MQM 227 Exam 1 | Questions and Answers

MQM 227 Exam 1 | Questions and Answers The goods-services continuum consists of which set of the following categories? A. No goods, some goods, even mix, some service, no service B. Pure goods, core goods, core services, pure services c. No service, some service, good service, excellent service D. Self-service, help desk service, face-to-face service, service-with-a-smile E. None of these Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes services from goods? A. Service jobs are unskilled. B. A service is intangible. C. Services are perishable. D. Services are heterogeneous. E. None of these Which of the following are defined as core goods? A. Chemicals B. Airlines C. Data storage systems D. Hotels E. None of these Which of the following is not a way that operations and supply processes are categorized? A. Planning B. Return C. Delivery D. Selecting E. Making All other things remaining the same, if the sales revenue increases, asset turnover ratio will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Stay the same D. may increase or decrease E. there is no way to tell for sure Effectiveness means doing the right things to create the most value for the company. T or F True Automobiles and appliances are classified as "pure goods." T or F False One reason for studying operations and supply chain management (OSCM) is which of the following? A. OSCM is essential for understanding organizational behavior. B. Most business graduates do OSCM work regardless of their job title. C. All managers should understand the basic principles that guide the design of transformation processes. D. OSCM is a required course in all business degree programs. E. OSCM is the most rigorous business discipline. The correct order in the good-services continuum is A. pure services - core Services - core goods - pure goods B. pure goods - pure services - core services - core goods C. pure goods - pure services - core goods - core services D. pure goods - core goods - core services - pure services E. core goods - core services - pure goods - pure services Which of the following is not a major strategic operational competitive dimension that forms a company's competitive position? A. Cost or price B. Delivery speed C. Delivery reliability D. Management acumen E. Coping with changes in demand When a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful position while maintaining its existing position in offering customers a variety of differing services, what is this process called? A. Operations capability analysis B. Straddling C. Order qualifying D. Order winning E. Inter-functional analysis Which of the following is a partial measure of productivity? A. Output/Materials B. Output/(Labor + Capital + Energy) C. Output/All resources used D. Output/Inputs E. All of these Which of the following is a total measure of productivity? A. Output/Materials B. Output/(Labor + Capital + Energy) C. Output/Labor D. Output/Inputs E. All of these If all you knew about a production system was that total daily output was 400 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 400 units was 350 hours, and the total materials used were 425 units, what kind of productivity measure could you use to compute productivity? A. Partial measure B. Multifactor measure C. Total measure D. Partial measure and Multifactor measure E. Multifactor measure and Total measure The total output from a production system in one day is 900 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 900 units is 900 hours. Using the appropriate productivity measure, what is the resulting productivity ratio? A. 1.000 B. 1.428 C. 0.700 D. 0.411 E. None of these In a firm, if the employees attend a training program, then the time to assemble one unit reduces by 10%. Training program will A. increase the labor productivity only B. increase the multifactor productivity only C. increase both labor and multifactor productivity D. decrease capital productivity E. have no effect on productivity. In a firm, all other things remaining the same, if the material usage per unit of final product decreases to half of the current usage, then the firm will A. double the material productivity B. increase the multifactor productivity C. increase the multifactor productivity and double the material productivity D. decrease capital productivity E. have no effect on productivity. The ability to rapidly and inexpensively switch production from one product to another enables what are sometimes referred to as: A. Economies of scale B. Economies of size C. Economies of shape D. Economies of scope E. Economies of shipping Capacity planning involving acquisition or disposal of fixed assets such as buildings, equipment or facilities is considered as which one of the following planning horizons? A. Intermediate range B. Long range C. Short range D. Current E. Upcoming If the actual output of a piece of equipment during an hour is 500 units and its best operating level is at a rate of 400 units per hour, which of the following is the capacity utilization rate? A. 0.75 B. 1.00 C. 1.25 D. 1.33 E. 100 Capacity planning involving consideration of production scheduling and inventory position is characterized by which one of the following time durations? A. Intermediate range B. Long range C. Short range D. Current E. Upcoming If the best operating level of a piece of equipment is at a rate of 400 units per hour and the actual output during an hour is 300 units, which of the following is the capacity cushion? A. 25 percent B. 100 units per hour C. 75 percent D. 125 percent E. 133 percent Which of the following is not a typical phases of product development? A. Concept development B. Value engineering C. System-level design D. Testing and refinement E. Production/ramp-up Which of the following is a time-to-market performance measure used in judging product development performance? A. Frequency of new-product introductions B. Product reliability C. Customer loyalty D. Yield E. Value analysis The aim of quality function deployment (QFD) is: A. To facilitate house of quality analysis B. To provide value analysis/value engineering input C. To integrate design for manufacturing and assembly (DFMA) D. To facilitate better cooperation between business functions E. To get the voice of the customer into the design of a product Which of the following is not a typical phases of product development? A. Concept development B. Planning C. System-level design D. early market feedback E. Production/ramp-up Performance measures discussed for development projects does not include A. Frequency of new product introductions B. Yield C. Percentage sales coming from very old products D. Cost of materials and tooling E. conformance - reliability in use Which of the following is a characteristic of concurrent engineering? A. Integrated computer-assisted design B. Using automated guided vehicles C. Separate development teams working at once D. Having an excellent forecasting system E. The design-build-test cycle Design for manufacturing and assembly delivers product improvements by emphasizing which of the following? A. Reducing product quality during the assembly process B. Simplification of the product by reducing the number of separate parts C. Reducing equipment in the production process D. Designing products so they can be manufactured by a virtual factory E. Designing products that customers will want A reason that firms must develop more new products than ever is which of the following? A. Product life cycles are shorter B. Commitments to joint venture partners C. They are replacing old customers with new ones D. To amortize heavy investments in development labs E. The increased difficulty of defending patents and trade names Consumer electronics is an example of a product developed in which variant of the generic product development process? A. Technology-push products B. Customized products C. Platform products D. Quick-build products E. Process-intensive products Economic analysis of product development projects is useful in which of the following circumstances? A. Factory location B. Distribution decisions C. Go/no-go milestones