Microbiology - COMPLETE Final Lecture Exam Study Guide Questions with Correct Answers

Microbiology - COMPLETE Final Lecture Exam Study Guide Questions with Correct Answers What is a "microbe"? - Correct Answers: Any microorganism that is too small to see with the naked eye Name five examples of microbes - Correct Answers: Bacteria, fungi, protozoa, algae, viruses What is a "germ" - Correct Answers: a rapidly growing cell that can cause disease What can microbes do with organic waste? - Correct Answers: They can decompose or recycle organic waste What types of organisms can photosynthesize? - Correct Answers: In addition to plants, many microbes including some bacteria, some protists like algae. What are two examples of industrial chemicals that microbes can produce? - Correct Answers: ethyl alcohol and acetone What are some examples of microbes applications in food? - Correct Answers: They can be used to make fermented foods such as vinegar, cheese and bread What three things have the knowledge of microbes led to? - Correct Answers: prevention of food spoilage, disease occurrence and aseptic techniques Which scientist is associated with Micrographia? - Correct Answers: Robert Hooke Which scientist was the first to use microscopes? - Correct Answers: Robert Hooke Which scientist coined the term animalcules? - Correct Answers: Anton von Leeuwenhoek Which early scientist(s) developed early microscopes? - Correct Answers: Robert Hooke first, then Anton von Leeuwenhoek improved the lens Who is often called the Father of Microbiology? - Correct Answers: Anton von Leeuwenhoek Which scientist looked at only non-living material using early microscopes? - Correct Answers: Robert Hooke Which scientist was the first to view living material using early microscopes? - Correct Answers: Anton von Leeuwenhoek What is Robert Hooke known for? - Correct Answers: Used the first microscopes to view non-living material which he drew in his book Micrographia What is Anton von Leeuwenhoek known for? - Correct Answers: Improving the microscope lens and viewing living things he called animalcules. Also known as the Father of Microbiology. What is Francesco Redi known for? - Correct Answers: Attempting to disprove spontaneous generation using decaying meat in jars In the experiment using decaying meat and jars where did the maggots come from? - Correct Answers: Flies were able to lay their eggs on the meat only in the open jars In the experiment using decaying meat and jars what was the purpose of the sealed jars? - Correct Answers: To stop the flies and thereby show that no maggots would appear on the meat Did Francesco Redi successfully disprove spontaneous generation? - Correct Answers: No, many scientists of his time felt that the gauze impeded the life force so felt the experiment was flawed What is spontaneous generation? - Correct Answers: The idea that life can arise from non-living matter What is biogenesis? - Correct Answers: The idea that life can only arise from pre-existing life Which scientist attempted to disprove spontaneous generation using decaying meat? - Correct Answers: Francesco Redi Which scientist successfully discredited the idea of spontaneous generation? - Correct Answers: Louis Pasteur Briefly describe the swan neck or S shaped flask experiment - Correct Answers: Broth that had been heated in the s shaped flask remained clear, only if the top was broken off would it become cloudy What is aseptic technique? - Correct Answers: Practices and procedures to prevent contamination from pathogens Which scientist showed that microbes are responsible for fermentation? - Correct Answers: Louis Pasteur What is fermentation? - Correct Answers: The conversion of sugar to other by products such as alcohol in beer and wine Why does food go bad or spoil? - Correct Answers: The growth of food spoilage microbes How did Pasteur prevent wine from turning to vinegar? - Correct Answers: Pasteurization, ie high heat for a short time to kill spoilage bacteria What is another name for vinegar? - Correct Answers: Acetic acid What is epidemiology? - Correct Answers: The study of the source, cause and mode of transmission of disease Which three scientists were instrumental in showing how disease transmission can be interrupted? - Correct Answers: Ignaz Semmelweis, John Snow, Edward Jenner Which scientist advocated handwashing to prevent child bed fever? - Correct Answers: Ignaz Semmelweis What is Ignaz Semmelweis known for? - Correct Answers: Advocated handwashing to prevent the transmission of child bed fever in maternity patients Which scientist determined the cause of cholera transmission in London? - Correct Answers: John Snow What is John Snow known for? - Correct Answers: Discovering that a cholera epidemic was linked to water taken from the Broad Street pump in London. What is Edward Jenner known for? - Correct Answers: Developed the first vaccination by inoculating cowpox virus to protect patients from smallpox Which scientist prevented smallpox by inoculating patients with cowpox virus? - Correct Answers: Edward Jenner What is the protection obtained from vaccination called? - Correct Answers: Immunity How was the term vaccination coined? - Correct Answers: Derived from the latin "vacca" for cow Which scientist proved that yeasts were responsible for fermentation? - Correct Answers: Louis Pasteur Which scientist used a technique involving heating to kill pathogens? - Correct Answers: Louis Pasteur Which scientist proposed the germ theory? - Correct Answers: Louis Pasteur What is the germ theory? - Correct Answers: The idea that germs cause infectious disease Which scientist used chemical disinfectant to prevent surgical wound infections? - Correct Answers: Joseph Lister What is Joseph Lister known for? - Correct Answers: Using chemical disinfectant to prevent surgical wound infections Which scientist(s) investigated cholera? - Correct Answers: Both John Snow and Louis Pasteur Which scientist formalized standards to identify germs with infectious diseases? - Correct Answers: Robert Koch What is Robert Koch known for? - Correct Answers: Koch's postulates, experimental standards to identify specific germs that cause a specific disease What bacteria was initially used in Koch's postulates? - Correct Answers: <italics> Bacillus anthracis <italics> the bacteria that causes Anthrax What is the first of Koch's postulates? - Correct Answers: The same microorganism are present in every case of the disease What is the second of Koch's postulates? - Correct Answers: The microorganisms are isolated from a dead organism and a pure culture is prepared What is the third of Koch's postulates? - Correct Answers: Microorganisms from the pure culture are inoculated into a healthy, susceptible animal and the disease is reproduced What is the fourth of Koch's postulates? - Correct Answers: Microorganisms are isolated from the experimental animal as a pure culture and are compared to the pure culture from Postulate 2. If they match, that microbe is linked to that disease. How many postulates are in Koch's postulates? - Correct Answers: four Which postulate involves inoculating a healthy susceptible animal with a pure culture? - Correct Answers: Postulate 3 Which postulate involves obtaining a pure culture? - Correct Answers: Postulate 2 and Postulate 4 Which postulate involves a diseased animal? - Correct Answers: Postulate 1 and Postulate 3 What is meant by pure culture? - Correct Answers: A culture where only one species or strain of organism is present True or False: We know everything we need to know about microorganisms and viruses today. - Correct Answers: False What are some reasons to study microorganisms? - Correct Answers: Opportunity to study processes common to all life, important in disease and environmental processes What are the three general shapes that prokaryotes typically take? - Correct Answers: spherical, spiral or rod What is