NUR 504 - FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST UPDATE

NUR 504 - FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST UPDATE "During the physical examination, the physician notices visible blood vessels in the center of the patient's tympanic membrane. What is the likeliest diagnosis? a. Acute or chronic otitis b. Bone exostoses c. A normal, healthy tympanic membrane d. Tympanosclerosis - CORRECT ANSWER a. Acute or chronic otitis" "What hearing test is specifically designed to compare air conduction to bone conduction? a. Rinne b. Weber c. Whisper d. Tympanic - CORRECT ANSWER a. Rinne" "Lateralization of intensity of tone in a tuning fork test to the patient's right ear is most likely symptomatic of what? a. Normal functioning b. Conductive hearing loss in left ear c. Sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear d. Conductive hearing loss in the right ear - CORRECT ANSWER d. Conductive hearing loss in the right ear" "Which type of otalgia can be tested using a tympanogram? a. Acute otitis media b. Serous otitis c. Chronic otitis media d. Trauma - CORRECT ANSWER b. Serous otitis" "Which type of otalgia can be tested using a tympanogram? a. Acute otitis media b. Serous otitis c. Chronic otitis media d. Trauma - CORRECT ANSWER b. Serous otitis" "You are performing an endocrine assessment on an Asian patient. Which of the following conditions would be of greatest concern? a. Diabetes b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypothyroidism d. Diabetic retinopathy - CORRECT ANSWER b. Hyperthyroidism" "What is the function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach? a. To release hormones and cytokines b. To regulate lipoprotein metabolism c. To lower the resting pH of the stomach d. To divert blood flow away from the gastrointestinal systems - CORRECT ANSWER c. To lower the resting pH of the stomach" "What happens when the sympathetic nervous system is activated? a. Saliva production increases b. Pancreatic enzymes are released c. Peristalsis is initiated d. Gallbladder function is inhibited - CORRECT ANSWER d. Gallbladder function is inhibited" "During which domain of assessing nutritional status would a clinician assess the mid-arm muscle circumference? a. Domain 1 b. Domain 2 c. Domain 3 Domain 4 - CORRECT ANSWER b. Domain 2" "Which component of the SAFE acronym would be used to assess if a patient feels safe with their partner? a. S b. A c. F d. E - CORRECT ANSWER a. S" "Use of alcohol and recreational drugs is information discussed as part of which of the following? a. The past medical history b. Family history c. Social history d. Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER c. Social history" "A Folstein Mini-Mental Status Examination score of 18 signifies which of the following? a. Dementia b. A healthy cognitive score c. An affective disorder d. Cognitive impairment - CORRECT ANSWER b. A healthy cognitive score" "What appears in new mothers as anxiety, tearfulness, irritability, and depression and usually lasts 10 days or less? a. The "baby blues" b. Postpartum depression c. Postpartum psychosis d. SIGECAPS - CORRECT ANSWER . The "baby blues"" "A Folstein Mini-Mental Status Examination score of 18 signifies which of the following? a. Dementia b. A healthy cognitive score c. An affective disorder d. Cognitive impairment - CORRECT ANSWER b. A healthy cognitive score" "1. The provider is preparing to take a health history for a new patient. He takes the patient to a private room and asks the patient to don a hospital gown. After stepping outside to give the patient sufficient time to change, he then comes back in and asks permission to conduct the history. He sits next to the patient at eye level, discreetly observes the patient for any sensory deficits, and asks the patient if he may take brief notes of the conversation. During the conversation, he gives the patient time to answer questions fully. He makes sure that his questions do not contain technical terms and quietly observes the patient's nonverbal behaviors throughout. Which mistake did the provider make? a. He should have allowed the patient to remain fully clothed in their own clothing for their comfort. b. He should not have omitted technical terminology. Patients like having a chance to learn. c. He should have seated - CORRECT ANSWER a. He should have allowed the patient to remain fully clothed in their own clothing for their comfort." "1. Which of the following is true of both comprehensive and focused health histories? a. They both include identifying data. b. They both include a social history. c. They both include a family history. d. They are both conducted in emergency situations. - CORRECT ANSWER a. They both include identifying data." "1. In the mnemonic devise PQRST, which of the following includes describing the location of the symptoms? a. Precipitating factors b. Quality c. Radiation d. Severity - CORRECT ANSWER b. Quality" "1. Which of the following is a first-degree relative to the patient who has experienced premature onset of CVD? a. Sister at 62 b. Cousin at 62 c. Aunt at 59 d. Grandfather at 44 - CORRECT ANSWER a. Sister at 62" "1. Recording the patient's occupation falls under which category? a. PHI b. FH c. SH d. ROS - CORRECT ANSWER c. SH" "1. A focused ROS: a. involves a wider range and shallower level of questions than a comprehensive ROS. b. includes questions directed toward the systems most likely to be involved in the patient's symptoms. c. includes questions seeking significant positives to narrow down the body systems affected. d. covers all body systems. - CORRECT ANSWER b. includes questions directed toward the systems most likely to be involved in the patient's symptoms." "1. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of repeated headaches and lightheadedness. As the provider takes a health history, he or she should: a. perform a comprehensive ROS. b. skip the social history in order to focus on the current issue. c. focus her interest and questions on the patient's neurologic system. d. spend a good deal of time assessing the reliability of the information she is getting. - CORRECT ANSWER c. focus her interest and questions on the patient's neurologic system." "Family history should include both parents and grandparents, if information is known. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Social history includes a detailed diet history, best performed as a record of food and beverage intake by the patient for a typical week, that includes things like use of salt and oil in food preparation and methods of cooking - CORRECT ANSWER True" "1. What are the two main general considerations of physical examinations listed in the text? a. Preparation and sequence b. Medical and financial c. Patient interaction and scope d. Inspection and palpation - CORRECT ANSWER c. Patient interaction and scope" "1. The physician has begun her first physical examination on a new patient who has come to the clinic for a well-patient visit. Which of the following is true? a. The first thing the physician will do as part of the physical examination is perform the history. b. This will likely be a head-to-toe examination. c. As a first exam, this will likely be brief and focused. d. The patient, on his first visit, will likely be disoriented and unaware of the physician's tone and expressions. - CORRECT ANSWER b. This will likely be a head-to-toe examination." "1. The physician records a sound as "tympanic." The physician has just performed which assessment technique? a. Palpation b. Auscultation c. Percussion d. Compression - CORRECT ANSWER c. Percussion" "1. What does a physician use the Weber and/or Rinne tests for? a. Assessing the lungs b. Performing an