HESI CAT ACTUAL EXAM 2024/2025 WITH QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A++
A nurse is assessing an 18-month-old toddler with suspected
developmental dysplasia of the left hip. In what position should the nurse
place the toddler to elicit the Trendelenburg sign?
1
Standing on the affected leg
2
Supine with the back arched
3
Side-lying on the unaffected side
4
Sitting upright with the legs separated - ANSWER 1
When the child is standing and bearing weight on the affected hip, the
pelvis tilts downward instead of upward—the Trendelenburg sign. The
supine, side-lying, and sitting positions do not accomplish the desired effect
because weight bearing is needed to tilt the pelvis.
While assessing the client's skin, a nurse notices a skin condition, the
pathophysiology of which involves increased visibility of oxyhemoglobin
caused by an increased blood flow due to capillary dilation. Which condition
is associated with this client?
1
Pallor
2
Vitiligo
3
Cyanosis
4
Erythema - ANSWER 4
Erythema occurs due to an increased visibility of oxyhemoglobin, which is
caused by increased blood flow. Pallor is caused by a reduced amount of
oxyhemoglobin or a reduced visibility of oxyhemoglobin. Vitiligo is a
pigmentation disorder caused by autoimmune diseases. Cyanosis is a
bluish discoloration of the skin around the lips; this occurs due to an
increased amount of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood.
,A pediatric client reports difficulty breathing and swallowing and has a sore
throat, headache, and fever. The nurse observes a grayish yellow
membranous patch near the tonsils. What disease does the nurse infer
from these findings?
1
Mumps
2
Pertussis
3
Diphtheria
4
Pneumonia - ANSWER 3
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Symptoms include a
sore throat, fever, and headache along with gray or dirty-yellow membrane
patches. Mumps is a viral disease that primarily affects the parotid glands.
It is accompanied by local pain, tenderness, fever, and swelling. Pertussis,
also known as whooping cough, is caused by Bordetella pertussis.
Symptoms include rhinorrhea, mild fever, and a persistent cough.
Pneumonia is a lung disease; symptoms include a cough and chest pain.
A client who sustained burn injuries due to a fire and explosion has a
carbon monoxide level of 14%. Which pathophysiologic risk is increased in
the client?
1
Stupor
2
Vertigo
3
Convulsions
4
Slight breathlessness - ANSWER 4
Slight breathlessness may occur when the carbon monoxide level is 14%.
Stupor and vertigo may result when the carbon monoxide level is in
between 21% and 40%. When the level of carbon monoxide reaches
between 41% and 60%, coma or convulsions may occur.
A client is admitted to the birthing unit with uterine tenderness and minimal
dark-red vaginal bleeding. She has a marginal abruptio placentae. The
priority assessment includes fetal status, vital signs, skin color, and urine
output. What additional assessment is essential?
,1
Fundal height
2
Obstetric history
3
Time of the last meal
4
Family history of bleeding disorders - ANSWER 1
It is vital that a baseline measurement be obtained, because increasing
fundal height may be a sign of concealed hemorrhage. Taking an obstetric
history, ascertaining the time of the last meal, and asking about a family
history of bleeding disorders are all appropriate assessments; however,
none are a priority at this critical time.
During a newborn assessment the nurse identifies the absence of the red
reflex in the eyes. What should the nurse's next action be?
1
Rinse the eyes with sterile saline
2
Notify the primary healthcare provider
3
Expect edema to subside within a few days
4
Conclude that this is a result of the prescribed eye prophylaxis - ANSWER
2
An absence of the red reflex may be indicative of congenital cataracts. The
red reflex is elicited by shining the light of an ophthalmoscope into the
newborn's eyes, which should produce a reddish circle. Rinsing the eyes
will not affect the red reflex. The red reflex or its absence is not related to
edema, which may occur after eye prophylaxis, or to eye prophylaxis itself.
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving medication to manage
anemia. Which primary goal should the nurse include in the care plan from
this information?
1
Prevention of uremic frost
2
Prevention of chronic fatigue
3
Prevention of tubular necrosis
, 4
Prevention of dependent edema - ANSWER 2
Kidney failure [1] [2] results in impaired erythropoietin production, which
causes anemia and chronic fatigue; treating the anemia will help in
managing the fatigue. Uremic frost results because urea compounds and
other waste products of metabolism that are not excreted by the kidneys
are brought to the skin by small superficial capillaries and are excreted and
deposited on the skin. Tubular necrosis is a pathologic condition of the
kidneys that can lead to kidney failure. The anemia and dependent edema
associated with kidney failure are not interrelated.
A client developed acute herpes zoster and was treated with antiviral
medication within 72 hours of the appearance of the rash. The client is
reporting persistent pain 1 week later. What does the nurse identify as the
cause of the posttherapeutic neuralgia?
1
Damage to the nerves
2
Untreated major depression
3
Scarring in the area of the rash
4
Continued presence of the skin rash - ANSWER 1
After the original infection has healed, the virus either remains quiescent or
it may return. Posttherapeutic neuralgia, which occurs in some individuals,
results from damage to the nerves caused by the varicella-zoster virus; the
neuralgia may last for months. Untreated major depression and scarring in
the area of the rash are unrelated to posttherapeutic neuralgia. The rash
does not cause posttherapeutic neuralgia.
Which clients should be considered for assessing the carotid pulse? Select
all that apply.