a prokaryote? - Correct Answers: A single celled organism that lacks a nucleus What are the two domains of prokaryotes? - Correct Answers: Domain Bacteria and Domain Archaea Is a prokaryote alive? - Correct Answers: Yes, it is a cell without a nucleus Is a virus alive? - Correct Answers: No, it is an infectious particle made up solely of protein and nucleic acid What are the possible nucleic acids you might find in virus? - Correct Answers: Either DNA or RNA, never both How do viruses replicate? - Correct Answers: They must infect a host cell and use the replication machinery in the host cell What type of microorganism lives in their food medium? - Correct Answers: fungi Can fungi cause human diseases? - Correct Answers: Yes What types of microorganisms can produce antibiotics? - Correct Answers: Some Fungi and some Bacteria Is algae a protist or a plant? - Correct Answers: Protist, ie in Kingdom Protista What is a protozoa? - Correct Answers: An animal like protist Can protozoa cause human diseases? - Correct Answers: Yes The study of bacteria is called? - Correct Answers: Bacteriology What is Bacteriology? - Correct Answers: The study of bacteria What is Virology? - Correct Answers: The study of viruses The study of viruses is called? - Correct Answers: Virology The study of fungi is called? - Correct Answers: Mycology What is Mycology? - Correct Answers: The study of fungi What is Parasitology? - Correct Answers: the study of protozoa and parasitic worms The study of protozoa and parasitic worms is called? - Correct Answers: Parasitology What has provided new tools for classifying microorganisms? - Correct Answers: Recent advances in genomics the study of an organism's genes What is Genomics? - Correct Answers: The study of an organism's genes or genomes. How might a bacteria become resistant to viruses? - Correct Answers: Bacteria can mutate to generate resistance Which type of cell contains a membrane-bound nucleus? - Correct Answers: Eukaryotic cells, ie eukaryotes Which type of cell lacks a membrane-bound nucleus? - Correct Answers: Prokaryotic cells, ie prokaryotes Is a protist prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Eukaryotic Is a bacteria prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Prokaryotic Is an archaea prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Prokaryotic Is a plant prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Eukaryotic Is a fungi prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Eukaryotic Is an animal prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Eukaryotic Is a virus prokaryotic or eukaryotic? - Correct Answers: Trick question, it is neither as a virus is not a cell and is not life What is chemotherapy? - Correct Answers: Treatment of disease with chemicals What is a general term for any chemical used to inhibit or kill microbes? - Correct Answers: Antimicrobial How is the term antibiotic different from the term antimicrobial? - Correct Answers: Antimicrobial refers to any chemical used to inhibit or kill microbes, to call this chemical an antibiotic it must be produced by a living organism like a bacteria or fungi How is the term synthetic drug different from the term antimicrobial? - Correct Answers: Antimicrobial refers to any chemical used to inhibit or kill microbes, to call this chemical a synthetic drug it must be made in a lab What are three types of antimicrobials? - Correct Answers: Antibiotics - produced from living organisms; Synthetic drugs - made in a lab; Semisynthetic - antibiotics that are modified in a lab What is Paul Ehrlich known for? - Correct Answers: Developing a synthetic drug to treat syphilis Which scientist developed salvarsan? - Correct Answers: Paul Ehrlich Is salvarsan an antibiotic, synthetic or semi-synthetic drug? - Correct Answers: Synthetic drug made from arsenic Are sulfonamides antibiotic, synthetic or semisynthetic drugs? - Correct Answers: Synthetic drugs What is Alexander Fleming known for? - Correct Answers: Discovering penicillin Which scientist discovered the first antibiotic? - Correct Answers: Alexander Fleming What was the first antibiotic ever discovered? - Correct Answers: Penicillin from the fungi <italics> Penicillium <italics> Why is Penicillin considered an antibiotic and not a synthetic or semisynthetic drug? - Correct Answers: Penicillin is produced from the fungi <italics> Penicillium <italics> and is therefore an antibiotic What challenges does microbiology face today with regards to polymicrobial diseases? - Correct Answers: A pathogen can cause more than one disease, and a disease can be caused by more than one microbe What challenges does microbiology face today with regards to infectious diseases? - Correct Answers: Infectious diseases kill about 15 million people each year What challenges does microbiology face today with regards to resistance? - Correct Answers: Pathogens are becoming resistant to antimicrobials, meaning antimicrobials do not kill pathogens as they should What challenges does microbiology face today with regards to emerging diseases? - Correct Answers: New diseases are emerging, and old diseases are reemerging What challenges does microbiology face today with regards to bioterrorism? - Correct Answers: Pathogens can be used intentionally to infect large numbers of people through bioterrorism If a microbe cannot be cultured in a lab, what branch of science will allow us to still study it? - Correct Answers: Molecular biology, ie we can examine the DNA at the molecular level and compare it to microbes that can be cultured in a lab What is the branch of science that identifies evolutionary relationships between organisms? - Correct Answers: Phylogeny What are the three domains of life? - Correct Answers: Domain Bacteria, Domain Archaea, Domain Eukarya Which of the three domains of life are prokaryotic cells? - Correct Answers: Domain Bacteria and Domain Archaea Which of the three domains of life are eukaryotic cells? - Correct Answers: Domain Eukarya What is a biofilm - Correct Answers: A complex community of microbes growing on a surface What is Bioremediation? - Correct Answers: The use of microorganisms to remove or decontaminate toxic materials in the enviroment Define atom - Correct Answers: the smallest unit of an element having the properties of that element -made of a nucleus containing protons and neutrons, surrounded by a negatively charged cloud of electrons Define the three subatomic particles - Correct Answers: The three subatomic particles that make up an atom are protons, neurons and electrons. - the specific number of subatomic particles are what give the element/atom its specific properties Define isotopes - Correct Answers: an atom of the same element that has a different number of electrons Define ions - Correct Answers: an atom with a charge -positive charged = cation -negatively charged = anion Why is electron placement important - Correct Answers: It defines/determines chemical reactivity. - an atom with an unfilled outer electron shell is unstable -also aids in bonding Describe ionic bonds - Correct Answers: form between oppositely charged ions -with this bond, one atom gives up outermost electrons to another atom Describe covalent polar bonds - Correct Answers: Covalent bonds form when atoms share outer shell electron pairs (carbon frequently forms covalent bonds) -polar means one side of the molecule has a slightly positive charge and this allows for hydrogen bonding Describe covalent nonpolar bonds - Correct Answers: Covalent bonds form when atoms share outer shell electron pairs (carbon frequently forms covalent bonds) -nonpolar means no electrical charges Describe hydrogen bonds - Correct Answers: -the most important biological bond -between DNA bases -the secondary structure of protein: Alpha Helix and Beta Pleated Sheets -it provides flexibility -form between polar groups -electrostatic attraction between partially