DNP 604 FINAL EXAM TEST LATEST UPDATE
WITH 100% SOLVED -GRADED A+ VERIFIED
2025 - 2026 UPDATE
Mixed Precocious Puberty - ANS-Causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the
opposite sex
Common causes: adrenal hyperplasia or androgen-secreting tumors
Function of osteoblasts - ANS-Synthesize collagen and proteoglycans; stimulate bone formation and are
also involved in some osteoclast resorptive activity
Function of osteocytes - ANS-Maintain bone matrix; act as mechanoreceptors; influence osteoblasts and
osteoclasts
Function of osteoclasts - ANS-Resorb bone; major role in mineral homeostasis
In isotonic dehydration, fluid ______ exceeds ______ - ANS-fluid output exceeds intake
What happens to serum sodium concentration with isotonic dehydration? - ANS-Fluid output exceeds
intake. Serum sodium concentration remains normal because loss of free water is proportional to loss of
sodium. Hypotension results
What happens to serum sodium concentration with hypotonic/hyponatremic dehydration? - ANS-
Proportionally greater loss of sodium than free water thus serum sodium falls. Poor perfusion develops,
hypotension results.
What happens to serum sodium concentration with hypertonic/hypernatremic dehydration? - ANS-Free
water deficit is proportionally greater than deficit in sodium so sodium rises. Hypotension is observed.
What do thermal burns result from? - ANS-Result from thermal contact, flame or scald.
,What causes a chemical burn? - ANS-Vesicants such as acids, alkali, or organic agents that cause
blistering.
What causes electrical burns? - ANS-Conduction of electrical current through the body with heating of
tissue or flash over the body surface associated with electrical discharge
What is burn shock? - ANS-A medical emergency consisting of hypovolemic shock causing decreased
cardiac output, increased vascular resistance, hypovolemia and hypoperfusion that occur after severe
burn injuries have been sustained. Fluid resuscitation with LR is needed.
What is a first degree burn? - ANS-Partial thickness burn involving only the epidermis without injury to
underlying dermal or subcutaneous tissue. Example: sunburn causing pain, erythema, and blisters post
24hrs.
What is a superficial partial-thickness injury? - ANS-Type of second degree burn with the appearance of
fluid-filled blisters developing within minutes. Pain is due to nerve ending exposure to air, tactile and
pain sensors remain intact.
What is a deep partial-thickness burn? - ANS-Type of second degree burn that involves the entire
dermis, sparing skin appendages such as hair follicles and sweat glands. It has a waxy white appearance
and is surrounded by superficial partial thickness burns. Takes weeks to heal and may need grafting.
What is a third degree burn? - ANS-Full thickness burn that destroys the entire epidermis, dermis, and
subcutaneous; muscle, and bone may be involved. Looks dry and leathery. Escharotomies are performed
to release pressure. Major burns cause hypovolemic shock within a few hours.
Clinical Manifestations of MODS - ANS-Low grade fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, dyspnea, altered
mental status, hypermetabolic state
Lungs then fail leading to ARDS within 24-72 hrs
7-10 days: hypermetabolic state intensifies bacteremia from enteric organisms and liver, GI and renal
failure occurs
14-21 days: severe renal and liver failure leading to myocardial failure, deep coma evolving to death
What is amniocentesis and when is it performed? - ANS-Performed at about 16 weeks gestation,
involves the withdrawal of a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus. Fluid contains fetal cells
that are cultured and karyotyped to detect chromosome abnormalities.
What finding in the amniotic fluid detects neural tube defects? - ANS-Elevation of alpha-fetoprotein
levels.
What is transcription? - ANS-Process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. The result is the
formation of messenger RNA (mRNA) from the base sequence specified by the DNA molecule.
_______ makes up 90-95% of all bone cells - ANS-osteocytes
, What is leads to secondary MODS? - ANS-In primary MODS, neutrophils and macrophages are "primed"
by cytokines. When there is second insult, such as additional tissue injury, infection, or organ ischemia,
the primed cells are activated to produce an exaggerated response to secondary MODS.