1
Client with cardiac arrest
2
Client indicated for Allen test
3
Client under physiologic shock
4
Client with impaired circulation to foot
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A++
A nurse is assessing an 18-month-old toddler with suspected
developmental dysplasia of the left hip. In what position should the nurse
place the toddler to elicit the Trendelenburg sign?
1
Standing on the affected leg
2
Supine with the back arched
3
Side-lying on the unaffected side
4
Sitting upright with the legs separated - ANSWER 1
When the child is standing and bearing weight on the affected hip, the
pelvis tilts downward instead of upward—the Trendelenburg sign. The
supine, side-lying, and sitting positions do not accomplish the desired effect
because weight bearing is needed to tilt the pelvis.
While assessing the client's skin, a nurse notices a skin condition, the
pathophysiology of which involves increased visibility of oxyhemoglobin
caused by an increased blood flow due to capillary dilation. Which condition
is associated with this client?
1
Pallor
2
Vitiligo
3
Cyanosis
4
Erythema - ANSWER 4
Erythema occurs due to an increased visibility of oxyhemoglobin, which is
caused by increased blood flow. Pallor is caused by a reduced amount of
oxyhemoglobin or a reduced visibility of oxyhemoglobin. Vitiligo is a
pigmentation disorder caused by autoimmune diseases. Cyanosis is a
bluish discoloration of the skin around the lips; this occurs due to an
increased amount of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood.
,A pediatric client reports difficulty breathing and swallowing and has a sore
throat, headache, and fever. The nurse observes a grayish yellow
membranous patch near the tonsils. What disease does the nurse infer
from these findings?
1
Mumps
2
Pertussis
3
Diphtheria
4
Pneumonia - ANSWER 3
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Symptoms include a
sore throat, fever, and headache along with gray or dirty-yellow membrane
patches. Mumps is a viral disease that primarily affects the parotid glands.
It is accompanied by local pain, tenderness, fever, and swelling. Pertussis,
also known as whooping cough, is caused by Bordetella pertussis.
Symptoms include rhinorrhea, mild fever, and a persistent cough.
Pneumonia is a lung disease; symptoms include a cough and chest pain.
A client who sustained burn injuries due to a fire and explosion has a
carbon monoxide level of 14%. Which pathophysiologic risk is increased in
the client?
1
Stupor
2
Vertigo
3
Convulsions
4
Slight breathlessness - ANSWER 4
Slight breathlessness may occur when the carbon monoxide level is 14%.
Stupor and vertigo may result when the carbon monoxide level is in
between 21% and 40%. When the level of carbon monoxide reaches
between 41% and 60%, coma or convulsions may occur.
A client is admitted to the birthing unit with uterine tenderness and minimal
dark-red vaginal bleeding. She has a marginal abruptio placentae. The
priority assessment includes fetal status, vital signs, skin color, and urine
output. What additional assessment is essential?
,1
Fundal height
2
Obstetric history
3
Time of the last meal
4
Family history of bleeding disorders - ANSWER 1
It is vital that a baseline measurement be obtained, because increasing
fundal height may be a sign of concealed hemorrhage. Taking an obstetric
history, ascertaining the time of the last meal, and asking about a family
history of bleeding disorders are all appropriate assessments; however,
none are a priority at this critical time.
During a newborn assessment the nurse identifies the absence of the red
reflex in the eyes. What should the nurse's next action be?
1
Rinse the eyes with sterile saline
2
Notify the primary healthcare provider
3
Expect edema to subside within a few days
4
Conclude that this is a result of the prescribed eye prophylaxis - ANSWER
2
An absence of the red reflex may be indicative of congenital cataracts. The
red reflex is elicited by shining the light of an ophthalmoscope into the
newborn's eyes, which should produce a reddish circle. Rinsing the eyes
will not affect the red reflex. The red reflex or its absence is not related to
edema, which may occur after eye prophylaxis, or to eye prophylaxis itself.
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving medication to manage
anemia. Which primary goal should the nurse include in the care plan from
this information?
1
Prevention of uremic frost
2
Prevention of chronic fatigue
3
Prevention of tubular necrosis
, 4
Prevention of dependent edema - ANSWER 2
Kidney failure [1] [2] results in impaired erythropoietin production, which
causes anemia and chronic fatigue; treating the anemia will help in
managing the fatigue. Uremic frost results because urea compounds and
other waste products of metabolism that are not excreted by the kidneys
are brought to the skin by small superficial capillaries and are excreted and
deposited on the skin. Tubular necrosis is a pathologic condition of the
kidneys that can lead to kidney failure. The anemia and dependent edema
associated with kidney failure are not interrelated.
A client developed acute herpes zoster and was treated with antiviral
medication within 72 hours of the appearance of the rash. The client is
reporting persistent pain 1 week later. What does the nurse identify as the
cause of the posttherapeutic neuralgia?
1
Damage to the nerves
2
Untreated major depression
3
Scarring in the area of the rash
4
Continued presence of the skin rash - ANSWER 1
After the original infection has healed, the virus either remains quiescent or
it may return. Posttherapeutic neuralgia, which occurs in some individuals,
results from damage to the nerves caused by the varicella-zoster virus; the
neuralgia may last for months. Untreated major depression and scarring in
the area of the rash are unrelated to posttherapeutic neuralgia. The rash
does not cause posttherapeutic neuralgia.
Which clients should be considered for assessing the carotid pulse? Select
all that apply.
1
Client with cardiac arrest
2
Client indicated for Allen test
3
Client under physiologic shock
4
Client with impaired circulation to foot