negative and positively charged atoms -very weak Why are each of these bonds important? Where would you find them? - Correct Answers: Discuss why chemical reactions occur. - Correct Answers: Chemical reactions changed the bonding patterns of atoms in molecules Compare dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. - Correct Answers: Chemical reactions that break larger bonds into smaller ones is called hydrolysis (Hydro - lysis = water - breaks) Chemical reactions that add smaller reactants together to form a larger product is called dehydration synthesis Define solution, solute, solvent. - Correct Answers: Solution- mixture of two or more substances Solute- the substance that is being dissolved Solvent - the substance in which the solute is being dissolved State and explain the properties of water. - Correct Answers: - All cellular chemical reactions occur in water, in the cytosol or cytoplasm of an organism, within its cell walls. - Water is an excellent solvent for other polar molecules The concept and application of pH. - Correct Answers: Define the terms acid and base in terms of proton concentrations and general properties. - Correct Answers: Acid: a chemical substance that donates a H+ to a solution Base: accepts the H+ Explain what the pH scale represents. - Correct Answers: indicates the acidity or alkalinity of a solution -Zero 0 being extremely acidic -14 being extremely basic Identify the characteristics of buffers. - Correct Answers: Buffers are present in the cytosol of living cells and are a vital tool in maintaining a particular pH -Buffer systems are comprised of either a weak base + a conjugate acid, or a weak acid + a conjugate base Define what a functional group is, where do you find them? Know specific ones presented in class. - Correct Answers: Functional groups define molecular behavior - are groups of atoms projecting from biological molecules - chemical reactions can occur at functional groups if facilitated by an enzyme Know the four major organic compounds in cells and organisms. - Correct Answers: Organic in science means its is a biologically relevent molecule that includes carbon and hydrogen atoms -Proteins (58%) -Nucleic Acids (27%) -Phospholipids (8%) -Carbohydrates (7%) Carbohydrates - Correct Answers: Carbohydrates consist of sugars and sugar polymers, they provide structure and energy Monomer: monosaccharides- (simple sugars like glucose) disaccharides- (maltose) polysaccharides- (starch, glycogen, cellulose) Phospholipids (lipids) - Correct Answers: Fats. Water insoluble compounds (won't dissolve in water) Monomer: glycerol or fatty acids Nucleic Acids - Correct Answers: Large info-containing polymers ex: DNA and RNA Monomer: nucleotides (composed of sugar molecules, phosphate and nitrogenous base.) Proteins - Correct Answers: -Workhorse polymers in cells -Move things within the cell, break down, build up and provide structure Monomer: amino acids (joined together by covalent peptide bonds Amino Acids - Correct Answers: -all have an amino group and a carboxyl group - al differ in R group, which defines acid function and property -joined through dehydration synthesis RNA - Correct Answers: single-stranded molecule that copies gene information for use in protein synthesis DNA - Correct Answers: -genetic material of all organisms -genetic info contained in genes -Genes are located in chromosomes Distinguish between the four levels of protein structure. - Correct Answers: Primary: sequence of amino's in the polypeptide Secondary: regions form alpha helix, beta pleated or random coil Tertiary: how the various R groups interact and folds on itself to interact Quaternary: also the interactions between R groups, but the R groups on different polypeptides What happens to these levels in denaturation? - Correct Answers: Shape of the protein is held using ionic and hydrogen bonds, when these weak bonds are disrupted, the protein is denatured. peptidoglycan - Correct Answers: Material that makes up the bacterial cell wall of prokaryotic cells All members of Planta and Fungi, only some members of Kindgom Protesta - Correct Answers: Which kingdom in Kingdom Eukarya have cell walls? Cell - Correct Answers: Smallest unit of life Atom - Correct Answers: Smallest unit of matter Metabolism - Correct Answers: Sum total of all bonds broken and formed within an organism 10-100 micrometers (microns) - Correct Answers: Size range of eukaryotic cells 1-10 micrometers (microns) - Correct Answers: Size range of prokaryotic cells Biofilm - Correct Answers: A surface-coating colony of one or more species of prokaryotes that engage in metabolic cooperation. Stages of Bio-film Development - Correct Answers: Stage 1- Initial Attachment Stage 2- Irreversible (Pioneer cells anchor using adhesion structures Stage 3- Maturation I Stage 4 - Maturation II Dispersion - New pioneer cells anchor to new surfaces. Taxonomy - Correct Answers: Science of classification, involving arranging related organisms into categories Carolus Linnaeus - Correct Answers: Established taxonomy Carolus Linnaeus - Correct Answers: Who developed binomial nomenclature? binomial nomenclature - Correct Answers: concept of scientific naming Ernst Haeckel - Correct Answers: Who coined the term "protist" for all microorganisms? Robert Whittaker and Lynn Margulis - Correct Answers: Developed 5 kingdom system of microorganisms Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia - Correct Answers: What are the five kingdoms? 1. cell structure and type 2. nature of body organism 3. nutritional type - Correct Answers: What characteristics where the 5-kingdom based on? data from ribosomal RNA sequence - Correct Answers: What characteristics where the 3-domains based on? Carl Woese - Correct Answers: Developed the 3-Domain system. Bacteria, Eukarya, Archaea - Correct Answers: The 3 Domains, according to Woese Dumb Kids Playing Catch On Freeways Get Squashed - Correct Answers: Mnemonic for taxonomic groups from most inclusive to least inclusive domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species - Correct Answers: What is the mnemonic "Dumb Kids Playing Catch On Freeways Get Squashed" for? Carolus Linneaus () - Correct Answers: Who's binomial nomenclature technique is still used today for naming organisms? Species - Correct Answers: Group of organisms within a genus possessing a constant set of distinct/similar morphological (physical) characteristics that differ from other organisms. Species Name - Correct Answers: Consists of 2 words, the genus and the specific epithet. First word capitalized and second work lowercase, both underlined SEPARATELY when hand-writing. Italicized when typing. Specific Epithet - Correct Answers: adjective that describes the genus and cannot stand alone Animalia, Fungi and Plantae - Correct Answers: Which kingdoms are within the Domain Eukarya? Methods to distinguish Microorganisms - Correct Answers: Morphology (shape), biochemistry, serology (antibodies) and nucleic acids. sequence of nucleic acids in ribosomal RNA - Correct Answers: What is molecular taxonomy based on? Classifying organisms or, molecular taxonomy - Correct Answers: What is the sequence of nucleic acids in ribosomal RNA used for? Dichotomous Key - Correct Answers: a key for the identification of organisms based on a series of choices between alternative characters (series of yes/no questions to divide organisms) 1-5 micrometers in length - Correct Answers: How big will most of the bacteria viewed in lab be? Light Microscope - Correct Answers: What type of microscope do we need to see cells in the micrometer range? Electron Microscope - Correct Answers: What type of microscope do we need to see virus's and smaller more detailed bacteria in nanometer range? Helminths, blood flukes, tapeworms - Correct Answers: Microorganism that can be viewed with the naked eye Yeast cells, algae, protozoa, red blood cell, caucus, basilis - Correct