ISSA Final Exam All Units 100% Solved 2025 Edition Rated Grade A+

Question 1 Q: Muscular, cardiopulmonary, and metabolic adaptations to exercise are known as the training effect. • True Question 2 Q: The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant internal body environment through various processes is called: • Homeostasis Question 3 Q: BMR stands for: • Basal metabolic rate Question 4 Q: Anabolism and catabolism occur at the same time throughout the body. • True Question 5 Q: Which of the following statements is/are true? • A calorie is a unit of heat. • One Calorie is the energy required to raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius. • The preferred unit in metabolic studies and nutrition labels is the kilocalorie (kcal). • A and B (your answer) • A and C Question 6 Q: The primary (not the 'initial') fuel during endurance exercise is: • Fatty acids Question 7 Q: The molecule used for storing and transferring energy in the body is called: • Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) Question 8 Q: The ATP/CP pathway is the primary pathway used for activities lasting two minutes or greater. False Unit 2 Question 1 Q: About 98% of the human body is composed of only six elements: oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorous. • True Question 2 Q: The respiratory system is responsible for: • Supplying oxygen to the body • Eliminating carbon dioxide in the body • Helps regulate the body's pH balance • A, B, and C Question 3 Q: The circulatory system consists of: • Lungs, mouth, throat, trachea, and bronchi (your answer) • Mouth esophagus, stomach, and gallbladder • Heart, arteries, and veins • All of the above • None of the above Question 4 Q: The nervous system is made up of the: • Peripheral nervous system • Central nervous system • Proximal nervous system • A and B • A and C Question 5 Q: Excretion is one function of the digestive system. • True • False Question 6 Q: Hormones are classified as: • Steroids • Amino acid derivatives • Peptides • All of the above • None of the above Question 7 Q: Hemoglobin is an oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells. • True • False Question 8 Q: The main purpose(s) of hormones is/are to: • Alter the rate of synthesis of your cellular protein • Change the rate of enzyme activity (your answer) • Change the rate of transport of nutrients through the cell wall • All of the above None of the above Unit 3 Musculoskeletal Anatomy and Physiology Question 1 Q: Tendons connect bone to bone. • True (your answer) • False Question 2 Q: The average human adult skeleton has: • 80 bones • 126 bones • 206 bones • Over 400 bones • None of the above Question 3 Q: Tendons: • Are extensions of muscle fibers • Connect bone to bone • Connect muscle to bone • A and B • A and C Question 4 Q: The anatomical terms for front and back are: • Superior and inferior • Proximal and distal • Anterior and posterior • Lateral and medial • None of the above Question 5 Q: Type I muscle fibers are predominantly aerobic. • True • False (your answer) Question 6 Q: Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise results in: • Contractile protein adaptation • Mitochondrial adaptations • Nuclei capacity adaptations • All of the above • B and C (your answer) Question 7 Q: Type II muscle fibers are entirely aerobic. • True • False Question 8 Q: Muscular hypertrophy is a(n): • Increase in muscle fiber size • Decrease in muscle fiber size (your answer) • Increase in the number of muscle fibers • Decrease in the number of muscle fibers None of the above Unit 4 Kinesiology of Exercise Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: In a concentric contraction, the muscle lengthens to produce movements. • True • False Question 2 Q: Kinesiology is: • The science or study of human movement, and the active and passive structures involved • The science of the morphology or structure of organisms • The science concerned with the normal vital processes of animal and vegetable organisms • The science with the action of forces---internal and external---on the living body • None of the above Question 3 Q: An isometric contraction is when: • A muscle shortens as it contracts • A muscle lengthens as it contracts • A muscle does not lengthen or shorten as it contracts • A movement is performed using a single, isolated muscle Question 4 Q: True synergy occurs when a muscle contracts to stop the secondary action of another muscle. • True • False Question 5 Q: An example of an antagonist muscle is: • Biceps during the biceps curl • Internal and external obliques during a crunch • Triceps during a biceps curl • Pronator teres during pronation • None of