b) Canada (c) U.K. (d) Germany 4 Which of the following stringency is utilized in CODIS database searching? (a) At each locus, an exact match in which all alleles are matched between two profiles (b) At each locus, having all of the alleles of one sample represented in the other sample (c) At each locus, mismatches and allelic dropouts are allowed 5 Which of the following is true? (a) Familial searches are allowed in CODIS database searching (b) Familial searches are not allowed in CODIS database searching 6 Which country’s DNA database contains more than 10 million profiles? (a) United States (b) Canada (c) United Kingdom (d) Germany 7 What are the major concerns about DNA database expansion? (a) It does not facilitate investigations involving missing, kidnapped, and abducted individuals (b) It does not facilitate investigations involving victims of major accidents and mass fatalities. (c) Neither a nor b. 8 What are the advantages of a database containing a high number of DNA profiles in proportion to the population? (a) More likelihood of finding a match (b) Less likelihood of finding a match 9 What are the disadvantages of familial searching using a DNA database? (a) Privacy issues (b) The Fourth Amendment issues (c) Both a and b. 10 If new DNA loci are included in a database, what problems might be encountered? (a) It may not be matched to old entries (b) The discrimination power of a match may be reduced (c) All of the above 11 How would you assess the success of applying a DNA database to criminal investigations? (a) It is useful in coordinating investigations (b) It is useful in linking cases committed by the same offender (c) It is useful in sharing information among various law enforcement agencies (d) All of the above Chapter 25 Evaluation of the Strength of Forensic DNA Profiling Results (a single correct answer for each question) 1 When is it necessary to calculate profile probability? (a) Nonmatch (b) Match (c) Inconclusive (d) All of the above 2 This allows for the prediction of the genotype frequencies to be made from the allelic frequencies: (a) Hardy-Weinberg Principle (b) Mendel’s 1st Principle (c) Mendel’s 2nd Principle (d) b and c 3 The most commonly used approach for interpretation of haplotype profiles is: (a) Linkage disequilibrium (b) The counting method (c) Product rule (d) Profile frequency 4 Which of the following is preferred for human identification? (a) Genetic loci with high heterozygosity (b) Genetic loci with low heterozygosity 5 Which of the following may have more individuals with homozygotes? (a) Native American population (b) Major US population 6 The product rule may be applied to (a) Autosomal SNPs (b) Y chromosomal SNPs (c) mtDNA SNPs 7 The product rule may be applied to (a) Autosomal STR profiles (b) Y chromosomal STR profiles (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 8 The observation of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium indicates that (a) The loci tested are independent. (b) The loci tested are linked. 9 The higher the profile probability, (a) The more likely a coincidental match of DNA profile will occur (b) The less likely a coincidental match of DNA profile will occur 10 If a mitotype is observed five times in a database (n = 850), what would be the mitotype frequency? (a) 0.82 (b) 0.082 (c) 0.0082 (d) 0.00082 Chapter 26 Quality Assurance and Quality Control (a single correct answer for each question) 1 Which of the following is conducted by ASCLD/LAB? (a) Laboratory validation (b) Proficiency testing (c) Laboratory accreditation 2 Which of the following courses are required for the qualification of a forensic DNA analyst? (a) Biochemistry, genetics, and molecular biology (b) Molecular genetics and analytical chemistry (c) Analytical chemistry and molecular biology 3 Proficiency tests are based solely on the performance of an analyst. (a) TRUE (b) FALSE 4 To implement a new laboratory procedure for forensic DNA testing, which of the following is the first step required? (a) Proficiency test (b) Laboratory accreditation (c) Laboratory audit (d) Laboratory validation studies 5 Which of the following is true for the DNA Identification Act? (a) To establish a national DNA database (b) To establish