Answers: Microorganism that can be viewed with light microscope How does oil increase the resolution of our light microscopes? - Correct Answers: increase the resolving power of a microscope by immersing both the objective lens and the specimen in a transparent oil of high refractive index, thereby increasing the numerical aperture of the objective lens. (Capture all photons and funnel them through our lens) Simple Staining Technique - Correct Answers: An basic dye is used to flood the prepared slide. Positive charge of dye attracts to negative charge of phospholipid heads in cell membrane and holds onto dye after rinsing. methylene blue or crystal violet - Correct Answers: What is an example of a simple stain? Charge of simple stains - Correct Answers: Positive Basic (alkaline) - Correct Answers: Are simple stains basic or acidic? Negative Staining Technique - Correct Answers: An acidic dye is used to flood the prepared slide. Negative charge of phospholipid heads in cell membrane repels negative charge of dye. Result is a stained background and clear defined cell. No rinsing. Acidic - Correct Answers: Are negative stains basic or acidic? Gram Staining Technique - Correct Answers: 1. Applying a primary stain (crystal violet) to a heat-fixed smear of a bacterial culture. ... 2. The addition of iodide, which binds to crystal violet and traps it in the cell. 3. Rapid decolorization with ethanol or acetone. (Alcohol) 4. Counterstaining with safranin. 2 dyes, both basic. - Correct Answers: How many dyes are used in a Gram Stain? Are they basic or acidic? There is thick layer of peptidoglycan in cell membrane which traps dye and maintains new color in gram staining. - Correct Answers: What does it mean if a bacteria is Gram Positive There is thin layer of peptidoglycan in cell membrane which loses the dye during decolorazation in gram staining. It will be counter stained with Safranin. - Correct Answers: What does it mean if a bacteria is Gram Positive Acid Fast staining technique - Correct Answers: Uses carbol-fuchsin which has a great affinity for a unique fatty acid present only in micro-bacterium. Phase-Contrast Microscopy - Correct Answers: uses a special condenser and objective lens that allows observer to view living, unstained organisms. Dark-Field Microscopy - Correct Answers: Shows specimen against dark background, providing better resolution Fluorescence Microscopy - Correct Answers: Specimens are coated with florescent dye and illuminated with U.V light 2 nanometers - Correct Answers: Practical limit of an electron microscopes resolution. Resolution - Correct Answers: Shortest distance between 2 points on a specimen that can be distinguished as separate entities. 2 types of electron microscopes - Correct Answers: TEM 2-D (transmission electron) & SEM 3-D(scanning electron ) Similarities of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes - Correct Answers: -Use DNA as hereditary material -Respond to stimuli -Reproduce offspring -Perform photosynthesis -Have ability to grow -Do cellular respiration -Adapt from one generation to next Prokaryotic cell - Correct Answers: First living cell ever to exist on Earth What positive functions do prokaryotic cells have? - Correct Answers: Found in soil, air, decomposing functions and compose our own microbiota. Domain Bacteria and Domain Archaea - Correct Answers: What are the 2 prokaryotic domains? Phylum - Correct Answers: What tier do both prokaryotic domains start? 30 recognized phyla in Domain Bacteria, focus on 6 - Correct Answers: How many phyla are within Domain Bacteria, and how many will we focus on? 5 recognized phyla in Domain Archaea, focus on 2 - Correct Answers: How many phyla are within Domain Archaea, and how many will we focus on? Proteobacteria - Correct Answers: 1st Major Phyla in Domain Bacteria, contains largest and most diverse group of species, including E. coli and many human pathogens like Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Neisseria Human pathogens within Proteobacteria Phyla - Correct Answers: E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Neisseria Proteobacteria - Correct Answers: Which phylum is the largest in Domain Bacteria? Gram Negative. - Correct Answers: Is Proteobacteria Gram Negative or Gram Positive? Bacteria has very little (thin layer) peptidoglycan in its cell wall. - Correct Answers: What does it mean when a bacteria is Gram Negative Firmicutes (Strong - Skin) - Correct Answers: Major Phylum in Domain Bacteria First - Correct Answers: What does root work "Proteo" in proteobacteria mean? Gram Positive - Correct Answers: Is Firmicutes Gram Negative or Gram Positive? Bacteria has a lot (thick layer) peptidoglycan in its cell wall. - Correct Answers: What does it mean when a bacteria is Gram Positive Bacteria within Firmicute Phylum - Correct Answers: Bacillus, Clostridium, Staphylococcus and Streptococcus Actinobacteria - Correct Answers: Major Phylum within Domain Bacteria Gram Positive - Correct Answers: Is Actinobacteria Gram Negative or Gram Positive? Streptomyces and Mycobacterium - Correct Answers: Important genera within Phylum Actinobacteria Streptomyces - Correct Answers: Species within this genus are the source of many antibiotics Cyanobacteria - Correct Answers: Phylum within Domain Bacteria that carries out photosynthesis using Chlorpphyll Ascomycota - Correct Answers: Phyla of function that is the most common lichen partner Cyanobacteria - Correct Answers: What Phyla within Domain Bacteria is responsible for the appearance of oxygen in the Earth's early atmosphere Chlamydiae - Correct Answers: Phyla within Domain Bacteria that is extremely small How many mircometers are members of the Chlamydiae commonly found to be? - Correct Answers: 0.2 - 1.5 micrometers Chlamydiae - Correct Answers: Which phylum contains species that are mostly pathogenic Spirochaetes - Correct Answers: 6th phylum within Domain Bacteria Gram Negative - Correct Answers: Are Spirochaetes mostly Gram Negative or Gram Positive? Spirl - Correct Answers: What unique shape to Spirochaetes have that is unlike the coccus or bacillus? Oral Cavity - Correct Answers: Where are Spirochaetes sometimes found on the human body Cell walls of the Domain Archaea contain material other than peptidoglycan. - Correct Answers: Major difference in species found in Domain Archaea than Domain Bacteria Euryarchaeota and Crenarchaeota - Correct Answers: 2 phylum within Domain Archaea Phyla Euryarchaeota under Domain Archaea - Correct Answers: Phyla where extremophiles (salt-lovers) and hyperthermophiles (grow at greater than 100 celcius) found. Various shapes of bacteria - Correct Answers: Coccus (sphere), Bacillus (rod), spiral (corkscrew). Bacterial Arrangements - Correct Answers: Single - only one Diplo - two cells together (coccus/bacillus) Tetrad - four cells in a square (only coccus) Sarcina - eight cells together (only coccus) Strepto - a chain of cells (coccus/bacillus) Staphylo - a cluster of cells (coccus) What arrangements can coccus cells make? - Correct Answers: Single, Diplo, Tetrad, Sarcina, Strepo and Staphylo Single, Diplo, Strepto or Palisade - Correct Answers: What arrangements can bacillus cells make? Types of Spiral Bacteria - Correct Answers: Vibrio (curved comma), Spirillum (loose corkscrew), spirochete (tight corkscrew) ONLY SINGLE. Morphology - Correct Answers: Shape of a cell Types of Morphology - Correct Answers: coccus, bacillus and spiral External Structure - Correct Answers: Anything outside of the cell envelope External structures of Prokaryotic cells - Correct Answers: Flagella, Pili, Glycocalyx What do external structures of Prokaryotic cells consist of - Correct Answers: A slime layer and a capsule What do the external structures of Prokaryotic cells allow the cell to do? - Correct Answers: Sense and respond to stimuli Pillus (plural=pili) - Correct Answers: External structure of a prokaryotic cell