the above Question 6 Q: Adduction is movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. • True • False Question 7 Q: An example of flexion is the: • Concentric action of a bicep curl • Eccentric action of a bicep curl • Lateral movement of a jumping jack • Medial movement of a jumping jack • None of the above Question 8 Q: Flexion mainly occurs in which plane? • Frontal plane • Sagittal plane • Orbital plane • Transverse plane None of the above Unit 5 Unit 5: Biomechanics of Exercise Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Newton's second law of motion deals with force and its relationship to mass and acceleration. • True • False Question 2 Q: Biomechanics is the study of: • Body structure • How our body functions • Movement • The normal vital process of organisms • None of the above Question 3 Q: Muscular force is broken down into the components of: • Magnitude • Direction • Point of application • Line of action • All of the above Question 4 Q: Inertia can be categorized as: • Resting inertia • Moving inertia • Dynamic inertia • A and B • A and C Question 5 Q: A first-class lever is similar to a seesaw. • True • False Question 6 Q: The ability to perceive your position and movement of the body or limbs in space is known as: • Tonus • Perception • Kinesthesis • Hand-eye coordination • None of the above Question 7 Q: A second-class lever is similar to a wheelbarrow. • True • False Question 8 Q: The faster the work is done during a movement, the lesser the amount of power. • True False Unit 6 Unit 6: Musculoskeletal Deviations Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Posture is solely viewed in static positions, such as sitting, standing, or lying down. • True • False Question 2 Q: "Flatback" can be identified by a: • Anterior pelvic tilt • Posterior pelvic tilt • Lateral pelvic tilt • Lateral curvature of the spine • None of the above Question 3 Q: Excessive lateral curvature of the spinal column is known as: • Lordosis • Kyphosis • Scoliosis • Spondylosis • None of the above Question 4 Q: Kyphosis is an exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column. • True • False Question 5 Q: When the superior iliac crest of the pelvis moves forward and downward from the normal anatomical position, it is known as: • Lordosis • Kyphosis • Scoliosis • Spondylosis • None of the above Question 6 Q: Intradiscal pressure is up to 11 times greater when seated versus lying down. • True • False Question 7 Q: Exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column is known as: • Lordosis • Kyphosis • Scoliosis • Spondylosis • None of the above Question 8 Q: Even though sitting can be unavoidable for many people, it is best to limit time spent sitting as much as possible, and design your workplace according to correct ergonomics. • True False Unit 7 Unit 7: Muscle Mechanics Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: The major movements that are possible at the knee joint are adduction and abduction. • True • False Question 2 Q: The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle? • Soleus • Hamstrings • Quadriceps • Gluteus • Tensor fasciae latae Question 3 Q: The semimembranosus and semitendinosus attach on what side of the knee? • Lateral • Medial • Anterior • Posterior • None of the above Question 4 Q: The ankle joint is made up of which bone(s)? • Tibia • Talus • Femur • A and B • B and C Question 5 Q: The hamstring muscles are a two-joint muscle that acts at the knee and hip. • True • False Question 6 Q: What muscle is located directly beneath the gastrocnemius and has similar functions to the gastrocnemius? • Anterior tibialis • Extensor digitorum longus • Extensor brevis • Soleus • Posterior tibialis Question 7 Q: The wrist joint consists of the ends of the radius and ulna bones of the forearm with the carpal bones of the hand. • True • False Question 8 Q: The shoulder girdle is made up of the clavicle and what other bone? • Humerus • Sternum • Scapula • Femur Ulna Unit 8 Unit 8: Strength Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: A pronated grip would be palms up. • True • False Question 2 Q: Which of the following is a major factor that affects strength? • Structural • Physiological • Psychoneural • Environmental • All of the above Question 3 Q: The angle of Q represents: • Acceleration • Starting strength • Explosive strength • Limit strength • None of the above Question 4 Q: What is a basic grip used in weight training? • Supinated • Pronated • Neutral • All of the above Question 5 Q: A supinated grip would be palms down. • True • False Question 6 Q: Dumbbells are an example of what type of training equipment? • Constant resistance