What is primary MODS? - ANS-Typically ischemia or impaired perfusion locally (to an organ) and from
shock or trauma, thermal injury, soft tissue necrosis, or invasive infection
What response happens during primary and secondary MODS? - ANS-Inflammatory response as a result
of ischemia or impaired perfusion, exaggerated by additional tissue injury, infection, or organ ischemia.
What is the most common cause of MODS? - ANS-Sepsis and septic shock
What inflammatory response occurs with primary MODS? - ANS-Stress hormones (catecholamines) are
released. Macrophages and neutrophils are primed by cytokines
What inflammatory response occurs with secondary MODS? - ANS-Primed macrophages release
mediators (cytokines TNF and IL-1) that damage the endothelium throughout the body. Cytokines
stimulate endothelial cells that allow for adhesion of neutrophils. Neutrophils aggregate to the area of
injury and amplify the inflammation, increasing production and release of nitric oxide (vasodilator).
Nitric oxide leads to vascular tone loss and blood flow changes. Injured endothelium becomes more
permeable, allowing fluid and protein to leak into interstitial spaces
What important function of normal endothelium is damaged because of secondary MODS? - ANS-
Anticoagulation. When damaged, endothelium loses ability to prevent blood clotting, allowing
microvascular thrombi to develop
Osteocytes are - ANS-transformed osteoblasts that become trapped in osteoid
synarthorosis - ANS-immovable joint
amphiarthrosis - ANS-slightly movable joint
what is a fibrous joint and examples - ANS-bone to bone by fibrous connective tissue, generally
immovable, ex: sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses
2 types of cartilaginous joints and examples - ANS-symphyses (intervertebral discs) and synchondroses
(rib to sternum (hyaline cartilage))
Which is the major remodeler cell of bone? - ANS-osteoclasts
______is non-mineralized bone matrix - ANS-osteoid
cells derived from mesenchymal stem cells that produce type I collagen - ANS-osteoblasts
Which are the most common mineral components of bone? - ANS-phosphate and calcium
What is the function of osteocalcin? - ANS-Plays a part in bone resorption by recruiting osteoclasts
WITH 100% SOLVED -GRADED A+ VERIFIED
2025 - 2026 UPDATE
Mixed Precocious Puberty - ANS-Causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the
opposite sex
Common causes: adrenal hyperplasia or androgen-secreting tumors
Function of osteoblasts - ANS-Synthesize collagen and proteoglycans; stimulate bone formation and are
also involved in some osteoclast resorptive activity
Function of osteocytes - ANS-Maintain bone matrix; act as mechanoreceptors; influence osteoblasts and
osteoclasts
Function of osteoclasts - ANS-Resorb bone; major role in mineral homeostasis
In isotonic dehydration, fluid ______ exceeds ______ - ANS-fluid output exceeds intake
What happens to serum sodium concentration with isotonic dehydration? - ANS-Fluid output exceeds
intake. Serum sodium concentration remains normal because loss of free water is proportional to loss of
sodium. Hypotension results
What happens to serum sodium concentration with hypotonic/hyponatremic dehydration? - ANS-
Proportionally greater loss of sodium than free water thus serum sodium falls. Poor perfusion develops,
hypotension results.
What happens to serum sodium concentration with hypertonic/hypernatremic dehydration? - ANS-Free
water deficit is proportionally greater than deficit in sodium so sodium rises. Hypotension is observed.
What do thermal burns result from? - ANS-Result from thermal contact, flame or scald.
,What causes a chemical burn? - ANS-Vesicants such as acids, alkali, or organic agents that cause
blistering.
What causes electrical burns? - ANS-Conduction of electrical current through the body with heating of
tissue or flash over the body surface associated with electrical discharge
What is burn shock? - ANS-A medical emergency consisting of hypovolemic shock causing decreased
cardiac output, increased vascular resistance, hypovolemia and hypoperfusion that occur after severe
burn injuries have been sustained. Fluid resuscitation with LR is needed.
What is a first degree burn? - ANS-Partial thickness burn involving only the epidermis without injury to
underlying dermal or subcutaneous tissue. Example: sunburn causing pain, erythema, and blisters post
24hrs.