protein fibers that help with cell attachment, like velcro. They do not confer movement What do conjugation pilus (aka sex pillus) do? - Correct Answers: Transfer genetic material from one cell to another Flagella - Correct Answers: Contain a helical filament, attached to a hook, which is then anchored by the basile body. What type of cell contains flagella that can move? - Correct Answers: Prokaryotic External Structure used for motility in both Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells - Correct Answers: Flagella False - Correct Answers: True or False: All Prokaryotic cells contain flagella. Run and Tumble - Correct Answers: Difference in counter-clockwise or clockwise motion of flagella that moves bacteria either away from or toward a stimulus source. (Type of taxis) Types of Taxis - Correct Answers: Chemotaxis - Towards a chemical Phototaxis - Towards light Aerotaxis - Towards oxygen gas What type of motion does a "run" make in regards to flagella - Correct Answers: Counter-Clockwise What type of motion does a "tumble" make in regards to flagella - Correct Answers: Clockwise Flagellar Arrangements - Correct Answers: Monotrichous - single flagellum at one end Lophotrichous - small bunches at one end Amphitrichous -flagella at both ends of cell Peritrichous - flagella dispersed over surface of cell;slowest Monotrichous - Correct Answers: single flagellum at one end of cell Lophotrichous - Correct Answers: small bunches of flagellum at one end of cell Amphitrichous - Correct Answers: flagella at both ends of cell Peritrichous - Correct Answers: flagella dispersed over surface of cell;slowest Endoflagella - Correct Answers: Flagella that spiral tightly around a cell instead of protruding Glycocalyx - Correct Answers: Outer layer external to the cell wall that acts as an adhering layer of polysaccharides Slime Layer - Correct Answers: Name to describe thin layer of Glycocalyx Capsule - Correct Answers: Name to describe thick layer of Glycocalyx What protects a prokaryotic cell from phagocytosis? - Correct Answers: Glycocalyx layer How do most prokaryotes reproduce? - Correct Answers: Binary Fission What is binary fission? - Correct Answers: The process by which prokaryote cells reproduce Period B of Binary Fission - Correct Answers: Spans from the time of previous cell division (cell birth) to the initiation of chromosome replication - Where cell increases in mass and size Period C of Binary Fission - Correct Answers: Spans from the initiation to the completion of the chromosome replication Period D of Binary Fission - Correct Answers: Spans from the end of DNA replication to completion of cell division. Partition or septum develops that ultimately divides the cell (this division is the binary fission) Generation - Correct Answers: Time it takes for one cell to become 2 cells (aka doubling time) (time between successive binary fissions) What does a shorter doubling time mean? - Correct Answers: Shorter incubation period of disease 4 phases of Bacterial Growth - Correct Answers: lag, log, stationary, decline Lag Phase - Correct Answers: Phase of bacterial growth where there is no cell division and the bacteria are simply adapting to the environment (initial introduction) Log (Logarithmic) Phase - Correct Answers: Phase of bacterial growth also known as the exponential growth phase. Log Phase - Correct Answers: What stage of bacterial growth do human disease symptoms usually develop? Lag Phase - Correct Answers: In the human body, during what phase of bacterial growth are microbes incubating and acclimating to their new environment. No binary fission is occuring. Stationary Phase - Correct Answers: Phase of bacterial growth where cell multiplication is equal to cell death. There is also much waste due to the metabolism of the microbes. Stationary Phase - Correct Answers: During what phase of bacterial growth is cell replication equal to cell death Decline Phase - Correct Answers: Phase of bacterial growth where there is no food left for remaining living bacteria. Remaining live microbes are swimming in pure waste. (aka exponential death phase) Log Phase - Correct Answers: What phase of bacterial growth is considered exponential growth? Endospores - Correct Answers: Certain genera containing __________ can live on past the decline phase and act as a response to nutrient limitation. Dipicolinic Acid (DPA) - Correct Answers: What compound do endospores contain that aids in their ability to resist the decline phase Endospore - Correct Answers: Specially adapted to resist adverse conditions Environmental stressors trigger to activation of genes that results in the creation of the endospore - Correct Answers: How does dipicolinic acid work Bacillus, Clostridium, and Sporosarcina - Correct Answers: The three genuses that can produce endospores, thus surviving past the decline phase. Asymmetrical Cell Division - Correct Answers: Cell division that produces one identical and one new (neuron or glial) cell Asymmetrical Cell Division - Correct Answers: What type of cell division do stressed cells undergo? Steps of endospore development - Correct Answers: 1. Vegetative (free-living) cell becomes stressed due to lack of food during decline phase. 2. Vegetative cell undergoes asymmetrical binary fission 3. A prespore grows within the cell - thus becoming a mother cell 4.Layers of keratin form the spore coat and helps to resist it from drying out 5. Once endospore is matured, mother spore disintegrates. A cytoplasm, full copy of the single bacterial chromosome ,and dipicolinic acid, which stabilizes DNA and gives resistance to heat - Correct Answers: What does a prespore of an endospore contain? Metabolic enzymes - Correct Answers: What make and break covalent bonds within microbes of our body Factors that determine whether a microbe can perform functions of metabolic enzymes - Correct Answers: 1. Temperature 2. Oxygen requirements 3. pH 4. Osmotic pressure 5.Barometric pressure The 3 cardinal temperatures - Correct Answers: Minimum, maximum and optimum. The 3 cardinal temperatures - Correct Answers: The name for the temperature ranges that permits a microbes growth and metabolism Minimum temperature - Correct Answers: Lowest temp that permits a microbes growth and metabolism Maximum temperature - Correct Answers: Highest temp that permits a microbes growth and metabolism Optimum temperature - Correct Answers: Temp that permits fastest rate of growth and metabolism of a microbe - most efficient and most rapid binary fissions Optimum temperature of the human body - Correct Answers: 37 degrees celsius Temperature Adaptation Groups - Correct Answers: Psychrophiles - below 15 celsius Psychrotrophs - between 0-30 celsius Mesophiles - between 20-40 celsius Thermophiles - roughly 60 celsius Hyperthermophiles - roughly 80 celsius What temperature adaptation group are most human pathogens within? - Correct Answers: Mesophiles (between 20 - 40 celsius) In what kingdom can we find a hyperthermophile microbe that grows optimally at 80 celsius - Correct Answers: Domain Archaea Difference between binary fission and mitosis - Correct Answers: - Both are types of cell division that duplicate cells, but fission primarily occurs in prokaryotes (bacteria), while mitosis occurs in eukaryotes (e.g., plant and animal cells). - Binary fission cell that divides lack a nucleus - In mitosis, the cell that divides does possess a nucleus What is on X-Axis of the bacterial growth curve? (Horizontal) - Correct Answers: Increasing time What is on the Y-Axis of the bacterial growth curve? (Vertical) - Correct Answers: Increasing number of viable cells on a logarithmic scale Psychrophiles - Correct Answers: - 0 to 15 degrees Celsius - Grow below freezing degrees and in regions that are permanently cold like the deep sea and polar regions Psychrotrophs - Correct Answers: - between 0-30 Celsius -Optimum is roughly 20 degrees Celsius Mesophiles - Correct Answers: - between 20-40 degrees Celsius - Anywhere between a cool day and a very hot room Thermophiles - Correct Answers: - roughly 60 celsius - Living in compost heaps and hotsprings (think of as hot as the water in our faucets can go) Hyperthermophiles - Correct Answers: - roughly 80 celsius (near boiling) - sea floor hot water vents Which temperature adaptation groups could we find bacteria? - Correct Answers: All the groups, besides hyperthermophiles (boiling) Domain Archaea - Correct Answers: What domain contains microbes that can grow in any of the temperature adaptation groups? Bacteria Cidal Temperatures - Correct Answers: temperatures lower than the minimum temp and higher than the maximum temp, bacteria will die Bacteria Static Temperatures - Correct Answers: temps within the minimum and maximum range, but not optimum will slow down bacterial growth, but will not kill it. Toxic products that Oxygen can transform into - Correct Answers: Singlet Oxygen (O2), Superoxide Ion (O2-), Peroxide (H2O2) and Hydroxyl Radicals (OH-) What types of enzymes help neutralize toxic products of oxygen? - Correct Answers: Superoxide Dismutase or Catalase If a cell is going to use oxygen, what must it have to neutralize possible toxic chemicals? - Correct Answers: Enzymes that help neutralize them like superoxide dismutase or catalase If a microbe is not capable of dealing with toxic oxygen, what must it do? - Correct Answers: Live in oxygen-free habitats What are examples of oxygen free environments oxygen intolerant microbes can live - Correct Answers: Bottom of the ocean or your intestines. Aerobe - Correct Answers: General term for an organism that can utilize and detoxify oxygen Obligate Aerobe - Correct Answers: MUST have oxygen to survive and has the enzymes necessary to deal with the toxic byproducts (Humans) Facultative Anaearobe - Correct Answers: Utilizes oxygen if it is present but can also grow the same without it Microaerophilic - Correct Answers: Requires only a small amount of oxygen - if there is too much, it can kill it. If all is removed, it will die. (Gumbeds) Capnophilic - Correct Answers: Require an atmosphere low in oxygen and also rich, high levels in carbon dioxide Unicellular yeast - Correct Answers: What type of fungus is a Facultative Anaerobe? What are the 5 Oxygen Adaptation Groups that DO use oxygen? - Correct Answers: Aerobe, Obligate Aerobe, Facultative Anaerobe, Microaerophilic and Capnophilic What are the 3 Oxygen Adaptation Groups that do NOT use oxygen? - Correct Answers: Anaerobe, Obligate Anaerobe and Aerotolerant Anaerobes Anaerobe - Correct Answers: any organism that is able to live without oxygen Obligate Anaerobe - Correct Answers: - any organism that CANNOT live in the presence of oxygen - lacks all enzymes that fight toxic byproducts - will die in ANY presence of oxygen for any length of time. Aerotolerant Anaerobes - Correct Answers: Do not utilize oxygen in biochemical processes but can still grow in its presence. Difference between facultative anaerobes and aerotolerant anaerobes? - Correct Answers: - Facultative anaerobes do not need oxygen to grow, but WILL use it if present. - Aerotolerant anaerobes will NOT use it if it is present and do not need it to grow. Thioglycollate broth - Correct Answers: What can be used to determine a bacteria's oxygen adaptation group in lab? Reducing media that creates zones in the tube that are oxygen free and oxygen rich - Correct Answers: How does Thioglycollate broth help to determine a bacteria's adaptation group? Candle Jar and GasPak Jar - Correct Answers: What methods can be used in lab to create low oxygen/no oxygen environments? How does the candle jar method work? - Correct Answers: Put inoculated media in a jar with a lit candle and close the lid, creating an environment with less than 10% oxygen. How does the gaspak method work? - Correct Answers: Put inoculated media in a jar then open a hydrogen gas generator, hydrogen gas will react with any oxygen in the jar due to the palladium catylst and any oxygen will transform into water - thus creating an oxygen free environment What are the pH adaptation groups? - Correct Answers: Acidophiles, Obligate acidophiles and Alkalinophiles pH between 6 and 8 - Correct Answers: What is the pH that majority of microorganisms can grow? Acidophiles - Correct Answers: - Acid-tolerant prokaryotes - Can thrive in pH values ranging from pH 1 - 5 - Some used to make dairy products where the acidophilic microbes eat the milk sugars - Can tolerate but doesnt need Obligate Acidophiles - Correct Answers: Requires an acidic (low pH) environment at all times for growth and will die if it climbs too high Alkalinophiles - Correct Answers: Organism that can either withstand or prefers basic environments ranging from pH 9 - 11 Neutrophiles - Correct Answers: Organism that prefer neutral or near 7 pH What pH adaptation group do most microorganisms belong? - Correct Answers: Neutrophiles Osmotic Pressure - Correct Answers: Refers to the movement of water across a membrane and how hard the water must push to pass through the membrane and diffuse to the other side. Relative solute concentration on either side of the membrane. - Correct Answers: How is osmotic pressure determined? Hypotonic - Correct Answers: - If the extracellular fluid has lower conc. of solutes than the fluid inside the cell, it's said to be hypotonic —hypo means less than—to the cell, and the net flow of water will be into the cell (more solutes in cell = pull water into cell Isotonic - Correct Answers: In an isotonic solution—iso means the same—the extracellular fluid has the same osmolarity (conc. of solutes) as the cell, and there will be no net movement of water into or out of the cell. Hypertonic - Correct Answers: If the extracellular fluid has a higher osmolarity (concentration of solutes) than the cell's cytoplasm, it's said to be hypertonic —hyper means greater than—to the cell, and water will move out of the cell to the region of higher solute concentration. (more inside = push more water out) What does lyse mean in terms of osmotic pressure? - Correct Answers: Cell wall breaking as water is breaking in due to hypotonic conditions and no structure to withstand What does shriveled mean in terms of osmotic pressure? - Correct Answers: Cell wall crushing in as water is rushing out due to hypertonic conditions What does turgid mean in terms of osmotic pressure? - Correct Answers: Refers to cell wall becoming swelled due to osmotic pressure being hypotonic and water rushing in What does flaccid mean in terms of osmotic pressure? - Correct Answers: Refers to cell wall not being pressed tightly against the plasma membrane within due to isotonic conditions What does plasmolyzed mean in terms of osmotic pressure? - Correct Answers: Refers to cell wall breaking away from plasma membrane due to hypertonic conditions Isotonic or hypotonic solutions (anything under 3% salt concentrations) - Correct Answers: What osmotic conditions do most microbes exist in? Halophiles - Correct Answers: Microbes that REQUIRES a high concentration of salt (hypertonic solutions) and can resist plasmolysis (anything over 3 - 15%) - Extreme halophiles grow in 15-50%) Osmotolerant aka Halotolerant - Correct Answers: Microbes that do not require high solute concentration (hypertonic) environments but CAN tolerate it when a moderate amount is present. Barophile - Correct Answers: Microbes that can survive under extreme pressure and will rupture is exposed to normal atmospheric pressure (like microbes living at the bottom of the ocean) Difference between a thermophile and an extreme thermophile? - Correct Answers: - Thermophiles are ideally in 60 degrees celsius - Extreme thermophiles are ideally over 80 degrees celsius Domain Archaea - Correct Answers: What domain do most extremophiles belong? Physical state, chemical composition and functional type - Correct