device • Variable resistance device • Accommodating resistance device • Static resistance device • None of the above Question 7 Q: A neutral grip would be thumbs up. • True • False Question 8 Q: New trainees should through the sticking point and during the less strenuous portion of the lifts. • Inhale, exhale • Exhale, inhale • Hold their breath, exhale • Inhale, hold their breath None of the above Unit 9 Quiz 9 - Unit 9: Cardiovascular Training Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Aerobic means "in the presence of oxygen." • True • False Question 2 Q: Maximum oxygen consumption is also known as: • MET max • VO2 max • Aerobic training threshold • One-repetition maximum (1RM) • None of the above Question 3 Q: Maximal heart rate is estimated by subtracting your age from: • 180 • 200 • 220 • 100 • None of the above Question 4 Q: For aerobic training, ISSA recommends that individuals train at what percentage of the maximum heart rate? • 80% to 100% • 50% to 70% • 55% to 85% • 40% to 70% • None of the above Question 5 Q: A watt is a measure of power involving a known force, distance, and time frame. • True • False Question 6 Q: A unit of measurement that refers to the relative energy demands of an activity in comparison to your energy demands in a resting state is known as a: • Watt • Calorie • BMR • MET • None of the above Question 7 Q: Anaerobic means "in the presence of oxygen." • True • False Question 8 Q: Using several modes of training to develop a specific component of fitness is known as: • High-altitude training • High-intensity interval training • Peripheral heart action training • Cross-training None of the above Unit 10 Unit 10: Flexibility Training Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Flexibility is the ability to flex, extend, or circumduct the joints through their full intended range of motion. • True • False Question 2 Q: The Golgi tendon organ, the muscle spindle, and the Pacinian corpuscle make up the three primary: • Inhibitory proprioceptors • Static receptors • Regulatory proprioceptors • Static proprioceptors • Functional receptors Question 3 Q: Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers called: • Tropin and tropomyosin • Actin and tropomyosin • Tropin and myosin • Actin and myosin • Tropoactin and tropomyosin Question 4 Q: Joint range of motion can be assessed with: • Goniometer • Sit and reach test • Shoulder flexibility test • Trunk extension test • All of the above Question 5 Q: The muscle spindle detects excessive stretch within the muscle. • True • False Question 6 Q: If your goal is to improve range of motion, stretch to the point: • Just short of discomfort • Of extreme discomfort • Of mild or moderate discomfort • Of slight discomfort • None of the above Question 7 Q: Which of the following is a benefit of a proper warm up and dynamic stretch prior to exercise? • Improved metabolic adjustment to heavy work • Greater strength/power output • Increased muscle temperature • Increased velocity of nerve conduction • All of the above Question 8 Q: This type of stretching facilitates an increase in muscle length through a maximum isometric contraction of the antagonist: • Static stretching • Fascial stretching • Contract-relax (CR) method • Dynamic stretching Contract antagonist-relax (CA) method Unit 11 Unit 11: Body Composition Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Endomorphs are slim body types. • True • False Question 2 Q: Ectomorphs are classified as: • Muscular body types • Slim or linear body types • Round types • None of the above Question 3 Q: Body mass index (BMI) is used to assess: • overall body composition • body fat percentage • fitness level • relative weight to height ratio and as a predictor of future disease risk • none of the above Question 4 Q: Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is one method to determine body composition. • True • False Question 5 Q: The body is composed of lean body mass (LBM) and body fat. • True • False Question 6 Q: All of the following are methods to assess body composition except: • DEXA • Body mass index (BMI) • Skinfold thickness • Hydrostatic weighing • Bioelectrical impedance (BIA) Question 7 Q: When taking skinfold measurement readings, only one attempt per site is recommended for an accurate reading. • True • False Question 8 Q: The somatotype system classifies the human body into how many categories? • 1 • 2 • 3 • 4 None of the above Unit 12 Drawing-In Phase Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Oct 15 2018 and you answered 7 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: As future ISSA professionals, we must first seek to understand our clients