Phamacology exams

Which is the rationale for having drug standards?: Drugs differ in strength, quality, and purity. 2. In the PDR, referencing information about a cardiovascular medication would be found in the: Product Category Index. 3. Which section of the PDR would you use to find detailed information on a drug such as generic and brand or trade names, description, and clinical pharmacology?: Product Information 4. Which section of the PDR would you use to reference Tylenol?: Brand and Generic Name Index 5. In the following PDR entry: Lipitor (Pfizer) 328, 2483, the number 2483 refers to which section of the PDR?: Product Information 6. In the following PDR entry: Lipitor Tablets (Pfizer) 328,2483, the number 328 refers to which section of the PDR?: Product Identification Guide 7. Which law states that only drugs that meet official standards may be pre￾scribed and sold?: Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 8. Which law requires accurate labeling and warnings against unsafe use?: - Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 9. Which law identifies the drugs that are dangerous or subject to abuse?: - Controlled Substances Act of 1970 10. Which schedule of controlled substances contains drugs with the highest potential for abuse?: Schedule 1 11. Which of the following is an advantage of synthetically created drugs?: - They are less expensive. 12. Which chemical materials, through biotechnology and genetic engineer￾ing, are combined to make new drugs?: DNA 13. Before diagnostic iodine is administered, the patient should be asked if he or she is allergic to which of the following?: shellfish 14. Which term describes a drug's desired or predicted physiological re￾sponse?: therapeutic effect 15. Which of the following drug classifications would be prescribed for a patient in hospice care?: palliative drug 16. State and federal governments may require that customers be given which of the following types of drugs?: generic 17. Which term refers to a condition for which a drug should not be used?: - contraindication 18. The sale of over-the-counter products that contain pseudoephedrine and ephedrine is restricted by which act?: Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act 19. Prescription drugs are also referred to as: legend drugs. 1 / 8 Phamacology exams Study online at 20. Which drug schedule has no accepted medical use in the United States?- : Schedule I 21. Insulin acts on the body by: replacing natural substances that the body lacks. 22. Which term describes the type of drug interaction that occurs when hy￾drochlorothiazide and enalapril are taken concurrently?: synergism 23. Pain medications are prescribed for the: systemic effect they provide. 24. Bactrim is considered a long-lasting antibiotic for which reason?: Bactrim is absorbed very slowly. 25. What is the process in which enzymes break down a drug?: metabolism 26. Which are used to calculate proper adult dose?: age and body weight 27. Coumadin's effect on blood clotting is decreased when taking: green leafy vegetables. 28. An inactive substance that has no pharmacological effect but can make a patient feel better is called a: placebo. 29. Which is a side effect of aspirin therapy?: stomach irritation 30. When observing a patient's reaction to a drug that has been administered, determine whether you are seeing the drug's therapeutic effect or a: side effect. 31. What is the recommended treatment when a patient presents with an idiosyncratic response to a drug?: Stop medication. 32. Drugs such as opiates, nitrates, and barbiturates frequently produce?: tol￾erance 33. Patients who take sedatives are advised to avoid drinking alcohol to avoid the possibility of: potentiation. 34. The process whereby antacids and iron supplements work against the absorption of the antibiotic tetracycline is described as: antagonism. 35. Which statement describes how to multiply fractions?: Multiply numerator by numerator and denominator by denominator. 36. Which statement describes how to multiply a fraction by a whole number?- : Multiply the whole number by the numerator of the fraction. 37. Which statement describes how to cancel fractions?: Divide the denomina￾tor of one fraction and the numerator of the opposite fraction by the same number. 38. Which statement describes how to divide fractions?: Invert the divisor, then multiply the two fractions. 39. Which is the metric equivalent of the fraction 1/10?: 0.10 40. Which statement describes how to change a common fraction to a decimal fraction?: Divide the numerator by the denominator. 41. Which are used to record fractions of metric doses?: decimal fractions 42. Which is the correct metric weight for a person who weighs 125 lb?: 56.80 kg 2 / 8 Phamacology exams Study online at 43. Which is the correct equation for converting a Celsius temperature to the Fahrenheit scale?: ºF = 1.8ºC + 32 44. Which is the metric equivalent of 1 tablespoon (tbsp)?: 15 mL 45. Which is the correct way to calculate medication doses?: Round medica￾tions to the hundredth place. 46. Which describes a correct practice to follow when doing medication con￾versions?: Convert the larger unit to the smaller unit. 47. A child who is 40 kg would weigh how many pounds?: 88 48. Which is the temperature scale at which water freezes at 32º?: Fahrenheit 49. Which is the average normal body temperature range on the Celsius scale?: 36-38ºC 50. Which statement demonstrates the differences in procedure when with￾drawing medication from a vial as compared to an ampule?: It is necessary to remove air bubbles. 51. All of the following are routes to administer a parenteral medication ex￾cept: oral. 52. Which term describes how an insulin syringe is calibrated?: in units 53. The diameter of the lumen of the needle is called the: gauge. 