Answers: What three properties can classify media? Liquid, semisolid and solid - Correct Answers: Three physical states of media Complex (undefined) and Synthetic (defined) - Correct Answers: Two basic chemical types of media Synthetic defined media have known chemical structure. - Correct Answers: What differentiates complex and synthetic media? Functional types of media - Correct Answers: General purpose, enriched, selective and differential Liquid state of media - Correct Answers: Broth; does not solidify Solid state of media - Correct Answers: firm surface for colony formation - contains solidifying agent - liquefiable and non liquefiable Semisolid state of media - Correct Answers: Clot-like consistency; contains little solidifying agent What is Agar? - Correct Answers: - Complex polysaccharide used as a solidifying agent that is isolated from red algae. - Solid at room temp - Will liquify at 100 degrees celsius - Will not resolidify until it cools to 42 degrees celsius - Not digestible for most microbes - Provides framework (serving dish) to hold moisture and nutrients Complex Media (undefined) - Correct Answers: Named used for a chemical composition when at least one ingredient is chemically unidentified (ex: beef extract, pancreatic digest, peptone, tryptone) Synthetic Media (defined) - Correct Answers: Name used for a chemical composition when the chemical composition of ALL ingredients in the medium are known (all have a chemical formula) (ex: sodium chloride, glucose, phenol red or ferrous sulfate) General Purpose Media - Correct Answers: Functional type of classification for media that grows on a broad range of microbes, usually undefined Enriched Media - Correct Answers: Functional type of classification for media that contains organic substances such as blood, serum, hemoglobin or special growth factors required by fastidious microbes Selective Media - Correct Answers: Functional type of classification for media that contains one or most agents that inhibit growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes. Differential Media - Correct Answers: Functional type of classification that allows growth of several types of microbes and displays VISIBLE differences among desired and undesired microbes How is a selective media different from a differential media? - Correct Answers: Selective media will contain an agent that inhibits certain microbes from growing What type of functional type were the SDA plates used in class? - Correct Answers: Selective Briefly compare the streak plate and pour-plate isolation methods - Correct Answers: Reducing Medium - Correct Answers: Contains a substance that absorbs oxygen or slows penetration of oxygen into medium (used for growing anaerobic bacteria) Carbohydrate fermentation media - Correct Answers: Liquid media containing fermentable sugar that you want to know if the microbe can eat. If it can eat it, it will acidify media, causing color change in the pH indicator. Using pure cultures - Correct Answers: How are population measurements made? Pure culture - Correct Answers: Population of bacteria that contains only one species Pour-Plate Isolation and Streak-Plate Isolation - Correct Answers: Two techniques used to obtain pure culture Pour-Plate Isolation Method - Correct Answers: Technique where you take your sample of mixed species of bacteria and put it into liquid agar. You pour liquid into a plate to solidify and the next day each individual colony will be separated into individual colonies Cloudiness of a culture (more cloudy = more turbid) - Correct Answers: What does it mean to be turbid? Population size (cloudiness) - Correct Answers: What does turbidity reflect? Viable colony count (standard plate count), direct count (electronic detector) or manual count (cytometer) - Correct Answers: What are some ways we can measure population growth? Viable colony count (standard plate count), - Correct Answers: Estimates colony count in an original sample Direct count (electronic detector) - Correct Answers: Uses an automated coulter counter which used an electronic detector to count cells as the sample goes by Manual count (cytometer) - Correct Answers: Uses a grid that you can use to get an idea of how many microbes per 1 ml are in your original sample. What acts as a catalyst in all cellular reactions? - Correct Answers: Enzymes What will not be changed by the reaction that they assist in? - Correct Answers: Enzymes What is an active site? - Correct Answers: Specific functional groups, aka "pockets", that are perfectly oriented and lined to act on specific substrates. What determines specificity of enzymes and reactions they assist on? - Correct Answers: Structure (Primary, Secondary, Tertiary or Quaternary) The enzymes a specific microbe can make is ultimately determined by what? - Correct Answers: DNA genes that the organism has in its genome How do enzymes catalyze reactions while remaining unchanged? - Correct Answers: Helps to facilitate cellular reactions by aligning substrate molecules in such a way that the forward reaction is energetically favorable. Catabolism - Correct Answers: Enzymes breaking covalent bonds via hydrolysis Anabolism - Correct Answers: Enzymes forming covalent bonds via dehydration synthesis Metabolism - Correct Answers: Sum total of catabolism and anabolism happening within a cell Which came first? Prokaryotes or Eukaryotes? - Correct Answers: Single Prokaryotes Where is the DNA within the prokaryotic cell? - Correct Answers: Region of the cell called the nucleoid. How much total volume does the DNA occupy within the cell? - Correct Answers: One third Plasmid - Correct Answers: Stablem extrachromosomal DNA elements that can carry nonessential genetic information, outside of the nucleoid. They replicate independently from the chromosome. Difference between chromosome and plasmid - Correct Answers: - Genetic information within chromosomes are essential, while genetic information in plasmids, is not. - They replicate independently of the binary fission cell cycle. F Plasmid - Correct Answers: (Fertility) Allow genetic material to be transferred from a donor cell to a recipient. (Directs formation of a sex pilus) R Plasmid - Correct Answers: (Resistance) Carry genes for antibiotic resistance 3 stages of DNA replication - Correct Answers: 1. Initiation 2. Elongation 3.Termination Which period of binary fission is the DNA replicated in? - Correct Answers: Period C Initiation - Correct Answers: - First stage of DNA replication - Occuring on the "Ori C" site (origin) - DNA unwinds and the strand separate Elongation - Correct Answers: - Second stage of DNA replication - Enzyme synthesize a new strand to pair with each original strand in a 5'->3' direction Termination - Correct Answers: - Third and final stage in DNA replication - When the entire chromosomes have been replicated, the two DNA helices must separate. What enzyme is working on "leading strand" in DNA synthesis - Correct Answers: DNA polymerase III What enzyme is working on "lagging strand" in DNA synthesis - Correct Answers: DNA ligase, RNA primase, DNA polymerase I Why are the carbons in a sugar numbered? - Correct Answers: The 5 carbons in the sugar of a nucleotide are numbered, used to describe which side of the nucleotide things are happening at. What is the role of DNA helicase? - Correct Answers: Signals the DNA strand to unwind and expose new DNA to be replicated - Splicing agent. What is the role of Primase? - Correct Answers: - Synthesize an RNA leader sequence - Provide a free 3-prime OH group that polymerase 3 can then use to synthesize DNA What is the role of DNA polymerase III? - Correct Answers: Add a nucleotide to a free 3-prime OH group (group attached to the 3-prime carbon of the sugar of the nucleotide) What is the role of DNA polymerase I? - Correct Answers: Remove RN nucleotides from red leader sequence and replace them with DNA nucleotides What