before we make recommendations. • True • False Question 2 Q: The ISSA drawing-in phase is a process which: • Insures a high level of client motivation • Distinguishes you as a professional • Has five stages • All of the above • A and C Question 3 Q: Stage One of the ISSA drawing-in phase is: • Data collection • Establishing an integrated training process (your answer) • Establishing yourself as a professional • Guided discovery tour • Feeling the water before jumping in Question 4 Q: Stage Two of the ISSA drawing-in phase is: • Data collection • Establishing an integrated training process • Establishing yourself as a professional • Guided discovery tour • Feeling the water before jumping in Question 5 Q: Client rapport is a key characteristic in establishing a relationship with your clients. • True • False Question 6 Q: Stage Three of the ISSA drawing-in phase is: • Data collection • Establishing an integrated training process • Establishing yourself as a professional • Guided discovery tour • Feeling the water before jumping in Question 7 Q: Motive is defined as an impulse or physiological need acting as incitement to action. • True • False Question 8 Q: A trainer should facilitate learning by using which sensory channel(s)? • Visual • Auditory • Kinesthetic • All of the above A and B Unit 13: Basic Assessment of Training Participants Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Blood pressure is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. • True • False Question 2 Q: GXT is an acronym for: • Good exercise time • Gradual exercise test • Graded exercise test • Guaranteed exercise time • None of the above Question 3 Q: According to the ISSA and the ACSM, exercise intensity should be at what percentage of your VO2 max in order to maintain an adequate level of cardiorespiratory fitness? • 20% to 60% • 10% to 50% • 55% to 85% • 75% to 100% Question 4 Q: Using the Karvonen method and an exercise intensity of 55% will determine the heart rate corresponding to what percentage of VO2 max? • 55% • 60% • 80% • 85% • None of the above Question 5 Q: The ISSA recommends that the intensity level of exercise be 85% to 95% of VO2 max. • True • False Question 6 Q: Muscular endurance can be assessed by which of the following method(s)? • Push-up test • Sit-up test • Upper body test • Lower body test • A and B Question 7 Q: The resting level of oxygen consumption is referred to as 1.0 MET. • True • False Question 8 Q: According to the Push-up Norms chart, what is the rating of a 38-year-old male that can perform 24 push-ups? • Excellent • Good • Fair • Poor None of the above Unit 14: Training Principles Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 4 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: The principle of individual differences states that the rate and magnitude of adaptations to training will be limited by our differing genetics. • True • False Question 2 Q: Which principle states that in order for gains to continue, the intensity of the stress imposed must be progressively increased? • SAID principle • Principle of individual differences • Overload principle • Specificity principle • GAS principle Question 3 Q: Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: the "alarm stage," the "resistance stage," and the "exhaustion stage?" • SAID principle • Principle of individual differences • Overload principle • Specificity principle • GAS principle Question 4 Q: Which principle states that our bodies will physiologically adapt according to whether we are training aerobically or anaerobically? • SAID principle • Principle of individual differences • Overload principle • Specificity principle • GAS principle (your answer) Question 5 Q: The specificity principle states that we must move from general training to specific and highly specialized training as it relates to our intended goals. • True • False Question 6 Q: HIT is an acronym for: • Hard interval training • Healthy integrated training (your answer) • High intensity training • Humanly impossible training • Hyper-integrated technique Question 7 Q: "FITT," in terms of the FITT principle, stands for fully integrated training technique. • True (your answer) • False Question 8 Q: The principles to help you plan your training cycle, arrange your exercises in each workout, and perform each exercise are known as the: • Hatfield principles (your answer) • Kazmeyer principles • Weider principles • Platz principles None of the above Unit 15: Periodization Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Periodization refers to how a training program is broken down into discreet time periods called macrocycles, mesocycles, and