a DNA advisory board (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 6 Which of the following is a current organization? (a) TWAGAM (b) SWAGAM 7 IQAS (International Quality Assessment Scheme) is for (a) Proficiency test (b) Laboratory accreditation (c) Laboratory audit (d) Laboratory validation studies 8 Which of the NRC report provides guidelines for forensic DNA analysis? (a) NRCI (b) NRCII 9 What are the minimum qualifications for a forensic DNA analyst before beginning independent casework responsibilities? (a) A BA/BS degree or its equivalent degree in a biology, chemistry or forensic science-related area (b) Successfully completed college course work covering the subject areas of biochemistry, genetics and molecular biology (c) At least 6 months of forensic DNA laboratory experience (d) Successfully completed a qualifying test (e) All of the above 10 Which of the following is the definition of quality assurance? (a) Processes to ensure that a service will meet laboratory requirements for the integrity of testing (b) The operational procedures necessary to meet quality requirements (c) All of the above 11 A typical document of ethical codes for forensic scientists generally contains (a) Ethics relating to the scientific method (b) Ethics relating to opinions and conclusions (c) Ethical aspects of court presentation (d) Ethics relating to the general practice of forensics (e) Ethical responsibilities to the profession (f) All of the above Answers to study questions Chapter 1 1 a 2 b 3 d 4 a 5 d 6 a 7 a 8 d 9 a 10 d 11 d 12 b 13 c 14 d 15 a 16 a Chapter 2 1 c 2 b 3 c 4 a 5 d 6 c 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 b 11 c 12 d Chapter 3 1 a 2 a 3 b 4 a 5 b 6 a 7 b 8 d 9 b 10 a 11 a Chapter 4 1 c 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 b 11 d 12 c Chapter 5 1 b 2 b 3 b 4 d 5 a 6 b 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 d 11 a 12 c 13 a Chapter 6 1 a 2 c 3 c 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 c 8 a 9 c 10 b 11 a 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 c 16 a 17 a 18 d 19 a Chapter 7 1 d 2 a 3 a 4 b 5 d 6 a 7 a 8 d 9 a 10 c 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 a 16 d 17 a 18 b 19 a 20 d 21 a 22 a 23 c 24 a Chapter 8 1 e 2 c 3 a 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 c 8 d 9 b 10 b 11 b 12 a 13 b 14 a 15 c Chapter 9 1 c 2 c 3 a 4 a 5 b 6 c 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 a 11 c 12 c Chapter 10 1 a 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 a 6 d 7 a 8 a 9 a 10 b Chapter 11 1 b 2 a 3 a 4 b 5 a 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 b 11 c 12 c Chapter 12 1 b 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 d 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 a 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 a 16 a Chapter 13 1 d 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 a 6 a 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 c Chapter 14 1 a 2 d 3 d 4 d 5 c 6 c 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 a 11 a 12 c Chapter 15 1 c 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 a 6 c 7 e 8 d 9 a 10 a Chapter 16 1 d 2 f 3 c 4 a 5 e 6 e 7 f 8 a 9 b 10 b Chapter 17 1 e 2 a 3 b 4 a 5 c 6 a 7 b 8 d 9 c 10 c Chapter 18 1 b 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 c Chapter 19 1 b 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 b 6 d 7 d 8 a 9 a 10 a Chapter 20 1 b 2 a 3 a 4 d 5 a 6 a 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 d 11 a 12 a 13 b 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 b 18 b 19 c 20 c 21 b 22 b 23 a 24 c 25 c 26 c 27 b 28 b Chapter 21 1 e 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 a 8 b 9 b 10 a 11 b 12 c 13 c 14 b 15 b Chapter 22 1 c 2 b 3 a 4 d 5 a 6 a 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 c Chapter 23 1 e 2 d 3 b 4 a 5 d 6 c 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 a 11 d 12 c 13 a 14 c 15 c 16 b 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 d 21 c 22 a 23 b Chapter 24 1 c 2 b 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 a 7 c 8 a 9 c 10 a 11 d Chapter 25 1 b 2 a 3 b 4 a 5 a 6 a 7 a 8 a 9 a 10 c Chapter26 1 c 2 a 3 b 4 d 5 c 6 b 7 a 8 b 9 e 10 a 11 f