54. A needle with a length of 1/4 -5/8 inches is most commonly used for which type of injection?: intradermal injection 55. Which gauge needle would be used to administer an aqueous medication?- : 22G 56. Which statement best describes the proper technique to use when with￾drawing a dose of medication from a vial?: Inject an amount of air equal to the amount of medication you are withdrawing. 57. The process of adding liquid to a medication that has been stored in powdered form is called: reconstitution. 58. Which statement describes how to mix different types of insulin in a syringe?: Withdraw the fast-acting type, then the long-acting. 59. The inner lower arm, upper chest, and back are sites that can be used when using the __________ route to administer an injection.: intradermal 60. Which gauge and length of the needle is used to perform an intradermal injection?: 25G-26G; 3/8-inch needle 61. What is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants and chil￾dren?: vastus lateralis muscle 62. What is the maximum amount of medication that can be administered using the deltoid muscle?: 1.0 mL 63. When administering an intramuscular injection, what is the correct needle angle?: 90º 3 / 8 Phamacology exams Study online at 64. The process of pulling back slightly on the plunger of a syringe while administering an injection is referred to as: aspirating. 65. A needle with a length of 1 to 1 1/2 inches would be used for which type of injection?: intramuscular injection 66. Unit-dose packaging is the safest and most convenient means of adminis￾tering medicines because: All answers are correct. 67. Which statement describes correct guidelines for setting up medications?- : All answers are correct. 68. Which route of medication administration is the most dangerous way to administer drugs?: IV 69. All of the following types of medications can be administered to alcoholics or diabetics except: elixirs 70. elixirs: tablets 71. The slowest way for a drug to reach the cells of the body is: orally. 72. Which statement is not true about sublingual medication administration?- : The patient should take the medication with food or drink. 73. Which term describes the method of applying a drug directly to the skin or mucous membrane, usually for a local effect?: topical 74. Which term describes the process of rinsing a part of the body cavity with water that contains drugs?: irrigation 75. The medication order "Give Tylenol 500 mg PO q 4 hrs for temperature of 101°F or above" is an example of a: standing order. 76. Which of the following abbreviations stands for before meals?: a.c. 77. Which of the following abbreviations means four times a day?: qid 78. How many times should a label be checked when administering a medica￾tion?: three times 79. Which item on a drug label will make it easier for a manufacturer to trace a problem to a particular batch, allowing for drug recall?: lot number 80. Which statement describes the proper way to chart medication administra￾tion?: Chart after you give the medication. 81. Which is a beneficial product created by bacteria that live in the in￾testines?: vitamins 82. Which makes the body immune to many infections?: antibodies 83. Which is an example of a local infection?: abscess 84. Polio and yellow fever are rare because of: immunization. 85. Which term refers to pathogen-free techniques used when caring for pa￾tients?: asepsis 86. Which term refers to round-shaped bacteria?: cocci 4 / 8 Phamacology exams Study online at 87. The method of stimulating the production of antibodies by exposing the body to weakened or killed germs is called: immunization. 88. An infection that occurs in a hospital or long-term care facility is a(n): nosocomial infection. 89. Performing hand hygiene through handwashing with soap and water or with an alcohol hand rub sterilizing equipment, changing bed linens frequently, using standard precaution when potentially coming into contact with bodily fluids, and placing patients with certain disease into isolation are all examples of: aseptic techniques. 90. Drugs that kill microorganisms directly are called: bacteriocidal. 91. A narrow-spectrum antibiotic is prescribed because: broad-spectrum antibiotics give more types of organisms a chance to develop resistance. 92. Which antibiotic is the most effective and least toxic?: penicillins 93. In patients taking penicillin, rash, fever, or chills may indicate: hypersensitivity. 94. Which should be avoided because they interact with cephalosporins and produce abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, decreased blood pressure, rapid pulse, and sweating?: alcohol or alcohol-containing medications 95. Which drug classification do Zithromax, Biaxin, and erythromycin belong?- : macrolides 96. Which of the following indications are Diflucan, Monistat, and Lotrimin used to treat?: Fungal infections 97. A machine which sterilizes medical equipment using steam under pressure is called a(n): autoclave. 98. Which of the following is the mechanism of action for miotics in constricting the pupil?: They contract the ciliary muscles. 99. Which drug or drug classification may cause ototoxicity as an adverse effect?: Aspirin 100. Which immunization may assist with preventing hearing problems?: - measlesCorrect 101. If a pregnant woman is exposed to rubella during the first 16 weeks of gestation, which condition may affect the fetus?: congenital deafness 102. To identify the causative organism of external otitis (otitis externa), which test would be performed?: culture and sensitivity 103. The function of cerumen in the ear is to: protect the ear from dust. 104. Bacterial, viral, or chlamydial microorganisms may cause: conjunctivitis. 105. Which condition is Tobramycin (Tobrex) indicated to treat?: eye infections 106. A drug indicated to dilate the pup