abdominal fluid wave text c. Testing hearing d. Observing posture and balance - CORRECT ANSWER c. Testing hearing" "1. The red reflex is a test of: a. the abdomen. b. the spine. c. the eyes. d. the mouth. - CORRECT ANSWER c. the eyes." "1. If the physician is evaluating thoracic expansion, percussing the kidneys, and inspecting the skin for lesions, the patient is in which position? a. Patient seated and facing examiner b. Patient seated and facing away from examiner with back exposed c. Patient standing d. Patient supine with chest exposed - CORRECT ANSWER b. Patient seated and facing away from examiner with back exposed" "1. Which position is only performed on female patients? a. Reclining 45 degrees b. Lithotomy position c. Leaning forward reaching for toes d. Supine with abdomen exposed - CORRECT ANSWER b. Lithotomy position" "A functional assessment includes which of the following components? a. Abdominal assessment b. Visual assessment c. Assessment of flaccidity, tension, and spasticity d. Assessment of mental status and mood impairment - CORRECT ANSWER d. Assessment of mental status and mood impairment" "The history should be performed separately from the physical examination - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is true of healthcare institutions regarding documentation? a. To comply with HIPAA regulations, institutions must ensure that computer monitors with sensitive patient data are not left unattended. b. All institutions must follow a standard policy for posting abbreviations in documentation drawn from the AMA. c. Institutions consider drawings a fairly inaccurate way to represent a patient's systems or picture of the patient's condition. d. As of 2003, faxes may no longer be used to share patient medical information between institutions - CORRECT ANSWER a. To comply with HIPAA regulations, institutions must ensure that computer monitors with sensitive patient data are not left unattended." "SOAP stands for: a. standard operating and admitting procedures. b. sanitation, observation, auscultation, palpation. c. surgeons, officials, administrators, patients. d. subjective, objective, assessment, plan, - CORRECT ANSWER d. subjective, objective, assessment, plan," "Which of the following is recorded in documentation as direct patient quotes? a. The chief complaint and follow-up responses b. The chief complaint only c. Nothing; everything is written in precise medical terminology d. The objective information - CORRECT ANSWER b. The chief complaint only" "1. A patient is examined according to __________, and documentation is recorded according to __________. a. PQRST, CLIENT OUTCOMES b. body region, system c. subjective data, objective data d. the institution's system, the physician's system - CORRECT ANSWER b. body region, system" "Which of the following is true of reporting history of present illness? a. If a patient describes having pain in the arm and numbness in the fingertips, the physician should examine these as a single unit. b. The opening sentence should contain the results from pertinent test results and test dates. c. All recent pertinent diagnostic tests and the outcomes of recent pertinent interventions should be summarized and included in the HPI. d. Medical tests that are unrelated to their current complaint should be included in the HPI. - CORRECT ANSWER a. If a patient describes having pain in the arm and numbness in the fingertips, the physician should examine these as a single unit." "Which is the preferred order of taking down a patient's subjective information? a. Family history, physical exam, diagnostic tests, assessment b. SOAP c. HPI, past medical history, family history, social history d. HPI, family history, physical exam, assessment - CORRECT ANSWER c. HPI, past medical history, family history, social history" "In a physical examination, the physician spends the most attention on the patient's musculoskeletal and neurological systems. What can we deduce from this? a. The same systems were likely not explored in the review of systems. b. This is a comprehensive examination. c. Documentation from the subjective component of the patient's visit has pointed the physician to these systems. The diagnosis will be firmly established after assessment of both systems. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Documentation from the subjective component of the patient's visit has pointed the physician to these systems." "1. Which of the following is the last component of gathering objective data? a. Review of systems b. Physical examination c. Assessment d. Diagnostic tests - CORRECT ANSWER d. Diagnostic tests" "1. Which of the following is true of a problem list that is created during the final assessment? a. It outlines the educational needs of the patient. b. It includes additional findings that are directly related to the history of present illness. c. It may include other issues that are not true diagnoses. d. Items on the problem list typically cannot be treated. - CORRECT ANSWER c. It may include other issues that are not true diagnoses." "Documentation that just indicates that the healthcare provider found "no problems" is unacceptable because of lack of precision and clarity of what was asked and what was assessed - CORRECT ANSWER True" "HIPAA regulations permit healthcare institutions to share a patient's information without their consent, but only to other accredited healthcare institutions and only if strict security measures are in place. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The format and extent of information gathered are different for each subclassification of the SOAP approach - CORRECT ANSWER False" "If the patient reports that 5 years ago she had a "heart attack," it is important for the physician to note this using the patient's own terminology. - CORRECT ANSWER False" ""Patient holds an M.A. in art history and curates a small museum; occupation calls for standing 6-7 hours a day" is an example of documentation of a patient's social history - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The assessment plan for all patients will contain new diagnoses, differential diagnoses, and a problem list. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The internal os is contained within what? a. The uterus b. The vagina c. The ovaries d. The clitoris - CORRECT ANSWER a. The uterus" "Nicotine can contribute to which of the following? a. Urinary problems b. Sexual dysfunction c. Allergic vaginitis d. Amenorrhea - CORRECT ANSWER a. Urinary problems" "A bluish hue to a cervix is considered normal in which of the following? a. A prepubescent girl b. A pregnant woman c. Any woman of child-bearing age d. A geriatric patient - CORRECT ANSWER b. A pregnant woman" "A patient's os is slit-like in appearance. This indicates what? a. The patient has borne a child or children. b. The patient has not yet engaged in sexual activity. c. A pathology may be present. d. The patient is likely using hormone therapy. - CORRECT ANSWER a. The patient has borne a child or children" "Which of the following is true regarding nipple discharge? a. Discharge emanating from multiple ducts suggests cancer. b. A bloody discharge suggests intraductal papilloma. c. Oral contraceptives and steroids can cause a greenish discharge. d. Duct ectasia produces a clear or milky discharge. - CORRECT ANSWER b. A bloody discharge suggests intraductal papilloma." "What would be an abnormal finding when inspecting the breasts? a. Supernumerary nipples b. Discharge without palpation in a nonpregnant patient c. Seborrheic keratosis d. Nevi and striae - CORRECT ANSWER b. Discharge without palpation in a nonpregnant patient" "A patient who has begun menopause at 55 years has a higher risk of breast cancer. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The wedged palpation technique is the most effective in detecting abnormalities. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "How many bones make up the vertebral column? a. 37 b. 24 c. 12 d. 26 - CORRECT ANSWER d. 26" "Which of the following bones is part of the wrist? a. Ulna b. Scaphoid c. Phalanges d. Metacarpals - CORRECT ANSWER a. Ulna" "Which is the major weight-bearing bone in the foot? a. Calcaneus b. Talus c. Malleoleus d. Navicular - CORRECT ANSWER b. Talus" "A 55-year-old diabetic woman complains of a complete restriction of motion in her shoulder. What should be suspected? a. Myofascial injury b. AC joint separation c. Fractured clavicle d. Adhesive capsulitis - CORRECT ANSWER d. Adhesive capsulitis" "Injury to which part of the body does the text explicitly state carries a high likelihood of damage to nerves and/or blood vessels? a. Knee b. Shoulder c. Elbow d. Hip/pelvis - CORRECT ANSWER c. Elbow" "When assessing range of motion, a patient's ulnar deviation and radial deviation should be __________, respectively. a. 20 degrees and 55 degrees b. 55 degrees and 20 degrees c. 70 degrees and 70 degrees D) 25 degrees and 40 degrees - CORRECT ANSWER b. 55 degrees and 20 degrees" "The hand has two types of muscles and three major nerves. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Pain that is sharp and reproduced only when the patient raises the right arm suggests bursitis. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Decreased muscle mass increases the risk of damage to connective tissue and bones - CORRECT ANSWER True" "A patient's elbow should not be able to flex to 90 degrees - CORRECT ANSWER False" "From flexion to extension, a patient should have a 160-degree range of motion in the wrist - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The Barlow-Ortolani maneuver tests for dislocation of an adolescent's hip. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Of the following, which cranial nerves are only of motor type, not sensory? a. I, VII, and X b. IV, V, and VI c. III, XI, XII d. I, VIII, IX - CORRECT ANSWER c. III, XI, XII" "Which of the following often present with intermittent neurological deficit, vertigo, and weakness? a. Migraines b. Cluster headaches c. Transient ischemic attacks d. Tension headaches - CORRECT ANSWER c. Transient ischemic attacks" "1. What kind of vertigo/loss of equilibrium also may include sensory disturbances? a. Vestibular neuronitis b. Meniere's disease c. Multiple sclerosis d. Acoustic neuroma - CORRECT ANSWER c. Multiple sclerosis" "Palpating the masseter and temporal muscles tests which cranial nerve? a. II b. IV c. V d. VIII - CORRECT ANSWER c. V" "1. A patient's pupils are not the correct size for the amount of light. Damage to which cranial nerve is suspected? a. I b. VI c. III d. II - CORRECT ANSWER c. III" "Which of the following is a sign of LMN lesion? a. Muscle spasticity b. Absent Babinski reflex c. No fasciculations d. Diminished strength, but no atrophy - CORRECT ANSWER b. Absent Babinski reflex" "Having a patient identify a physical object by touch with the eyes closed tests what? a. Graphesthesia b. Vibratory sense c. Extinction d. Stereognosis - CORRECT ANSWER d. Stereognosis" "A patient has trouble maintaining balance when walking normally, either with eyes open or closed. This suggests what? a. Cerebellar disease b. MS c. Romberg's test d. Guillain-Barre syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cerebellar disease" "Stimulating a newborn's lips to test deviation of the head toward the stimulus tests what? a. Babinski b. Placing c. Rooting d. Stepping - CORRECT ANSWER c. Rooting" "Damage to the temporal lobe of the brain may leave a patient with impaired hearing as well as emotional/behavioral abnormalities - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The descending RAS is essential for arousal from sleep - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Meningitis may mimic the symptoms of rupture of an intracranial aneurysm or AVM - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Strabismus may be a symptom of damage to the third cranial nerve. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The physician asks the patient to lie supine. The physician flexes the patient's neck and the patient involuntarily bends his knees. This is known as Brudzinski's sign. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Cranial nerves are directly evaluated in the neonate. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Strabismus may be a symptom of damage to the third cranial nerve. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is true? a. Electrical synapses are more common than chemical synapses. b. Synaptic transmission is an electrical response. c. Chemical synapses allow currents to travel in either direction. d. The release of neurotransmitters allows unidirectional conduction of an impulse. - CORRECT ANSWER d. The release of neurotransmitters allows unidirectional conduction of an impulse." "What is true of the vas deferens? a. It is where sperm matures. b. It contains the cells of Leydig. c. It ends at the tip of the penis. d. Normally there are two - CORRECT ANSWER d. Normally there are two" "What produces sperm? a. The penis b. The epididymes c. The testicles d. The prostate gland - CORRECT ANSWER c. The testicles" "Which of the following is a sexual dysfunction? a. Peyronie's disease b. Pyelonephritis c. Dysuria Prostatitis - CORRECT ANSWER a. Peyronie's disease" "Which of the following would be an abnormal finding when palpating the testes? a. Ridged b. Smooth c. Oval d. Rubbery - CORRECT ANSWER a. Ridged" "Which of the following is true of palpation of the prostate gland? a. It is not done. b. It is part of a patient's self-examination routine. c. It is usually done externally. d. It is usually done during a rectal examination. - CORRECT ANSWER d. It is usually done during a rectal examination." "1. Which test assesses the kidneys, ureter, and bladder? a. IVP b. BMP c. Routine urinalysis d. 24-hour collection - CORRECT ANSWER a. IVP" "Which of the following is true of UTIs in pediatric patients? a. They can occur before the age of 2 years. b. Children younger than age 6 years do not get UTIs. c. In adolescents, increased UTIs suggest sexual activity. d. They may have decreased urinary output. - CORRECT ANSWER c. In adolescents, increased UTIs suggest sexual activity." "The urethra carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body, and extends through the length of the penis - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Urinary urgency/frequency, combined with dysuria, fever, and chills, indicates urethritis - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Herpes simplex presents with a single chancre - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The epididymis feels softer than the testes. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "During the physical exam, the physician will ask the patient to cough while the physician palpates the prostate gland - CORRECT ANSWER False" "A newborn's urine is usually colorless and odorless. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Damage to the temporal lobe of the brain may leave a patient with impaired hearing as well as emotional/behavioral abnormalities - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The endocrine system consists of a number of: a. muscle groups. b. neural networks. c. adipose layers. d. glands. - CORRECT ANSWER d. glands." "Which part of the endocrine system creates chemicals that speed up metabolism? a. Pituitary gland b. Thyroid gland c. Pancreas d. Hypothalamus - CORRECT ANSWER b. Thyroid gland" "What gland secretes cortisol? a. Pituitary b. Adrenal c. Thyroid d. Pancreas - CORRECT ANSWER b. Adrenal" "Which of the following symptoms are associated with hypothyroidism? a. Increased irritability b. Exophthalmos c. Weight loss d. Lethargy - CORRECT ANSWER d. Lethargy" "Upon inspecting the skin of a patient, you notice purple striae over the abdomen. Which of the following diseases may be indicated by this finding? a. Cushing's syndrome b. Addison's disease c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hypothyroidism - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cushing's syndrome" "Which is commonly measured when investigating thyroid function? a. FT4 b. TT4 c. TT3 d. FT3 - CORRECT ANSWER b. TT4" "What imaging study is used in diagnosing tumors of various endocrine glands? a. MRI b. Thyroid ultrasound c. TSH test d. Radioactive iodine - CORRECT ANSWER a. MRI" "Which of the following is true of congenital hypothyroidism? a. Clinical manifestations tend to be evident at around 1 month of age. b. It is not fatal. c. There is an increased risk in children with Down syndrome. d. Excessive wakefulness is a clinical manifestation. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Excessive wakefulness is a clinical manifestation." "The tissue in the anterior pituitary gland secretes six different hormones - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The heart and stomach produce chemicals that could make them considered part of the endocrine system - CORRECT ANSWER True" "An excess of thyroid hormones causes an overabundance of proteins within blood vessels. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Asymmetry of the neck muscles potentially suggests an enlarged thyroid - CORRECT ANSWER True" "A slight deviation of the trachea to the right is considered normal in palpation; under inspection the trachea should be midline and appear symmetrical. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Pregnant women with hypothyroidism are at increased risk of preeclampsia - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is true? a. Pancreatic secretions promote fat digestion, while liver bile aids in absorption of glucose. b. Solid organs in the abdominal cavity include the liver, pancreas, gallbladder, and kidneys. c. Peristalsis pushes food from the duodenum into the central part of the stomach. d. Most digestion occurs before food reaches the jejunum. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Most digestion occurs before food reaches the jejunum" "The stomach, spleen, and body of the pancreas all reside in which abdominal quadrant? a. RUQ b. LUQ c. RLQ d. LLQ - CORRECT ANSWER b. LUQ" "Periumbilical or epigastric pain that starts as colicky and then localizes to RLQ may be a sign of which of the following gastrointestinal diseases? a. Diverticulitis b. Biliary stones c. Cholecystitis d. Appendicitis - CORRECT ANSWER d. Appendicitis" "A patient suffers from severe pain that seems to radiate from the abdomen up into her shoulder. Which of the following are possible? a. Cholecystitis or biliary stones b. Appendicitis or intestinal obstruction c. Pancreatitis or perforated duodenal ulcer d Abdominal aneurysm or diverticulitis - CORRECT ANSWER c. Pancreatitis or perforated duodenal ulcer" "Which test requires the patient to place his or her own hand in the middle of the abdomen while the physician performs the test? a. Test for ascites b. Test for appendicitis c. Test for cholecystitis d. Test for aortic aneurysm - CORRECT ANSWER a. Test for ascites" "When should a physician touch a patient's area of known pain and why? a. Last, because otherwise the pain will reflect and mask other areas b. Last, because inflicting pain causes a patient's muscles to tense and tighten in anticipation of more pain c. First, to get "the worst" out of the way so the patient can relax d. First, to set the pain in motion and see where it radiates to - CORRECT ANSWER b. Last, because inflicting pain causes a patient's muscles to tense and tighten in anticipation of more pain" "Which of the following is a concern when prescribing gastrointestinal treatments for a geriatric patient? a. Lipid-soluble drugs can last longer in the patient's body. b. An aging body's tendency toward diarrhea may cause quality-of-life issues. c. As the number of stomach glands continues to grow, drug absorption becomes increasingly swift. d. Wear in esophageal valves promotes reflux and heartburn. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Lipid-soluble drugs can last longer in the patient's body." "Which of the following is true regarding geriatric patients? a. Constipation becomes less of a problem. b. Esophageal reflux can be caused by weakening of the cardiac sphincter. c. Pancreatic atrophy is rare. The number of stomach glands decreases - CORRECT ANSWER b. Esophageal reflux can be caused by weakening of the cardiac sphincter." "All parts of the human colon reside in the two lower quadrants of the abdomen - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The color of vomitus may help determine the cause. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Polydipsia, polyuria, and asthenia are all related to ulcerative colitis - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Polydipsia, polyuria, and asthenia are all related to ulcerative colitis - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Murphy's sign is inspiratory arrest. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Umbilical hernias are typically surgically corrected. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Spider angiomas are a progressive and degenerative disease associated with the liver. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "A patient presents with pale, boggy turbinates. What is the most likely reason? a. Scratching b. Infection c. Allergies d. A healthy patient - CORRECT ANSWER c. Allergies" "A patient presents with congestion, clear rhinorrhea, sinus pain, and patches of eczema. Knowing that there is a risk of anaphylaxis, what test can the physician recommend that will be safe for the patient and help target the specific reason for the symptoms? a. RAST b. The TSH test c. Eosinophil counts d. Ultrasound of the facial sinuses - CORRECT ANSWER a. RAST" "Which of the following is related to nosebleeds in a pregnant patient? a. Drop in progesterone b. Increased vascularity c. Increased circulation fluid volume d. Normal spikes in blood pressure - CORRECT ANSWER b. Increased vascularity" "Which of the following is true? a. The oropharynx contains the pharyngeal tonsils. b. The nasopharynx leads to the oropharynx, which leads to the laryngopharynx. c. The laryngopharynx grasps food and moves it toward the esophagus. d. The oropharynx connects with the submandibular gland to promote salivation and swallowing. - CORRECT ANSWER b. The nasopharynx leads to the oropharynx, which leads to the laryngopharynx." "Sore throats associated with bacterial infections are described as what? a. A mild and untroubling soreness b. Scratchy or itchy c. Very sore, and may interfere with swallowing d. Ticklish - CORRECT ANSWER c. Very sore, and may interfere with swallowing" "Which of the following is true of bacterial pharyngitis? a. There are no diagnostic tests. b. It is associated with rapid onset. c. It most often presents in the winter or early spring. d. A quick beta strep can be used for diagnosis. - CORRECT ANSWER b. It is associated with rapid onset." "How can smoking affect the gums? a. Through vasoconstriction b. By finely coating them with tar so saliva cannot clean them c. Through sloughing by the physical action of smoking d. Dilating the blood vessels and increasing likelihood of bleeding - CORRECT ANSWER a. Through vasoconstriction" "Which of the following is a common consideration for the geriatric patient? a. Varicose veins on the underside of the tongue b. Increased saliva production c. Heightened sense of taste d. Overly moist oral mucosa - CORRECT ANSWER a. Varicose veins on the underside of the tongue" "Only the nasal cavity is lined with cilia. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Nasal sprays, if used more than three days, may lead to "rebound congestion." - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Cocaine use may lead to nasal polyps. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "A typical physical examination of a patient's mouth includes palpation of lips, gums, tongue, and lymph nodes - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Rhinitis is the most frequent cause of tooth and mouth pain. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Asymmetrical movement of the uvula is a normal response in Caucasian populations. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Under normal conditions, an adult takes how many breaths in a minute? a. 6 to 10 b. 12 to 20 c. 4 to 8 d. 10 to 15 - CORRECT ANSWER b. 12 to 20" "Which of the following is true of the respiratory system? a. The larynx is part of the upper respiratory tract. b. Exhalation leads to the increase of blood acid levels. c. Breathing is controlled by the cerebellum. d. Breathing is initiated by the brain stem. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Breathing is initiated by the brain stem." "What does a low-pitched cough signify? a. Secretions or inflammation b. Airway constriction c. Cardiac problems d. Tuberculosis - CORRECT ANSWER a. Secretions or inflammation" "Which of the following respiratory rates is seen with hyperventilatory states? a. Eupnea b. Tachypnea c. Bradypnea d. Hyperpnea - CORRECT ANSWER b. Tachypnea" "Which of the following is a potentially normal breathing pattern for children in their sleep? a. Kussmaul b. Cheyne-Stokes c. Sigh d. Biot - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cheyne-Stokes" "According to the text, bronchiolitis is correlated with respiratory symptoms that affect which body system? a. Skin b. Cardiovascular c. Gastrointestinal d. Neurological - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cardiovascular" "What symptom of high thoracic pressure can be found by visual inspection? a. Retracted chest wall b. Venous patterns on the chest c. Kyphosis d. Clubbing of fingers - CORRECT ANSWER b. Venous patterns on the chest" "Fremitus is examined during which part of the physical exam? a. Palpation b. Auscultation c. Percussion d. Inspection - CORRECT ANSWER a. Palpation" "What is the palpable vibration of the chest wall resulting from speech? a. Fremitus b. Thoracic expansion c. Diaphragmatic excursion d. Lordosis - CORRECT ANSWER a. Fremitus" "Which type of breath sound can be described as hollow and low-pitched? a. Vesicular b. Bronchovesicular c. Bronchial d. Amphoric - CORRECT ANSWER d. Amphoric" "In the third trimester of pregnancy, a woman's costal angle is about how many degrees greater than it typically was before pregnancy? a. 35 degrees b. 103 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 27 degrees - CORRECT ANSWER a. 35 degrees" "A pregnant patient's tidal volume typically changes by how much? a. Decreases by 20% b. Increases by 40% c. Doubles d. Is halved - CORRECT ANSWER b. Increases by 40%" "Respiration is a four-step process: two inhalation steps and two exhalation steps. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "If sputum onset is acute, the cause is probably an infection. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Hepatitis, Marburg, yellow fever, cholera, and meningitis are all travel-related diseases. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "It is considered normal for the trachea to have a slight deviation to the patient's right side - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Emphysema is associated with barrel chest and absent fremitus. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Because their respiratory systems are not fully developed, the breath sounds of young pediatric patients are often quieter, higher-pitched, and more nasal than those of an adult. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is true of the cardiac cycle? a. The ventricles are nearly emptied during the systole. b. S1 and S2 are related to diastole; S3 and S4 are related to systole. c. Atrial contraction occurs late in the systole. d. During the diastole, the atria fill with blood. - CORRECT ANSWER a. The ventricles are nearly emptied during the systole." "Which of the following layers of cardiac muscle is the thin, outermost protective layer of the heart? a. Bronchocardium b. Endocardium c. Myocardium d. Epicardium - CORRECT ANSWER d. Epicardium" "Which of the following waveforms on an ECG represents the wave of depolarization? a. P b. PR c. QRS complex d. ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER a. P" "The patient complains of chest pain that comes on when he vacuums the house or mows the lawn. It comes in a fairly consistent pattern, usually lasting about 1 minute. When he feels it, he drinks a glass of water, sits quietly on the couch, and it typically goes away. What is the most likely type of problem? a. Anginal b. Musculoskeletal c. Pleural d. Gastrointestinal - CORRECT ANSWER a. Anginal" "Calf tenderness and warmth, swelling and ankle edema, and an otherwise unexplained fever are symptoms of what? a. Congestive heart failure b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Arteriosclerosis d. Obstructed cardiac valves - CORRECT ANSWER b. Deep vein thrombosis" "Which of the following examples of JVP activity is related to the tricuspid opening normally? a. The Y descent b. Prominent V wave c. Large A wave d. C wave - CORRECT ANSWER a. The Y descent" "Edema is caused by poor function of which part of the heart? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium - CORRECT ANSWER b. Left ventricle" "Which of the following is true about palpation of the cardiovascular system? a. The PMI should be palpated within a 2-centimeter radius. b. Both carotid arteries should be palpated gently and simultaneously to determine a balance of flow. c. Palpating a thrill around the aorta may indicate left ventricular hypertrophy. d. It is important to note pitting edema of the extremities, as this may indicate heart failure. - CORRECT ANSWER d. It is important to note pitting edema of the extremities, as this may indicate heart failure." "How is the patient positioned when palpating the precordium and the carotid pulse? a. Supine b. Standing c. Sitting up d. Resting on right side - CORRECT ANSWER a. Supine" "Who would be a likely candidate for receiving an ultrasound of the abdomen as part of a cardiovascular exam? a. A 66-year-old man with suspected AAA b. A pregnant woman in her second or third trimester c. An 8-year-old girl who complains of not being able to catch her breath d. All 18- to 45-year-old males on well-patient checkups - CORRECT ANSWER a. A 66-year-old man with suspected AAA" "Which of the following traditional auscultatory areas is in the mitral area (PMI)? a. Second right intercostal b. First right intercostal c. Third left intercostal d. Fifth left intercostal - CORRECT ANSWER d. Fifth left intercostal" "Which of the following is an invasive diagnostic test? a. EKG b. Ultrasound of abdomen c. Hematologic study d. Chest X-ray - CORRECT ANSWER c. Hematologic study" "Arteries are less flexible than veins. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "LSD and ecstasy are the most important recreational drugs to ask a patient about in terms of cardiac health. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Arcus senilis in the eye is never a normal finding in a patient. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "When percussing the borders of the heart, an unexpected change from resonance to dullness is usually indicative of pathology. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "S3 is the sound that results from the passive flow of blood from the atria - CORRECT ANSWER True" "For the neonatal patient, count the apical pulse for at least 30 seconds. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum germinativum - CORRECT ANSWER b. Stratum lucidum" "Most hair follicles originate in which level of the skin? a. Epidermis b. Subcutaneous layer c. Adipose layer d. Dermis - CORRECT ANSWER d. Dermis" "A patient's chart mentions that their particular skin ailment is "confluent." What does this describe? a. Morphology b. Structure c. Distribution d. Turgor - CORRECT ANSWER c. Distribution" "A patient presents with red papules and areas of plaque on her skin and irregular formations of exfoliated, keratinized cells. What is the most likely ailment? a. Psoriasis b. Eczema c. Acne d. Discoid lupus - CORRECT ANSWER a. Psoriasis" "The physician has determined that plaque on a patient's skin is less likely granuloma annulare and more likely a dermatophyte. How did she make this determination? a. Noticed the red papules b. Tested the apocrine secretions c. Scraped the skin with a #15 blade d. Pared the surface - CORRECT ANSWER c. Scraped the skin with a #15 blade" "1. An area of the patient's arm has very smooth skin and lacks any apparent superficial features. This is likely what? a. Psoriasis b. Hypokeratinization c. A scar d. A skin tag - CORRECT ANSWER c. a scar" "A patient with greasy, adherent scales on coalescing macules along the brow and scalp most likely has what form of dermatitis? a. Allergic contact b. Seborrheic c. Stasis d. Atopic - CORRECT ANSWER b. Seborrheic" "Which of the following typically appears on the head or face ? a. Verruca b. Dermatofibroma c. Actinic keratosis d. Neurofibroma - CORRECT ANSWER d. Neurofibroma" "Which of the following is a premalignant disease? a. Actinic keratosis b. Paget's disease c. Lipoma d. Granuloma annulare - CORRECT ANSWER a. Actinic keratosis" "The physician has used the Wood's light exam to look more closely at a patient's skin. What did this tell the physician? a. Whether the disease is M. canis or M. distortum b. The exact pathology of a skin finding c. Whether the disease was contact-related or internal d. Whether the disorder lies in the epidermis or dermis - CORRECT ANSWER d. Whether the disorder lies in the epidermis or dermis" "Which of the following is the least common pruritic condition of pregnancy? a. PUPP b. Pemphigoid gestationis c. Prurigo gravidarum d. ICP - CORRECT ANSWER b. Pemphigoid gestationis" "A patient is suspected to have allergic or contact dermatitis. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be used? a. Patch testing b. Biopsy c. Serum total IgE d. KOH scraping - CORRECT ANSWER c. Serum total IgE" "Eccrine glands originate in the dermis and open directly to the surface of the skin - CORRECT ANSWER True" ""Histologic evaluation" is another term for biopsy - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Keratinization is an inherited skin disorder linked to the father's side of the family. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Hirsutism is a medical condition related to females rather than males. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Seborrheic keratosis, moles, and hemangiomas can generally appear anywhere on a person's body. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Shave biopsies, punch biopsies, and excisional biopsies require suturing for closure - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is true of aqueous humor? a. It fills the anterior chamber while the fetus is developing and remains unchanged throughout a person's life. b. It is a clear liquid that is found between the lens and retina. c. It receives nutrients from the vitreous humor. d. It is continuously produced by the ciliary body. - CORRECT ANSWER d. It is continuously produced by the ciliary body." "What causes benign floaters? a. Bits of vitreous tugging on retinal tissue b. Retinal trauma c. Unbalanced intraocular pressure d. Damaged optic nerve - CORRECT ANSWER a. Bits of vitreous tugging on retinal tissue" "Which of the following is true of the optic disc? a. It contains the fovea and macula. b. It lacks retinal receptors. c. It is protected by the cornea. d. It is the only part of the internal eye with nerve fibers. - CORRECT ANSWER b. It lacks retinal receptors." "A healthcare provider asks a patient whether or not he or she wears contact lenses. This is part of which section of the patient's health history? a. Past medical history b. Chief complaint c. Social history d. Family history - CORRECT ANSWER a. Past medical history" "Why is asking about tobacco use important as part of a social history? a. Smoke can scar the cornea. b. The chemicals in tobacco smoke can cloud the vitreous humor. c. Cigarette use is associated with the appearance and frequency of floaters. d. Long-term tobacco use causes predictable vascular changes in the fundus. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Long-term tobacco use causes predictable vascular changes in the fundus." "A farmer working in wind-blown fields is most susceptible to what ailment? a. Viral conjunctivitis b. Pterygium c. Myasthenia gravis d. Proptosis - CORRECT ANSWER b. Pterygium" "Presbyopia is a failure of the eye to accommodate what? a. Bright light b. Very near vision c. Distant vision d. Subtle color shifts - CORRECT ANSWER b. Very near vision" "Using a slit lamp biomicroscope, the physician is most likely to find evidence of what? a. Hyphema b. Obstructed lacrimal ducts c. Nystagmus d. Papilledema - CORRECT ANSWER a. Hyphema" "The physician tests a patient's corneal reflex. One eye closes. Which of the following is most likely true? a. The patient was awake and conscious. b. This is a normal response. c. Intracranial pressure may be elevated. d. The physician used an ultra-thin 31-gauge needle. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Intracranial pressure may be elevated." "Which of the following is not true regarding an ophthalmoscopic examination? a. The room should be darkened to dilate the patient's pupil. b. The patient should focus on a distant object on the wall. c. Glasses and contact lenses should be removed. d. To examine a patient's right eye, the physician should hold the scope in the right hand. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Glasses and contact lenses should be removed." "Which of the following differential diagnoses requires observation and referral to ophthalmology? a. Hyphema b. Foreign body c. Corneal abrasion d. Herpetic lesion - CORRECT ANSWER a. Hyphema" "Parents bring a 5-month-old infant for an examination. Which of the following will be true? a. The infant's peripheral vision will not fully have developed yet. b. The infant's eyes are now able to perceive a single, undoubled image. c. It is appropriate for the physician to perform the cover-uncover test. d. The infant likely cannot distinguish colors yet. - CORRECT ANSWER d. The infant likely cannot distinguish colors yet." "The sclera merges with the cornea at the limbus - CORRECT ANSWER True" "A person reading a book looks up and focuses on something in the distance. To do this, the eyes must decrease lens curvature, relax the pupils, and reduce convergence - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The testing of visual fields is the "vital sign" in ophthalmology. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Paleness of conjunctiva may indicate severe anemia. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Fundoscopy in the primary-care setting generally offers a complete and fully adequate examination. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "A pregnant woman's eyes tend to be more sensitive and dry. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Which of the following parts of the outer ear is composed of fat and subcutaneous tissue? a. Lobule b. Sebaceous glands c. Posterior muscles d. Tragus - CORRECT ANSWER a. Lobule" "Which of the following is true of the eustachian tube in infants? a. The tube is more vertical compared to that of the adult. b. The bony portion is never open. c. The cartilaginous portion lies higher compared to that of the adult. d. The bony portion is relatively longer and wider compared to that of the adult. - CORRECT ANSWER d. The bony portion is relatively longer and wider compared to that of the adult" "Which of the following is most likely associated with BPPV? a. An unsettled/unbalanced sensation lasting for hours at a time b. Brief episodes of dizziness associated with head movement c. Clear discharge d. Otalgia - CORRECT ANSWER b. Brief episodes of dizziness associated with head movement" "1. Which form of otorrhea is most likely associated with physical trauma? a. Clear, watery fluid b. Yellow fluid c. Clear, mucoid fluid d. Brown fluid - CORRECT ANSWER a. Clear, watery fluid" "1. Which of the following syndromes or illnesses is not associated with ear conditions? a. Stickler syndrome b. Leukemia c. Trisomy 13 d. CHARGE association - CORRECT ANSWER b. Leukemia" "A patient arrives complaining of significant vertigo, which began after a sneezing fit and is persisting. Before the fit, the patient had not experienced notable ear problems. What most likely happened? a. The mastoid bone, deteriorated by anaerobic infection, broke. b. The patient is showing early symptoms of Meniere's disease. c. The patient aggravated latent otitis media. d. The patient ruptured the round window in one or both inner ears. - CORRECT ANSWER c. The patient aggravated latent otitis media." "The physician observes the patient and notes that his head is not rotated toward either side, his head is tilted toward the left ear, and he shows no reluctance to move his head in various directions. What does this most likely suggest? a. A well patient b. Otalgia in the left ear c. Hearing loss in the right ear d. Vertigo - CORRECT ANSWER b. Otalgia in the left ear" "Which of the following is typical or common in a geriatric patient? a. Shortened pinna b. Decreased amount and coarseness of hair growth on external ear canal c. Decreasing prevalence of tinnitus d. Presbycusis - CORRECT ANSWER d. Presbycusis" "Sound waves affect and interact with the pars tensa, malleus, incus, stapes, and the fluid of the inner ear. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Tinnitus affects nearly one-third of the adult population. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Exposures to rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex in utero are linked to later hearing loss. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "A patient's pinnae are fully below the level of an imaginary line drawn from the outer canthus of her ipsilateral eye to the occiput. This may be associated with congenital hearing loss in the patient - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The bulb of an otoscope is used to apply both positive and negative pressure to the tympanic membrane so its movement can be studied. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Neonates can discriminate a full spectrum of sounds, but respond best to low and midrange tones, or "brown noise." - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The bulb of an otoscope is used to apply both positive and negative pressure to the tympanic membrane so its movement can be studied. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Tinnitus affects nearly one-third of the adult population. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is true of implicit bias in health care? a. It does not influence patient health outcomes. b. It improves the use of empathy. c. It is associated with disparities in treatment recommendations. d. It is rarely exhibited by providers. - CORRECT ANSWER c. It is associated with disparities in treatment recommendations." "The __________ is used in the field of psychology as a way to identify implicit bias. a. Campinha-Bacote Model b. Implicit Association Test c. Cultural Bias Questionnaire d. Gottlieb Test - CORRECT ANSWER b. Implicit Association Test" "Where should a healthcare professional look to determine how to properly treat a patient? a. Formal education b. Textbook c. Patient d. Caregiver of the patient - CORRECT ANSWER c. Patient" "During which component of the mnemonic ETHNIC does the healthcare provider facilitate putting the plan into action? a. T b. H c. N d. I - CORRECT ANSWER d. I" "Which of the following questions might a clinician ask to understand the economic needs of a patient? a. "Are you allergic to anything in the environment that you are aware of?" b. "How will this illness affect your life and the life of your family?" c. "Where do you most often receive care when you are feeling ill or for routine checkups?" d. "How do you normally get medications or treatments that you need?" - CORRECT ANSWER d. "How do you normally get medications or treatments that you need?"" "Which of the following skin conditions would be of greater concern with an African American male patient? a. Scleroderma b. Traction alopecia c. Pseudofolliculitis barbate d. Keloids - CORRECT ANSWER c. Pseudofolliculitis barbate" "It is imperative that a healthcare provider use a reliable and valid tool to assess their awareness and acceptance of diversity. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders have less incidence of cardiovascular disease than Caucasians - CORRECT ANSWER True" "According to Vilter & Thompson, the incidence of diabetes is __________ times greater in those who are obese compared to those who are of average weight. a. 2 b. 2.5 c. 3 d. 4 - CORRECT ANSWER b. 2.5" "Which of the following malnutrition risk assessment tools would be most appropriate for ambulatory subacute and ambulatory patients? a. Malnutrition Screening Tool b. Nutritional Risk Screening c. Mini-Nutritional Assessment Short Form d. Subjective Global Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER c. Mini-Nutritional Assessment Short Form" "Which of the following was proposed by Soeters et al. as a comprehensive way to assess nutritional status? a. Nutritional Risk Screening b. Five Assessment Domains c. Malnutrition Screening Tool d. Subjective Global Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER b. Five Assessment Domains" "Which of the following assessments of nutrient balance would be used to indicate typical consumption over a period of one month? a. Food diary b. 24-hour diet recall c. Food frequency questionnaire d. Indirect calorimetry - CORRECT ANSWER c. Food frequency questionnaire" "Adipose tissue functions as an endocrine organ in the body - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The Weiss urochrome test is used to evaluate urine sediment volume in relationship to total urine calcium - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Which of the following is involved in emotions? a. Limbic system b. Cranial nerves c. Cerebellum d. Hippocampus - CORRECT ANSWER a. Limbic system" "Which of the following structures is responsible for sensory and motor functions of the head and upper body? a. Hippocampus