is the role of DNA ligase? - Correct Answers: Makes covalent bond between phosphate of one nucleotide and the deoxyribose sugar of the adjacent nucleotide (phosphodiester linkage) (Stitches backbone of DNA) Corresponding DNA sequences` - Correct Answers: A -> T C -> G T -> A G -> C What is meant by 5' to 3' direction? - Correct Answers: The 5' and 3' specifically refer to the 5th and 3rd carbon atoms in the deoxyribose/ribose sugar ring. This linkage provides the sugar-phosphate backbone that gives DNA its structural rigidity. DNA is antiparallel. What does this mean? - Correct Answers: Nucleotides of the two strands are oriented in opposite directions. Semiconservative Replication - Correct Answers: The pairing of one old strand with one new strand How and where do Okazaki fragments form? - Correct Answers: DNA ligase stitches up the backbone of the DNA by joining the Okazaki fragments with phosphodiester covalent bonds What is the central dogma? - Correct Answers: Identifies the flow of genetic information DNA to RNA to PROTEIN Transcription - Correct Answers: Process by which DNA is copied into RNA - then orders amino acids in a process called translation Translation - Correct Answers: Process by which RNA is translated into amino acid proteins. What are the 3 types of RNA? - Correct Answers: mRNA, tRNA, rRNA -All transcribed from DNA mRNA - Correct Answers: messenger RNA; copy of the gene from the DNA which is used to correctly order the amino acids based on the condone sequence in the mRNA tRNA - Correct Answers: transfer RNA; delivers amino acids as the mRNA dictates to the ribosome to form the protein. rRNA - Correct Answers: ribosomal RNA; type of RNA that makes up part of the ribosome by joining with proteins to form ribosomes which become the site for protein synthesis What is the enzyme that synthesizes RNA from the DNA template? - Correct Answers: RNA polymerase What is a codon? - Correct Answers: a sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule. What is the sense strand? - Correct Answers: The only one of the two DNA strands that is transcribed - the other strand is inactive and is simply a complement to the DNA template strand What is an anticodon? - Correct Answers: Sequences of nucleotides that are complementary to codons -found in tRNAs, and allow the tRNAs to bring the correct amino acid in line with an mRNA during protein production. Which type of RNA contains the anticodon? - Correct Answers: tRNA Ribosomes are made up of rRNA and what other macromolecule? - Correct Answers: Protein DNA nucleotides and pairs - Correct Answers: A - T C - G G - C T - A RNA nucleotides and pairs - Correct Answers: A - U C - G G - C U - A Differences in DNA and RNA nucleotides - Correct Answers: - "A" pairs with "U", not "T" in RNA - DNA nuc's have a deoxyribose sugar while the RNA has a ribose sugar - Relationship between codons and anticodons. - Correct Answers: During translation, codons in mRNA match with their complementary anticodons in tRNA What is defined as the "code"? - Correct Answers: - The 3 letter order of bases in the genetic info that codes for proteins. - 3 letters are called a codon if mRNA letters - 3 letters are called an anticodon if tRNA letters The genetic code is degenerate. What does this mean? - Correct Answers: More than one codon can bring in the same amino acid What is a chaperone? - Correct Answers: Proteins that help newly synthesized polypeptides fold into their proper secondary and tertiary structures. How are amino acids joined? - Correct Answers: peptide bonds How do antibiotics affect protein synthesis? - Correct Answers: ________ interfere with protein synthesis by disrupting transcription and translation, thus making it impossible for a bacteria to make the proteins necessary to continue life. What are operons? - Correct Answers: - In prokaryotes, a functioning unit of genomic DNA - Found mainly in bacterial cells - Made up of several genes that work toward a common function and are controlled by a common promoter Where are operons mainly found? - Correct Answers: Bacterial cells What are the two types of operons - Correct Answers: Inducible and repressive Inducible Operon - Correct Answers: - Operon that is turned ON by a substrate - Hence, it is normally OFF and is INDUCED to turn on. Repressive Operon - Correct Answers: - Operon that is turned OFF by the product synthesized - Hence, it is normally ON, and is repressed to turn OFF once the amount of what it is making is up. Are inducible operons catabolic or anabolic? - Correct Answers: Catabolic Why are inducible operons sometimes called catabolic operons? - Correct Answers: They normally code for enzymes needed to metabolize a nutrient are produced when needed (If nutrient is not available, operon will be OFF. If it is available, it will induce operon to turn on.) __________ opersons are producing or synthesizing some item needed by the cell on a regular basis - Correct Answers: Repressive Why are repressive operons sometimes called anabolic operons? - Correct Answers: They normally code for enzymes used to synthesize or make a building block of the cell, i.e. an amino acid What are the 3 parts of any operon? - Correct Answers: Promotor, operator and cluster of structural genes. Promoter - Correct Answers: Specific DNA sequence to which RNA polymerase binds in initiation of structural gene transcription Operator - Correct Answers: Specific DNA sequence where a repressor protein might potentially bind - If a repressor protein is bound at the operator, then the RNA polymerase will be blocked from transcribing the structural genes - If no repressor protein is bound, it will not be blocked from transcribing. Cluster of Structural Genes - Correct Answers: Code for the proteins that will do whatever the metabolic function that is the job of that operon. (Carry the genetic information for proteins involved in metabolic functions) What are regulatory genes? - Correct Answers: Distant gene that codes for a repressor protein and is not part of the operon but are necessary for the proper functioning of that operon and have a negative control In what ways can prokaryotes transfer genetic information? - Correct Answers: Vertically or horizontally Contrast between vertical and lateral (horizontal) transfer. - Correct Answers: Entire genome is copied in vertical transfer while only a small portion is transferred in horizontal Does binary fission use vertical or horizontal gene transfer - Correct Answers: Vertical What is vertical gene transfer? - Correct Answers: When a parent cell gives rise to a daughter cell, meaning perfect copy of the fully copy single chromosome of the parent cell What is horizontal gene transfer? - Correct Answers: - Donor and recipient cells - One type utilizes an external structure called a sex pillus - - 2 other types will involve either a competent cell or bacteriophage Is all genetic information copied in horizontal gene transfer? - Correct Answers: No, genetic information is not completely copied in this type of gene transfer. Is all genetic information copied in vertical gene transfer? - Correct Answers: Yes, all genetic information is completely copied in this type of gene transfer. What is genetic recombination? - Correct Answers: Occurs when an organism acquires and expresses genes that originated in another organism. 3 means for genetic recombination - Correct Answers: Conjugation, transformation and transduction What is Conjugation? - Correct Answers: Transfer of a plasmid or chromosomal fragment from a donor to a recipient cell via a direct connection, i.e. a physical link How is conjugation pilus or bridge used? - Correct Answers: The conjugation pilus acts as the physical link that will widen into conjugation bridge between related species within a genus Where and how does conjugation occur? - Correct Answers: Common in gram-negative bacteria and is the transfer of 100 fertility gen