What is a superficial partial-thickness injury? - ANS-Type of second degree burn with the appearance of
fluid-filled blisters developing within minutes. Pain is due to nerve ending exposure to air, tactile and
pain sensors remain intact.
What is a deep partial-thickness burn? - ANS-Type of second degree burn that involves the entire
dermis, sparing skin appendages such as hair follicles and sweat glands. It has a waxy white appearance
and is surrounded by superficial partial thickness burns. Takes weeks to heal and may need grafting.
What is a third degree burn? - ANS-Full thickness burn that destroys the entire epidermis, dermis, and
subcutaneous; muscle, and bone may be involved. Looks dry and leathery. Escharotomies are performed
to release pressure. Major burns cause hypovolemic shock within a few hours.
Clinical Manifestations of MODS - ANS-Low grade fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, dyspnea, altered
mental status, hypermetabolic state
Lungs then fail leading to ARDS within 24-72 hrs
7-10 days: hypermetabolic state intensifies bacteremia from enteric organisms and liver, GI and renal
failure occurs
14-21 days: severe renal and liver failure leading to myocardial failure, deep coma evolving to death
What is amniocentesis and when is it performed? - ANS-Performed at about 16 weeks gestation,
involves the withdrawal of a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus. Fluid contains fetal cells
that are cultured and karyotyped to detect chromosome abnormalities.
What finding in the amniotic fluid detects neural tube defects? - ANS-Elevation of alpha-fetoprotein
levels.
What is transcription? - ANS-Process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. The result is the
formation of messenger RNA (mRNA) from the base sequence specified by the DNA molecule.
_______ makes up 90-95% of all bone cells - ANS-osteocytes
, What is leads to secondary MODS? - ANS-In primary MODS, neutrophils and macrophages are "primed"
by cytokines. When there is second insult, such as additional tissue injury, infection, or organ ischemia,
the primed cells are activated to produce an exaggerated response to secondary MODS.
What is primary MODS? - ANS-Typically ischemia or impaired perfusion locally (to an organ) and from
shock or trauma, thermal injury, soft tissue necrosis, or invasive infection
What response happens during primary and secondary MODS? - ANS-Inflammatory response as a result
of ischemia or impaired perfusion, exaggerated by additional tissue injury, infection, or organ ischemia.
What is the most common cause of MODS? - ANS-Sepsis and septic shock
What inflammatory response occurs with primary MODS? - ANS-Stress hormones (catecholamines) are
released. Macrophages and neutrophils are primed by cytokines
What inflammatory response occurs with secondary MODS? - ANS-Primed macrophages release
mediators (cytokines TNF and IL-1) that damage the endothelium throughout the body. Cytokines
stimulate endothelial cells that allow for adhesion of neutrophils. Neutrophils aggregate to the area of
injury and amplify the inflammation, increasing production and release of nitric oxide (vasodilator).
Nitric oxide leads to vascular tone loss and blood flow changes. Injured endothelium becomes more
permeable, allowing fluid and protein to leak into interstitial spaces
What important function of normal endothelium is damaged because of secondary MODS? - ANS-
Anticoagulation. When damaged, endothelium loses ability to prevent blood clotting, allowing
microvascular thrombi to develop
Osteocytes are - ANS-transformed osteoblasts that become trapped in osteoid
synarthorosis - ANS-immovable joint
amphiarthrosis - ANS-slightly movable joint
what is a fibrous joint and examples - ANS-bone to bone by fibrous connective tissue, generally
immovable, ex: sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses
2 types of cartilaginous joints and examples - ANS-symphyses (intervertebral discs) and synchondroses
(rib to sternum (hyaline cartilage))
Which is the major remodeler cell of bone? - ANS-osteoclasts
______is non-mineralized bone matrix - ANS-osteoid
cells derived from mesenchymal stem cells that produce type I collagen - ANS-osteoblasts
Which are the most common mineral components of bone? - ANS-phosphate and calcium
What is the function of osteocalcin? - ANS-Plays a part in bone resorption by recruiting osteoclasts