b. Amygdala c. Frontal lobe d. Cranial nerves - CORRECT ANSWER d. Cranial nerves" "A patient reports having trouble falling asleep many nights, waking up very early many nights, and difficulty concentrating. Which of the following is most closely associated with this pattern? a. Depression b. General anxiety c. Bipolar disorder d. PTSD - CORRECT ANSWER b. General anxiety" "The physician has discovered that the patient is unable to concentrate, claims a sense of superiority, appears to have thoughts that move faster than her ability to articulate them, sleeps little, and has added a number of hobbies and personal projects to her routine. What mnemonic did the physician most likely use to uncover this information? a. SIGECAPS b. PQRST c. DIGFAST d. SAFE - CORRECT ANSWER c. DIGFAST" "1. A patient who is unsure of where they are and what's happening, can't pay attention to questions for long, and seems to give odd or unusual responses to certain stimuli is in what level of consciousness? a. Lethargy b. Stupor c. Confusion d. Delirium - CORRECT ANSWER d. Delirium" "A patient presents wearing inappropriate clothing for the season and having lost weight since his last visit. He is somewhat uncooperative, with a labile affect. His motor behavior is rigid and he appears to have difficulty with short-term memory. Which of these illnesses does this most closely suggest? a. Dementia b. Depression c. Delirium d. Bipolar disorder - CORRECT ANSWER a. Dementia" "A patient who presents as underweight and with fine, dry skin and downy hair on his or her hands and face shows signs of which disorder? a. Bulimia b. Dementia c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Anorexia - CORRECT ANSWER d. Anorexia" "1. Which of the following statements represents a typical change that aging brings to a geriatric patient? a. Patients are more adept at identifying and verbalizing their feelings. b. Patient is taking multiple medications for multiple diseases, complicating assessment of mental status. c. In younger years, patient was charming and cheerful; now presents as abrasive and disillusioned. d. Patient is more willing to ask questions about items not understood. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Patient is taking multiple medications for multiple diseases, complicating assessment of mental status." "Observing a patient's facial tone and facial muscle strength can give initial clues to the condition of their cranial nerves. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "A patient showing four symptoms of SIGECAPS and anhedonia over the past 10 days may be diagnosed as having major depression. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Delirium sets in rapidly, whereas dementia takes time and increases slowly. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The acronym ADL represents a guide to assessment of domestic abuse and risk of danger - CORRECT ANSWER False" "Patients with schizophrenia present with a flat or inappropriate affect, paranoid thoughts, hallucinations, rigid or withdrawn motor behavior, and disorganized speech - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Only adults should participate in interviews with open-ended questions as part of a mental status examination. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "1. Which of the following skin conditions would be of greater concern with an African American male patient? a. Scleroderma b. Traction alopecia c. Pseudofolliculitis barbate d. Keloids - CORRECT ANSWER c. Pseudofolliculitis barbate" “1. Which of the following is an example of subjective data that may be collected during a health assessment? a. Height and weight b. A patient's recall of his or her past health conditions c. Results from an abdominal CT scan d. Complete blood count - CORRECT ANSWER b. A patient's recall of his or her past health conditions" "1. Which of the following is true regarding the data taken in a health history? a. Most health history data are objective and measurable. b. Objective data are error-free, quantifiable data. c. Subjective data, being inherently less accurate, are of less value than objective data. d. A successful individualized plan of care must incorporate subjective data. - CORRECT ANSWER d. A successful individualized plan of care must incorporate subjective data." "1. What do Coulehan and Block define as "listening to the total communication . . . and letting the patient know that you are really hearing"? a. Cultural competence b. Patience c. Empathy d. Top-tier communication - CORRECT ANSWER c. Empathy" "1. What is the current mnemonic device for taking a health history? a. PQRST b. CLIENT OUTCOMES c. PRACTICE d. GOOD MEDICINE - CORRECT ANSWER b. CLIENT OUTCOMES" "1. When taking a PMI, which of the following is correct? a. Do not take the statement "I'm allergic to. . . " at face value. b. Ask the patient for a very brief summary of their current health. c. If a patient states that they have been vaccinated with BCG, make sure to administer a PPD test. d. CAM documentation is no longer a requirement. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Do not take the statement "I'm allergic to. . . " at face value." "A patient's recall of his or her current health needs and past health is subject to error and is also a critical component in the caregiving process? - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Ethnocentrism, belief in the superiority of one's own beliefs and values, is a major barrier to establishing effective patient-provider relationships? - CORRECT ANSWER True" "A 58-year-old man at risk of diabetes, with a sedentary lifestyle and unhealthy diet, is unwilling to follow his provider's recommendations to modify his routine. Because he has not yet experienced the negative health consequences of his actions, he cannot be classified as resistant? - CORRECT ANSWER False" "1. When taking a patient's chief complaint, rephrase the stated reason using standard medical terminology for clarity. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "1. A physician is listening to a patient's heart, but something has negatively impacted the sound. Which of the following has most likely caused this? a. Indirect rather than direct percussion b. A double-lumen stethoscope c. Lack of palpation d. Loose-fitting ear tips - CORRECT ANSWER d. Loose-fitting ear tips" "1. Which of the following is included on the list of basic equipment needed for a physical examination? a. Syringe b. Measuring tape c. Occult blood testing materials d. Culture media - CORRECT ANSWER b. Measuring tape" "1. Which part of the body of a neonate should be studied first? a. Abdomen b. Chest c. Hands and feet d. Head - CORRECT ANSWER d. Head" "1. Which of the following assessments is specific to the geriatric patient? a. Functional b. General c. Physical d. Developmental - CORRECT ANSWER a. Functional" "When the patient is already under the ongoing care of the clinician and presents with a specific problem-oriented complaint, the physician performs a focused physical examination. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Indirect percussion involves touch by instrument or object and requires no physical contact between the physician and patient. - CORRECT ANSWER False" "The physical exam begins as the patient enters the room. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "Jugular venous pressure is measured when the patient is reclining 45 degrees. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "The kidneys should be examined both while the patient is supine and while the patient is seated facing away from the examiner. - CORRECT ANSWER True" "What is a genogram? a. A genetic test performed in a doctor's office b. A visual