microcycles. • True • False Question 2 Q: The ISSA recommends that an individual performs single-joint movements before multiple-joint movements. • True • False Question 3 Q: What are the three predictable stages of stress in the GAS principle? • Alarm, excitement, and fight • Shock, compensation, and exhaustion • Anticipation, excitement, and exhaustion • Alarm, fight, and flight • None of the above Question 4 Q: The two most common physiological markers of overtraining are sympathetic overtraining and parasympathetic overtraining. • True • False Question 5 Q: Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining? • Decrease in performance • Increase in body weight • Chronic fatigue • All of the above • A and C Question 6 Q: DOMS stands for: • Deadlifts on a machine seated • Delayed onset muscle soreness • Double-leg machine squats • Downward oblique muscle striation • None of the above Question 7 Q: The connective tissue damage hypothesis is one of three leading hypothesis of DOMS. • True • False Question 8 Q: Which of the following is one way to avoid overtraining? • Little to no movement between sets • Decreasing your rest time between workouts • Varying your training method using periodization Increasing exercise intensity Unit 16: Determining Training Loads Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Maximum power will occur somewhere between 55% and 85% of 1RM. • True • False Question 2 Q: If you can perform a maximum of eight repetitions using a certain weight, then that weight is approximately what percentage of your one-repetition max? • 55% • 75% • 80% • 100% • None of the above Question 3 Q: High repetition resistance training (of 15 or more repetitions): • Does not innervate high threshold motor units • Innervates high threshold motor units • Limits the potential for hypertrophy for type II muscle fibers • A and C • B and C Question 4 Q: Why do new trainees typically experience a higher rate of strength gains? • Neural adaptations • Increased protein intake • Overtraining • Excess body fat • None of the above Question 5 Q: Training, using roughly 6 to 12 repetitions, is most effective for achieving muscular hypertrophy. • True • False Question 6 Q: How much rest time is required/recommended between sets (three sets of 8 to 10 at 75% of the 1RM) to maximize serum testosterone levels and growth hormone levels? • 10 seconds • No more than 30 second • No more than one minute • No more than two minutes • Time does not matter Question 7 Q: Training at 55% to 65% of 1RM is most effective for muscular endurance. • True • False Question 8 Q: Which principle states that motor units are recruited in order according to their recruitment thresholds and firing rates? • Size principle • FITT principle • HITT principle • Use/disuse principle None of the above Unit 17: The Big Picture of Nutrition Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Good nutrition should be more theoretical and not based on outcomes. • True • False Question 2 Q: Which of the following food(s) has the highest nutrient density? • Lean beef • Spinach • Soda • Low fat milk • None of the above Question 3 Q: Which of the following is a common limiting factor when it comes to achieving fitness-related goals? • Genetics • Exercise • Mindset • Nutrition • All of the above Question 4 Q: What is the best and most effective diet for every individual? • Paleo • Low carb diet • Intermittent fasting • Atkins • None of the above Question 5 Q: Which factor(s) should you take into account when deciding on a nutrition strategy? • Life demands • Work situation • Physical activity • Culture • All of the above Question 6 Q: Which of the following food labels does not actually tell you much about the food itself? • "organic" • "free-range" • "fair-trade certified" • "certified organic" • none of the above Question 7 Q: The body cannot function properly without an adequate presence of key vitamins and minerals. • True • False Question 8 Q: If a food is labeled "organic," it is always safe to assume that the food is healthy, nourishing, and not processed. • True False Unit 18: Nutritional Physiology Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Which of the following represents a "role" that the liver plays in the body? • Helps control blood pressure • Extracts waste from blood • Synthesizes protein from amino acids ingested through food • Removes carbon dioxide (CO2) from the body • None of the above Question 2 Q: Glucose can be: • Used for ATP production • Stored as muscle glycogen • Excreted to lower pH balance • A and B • None of the above Question 3 Q: Some of the energy in macronutrients are lost through the digestive process. • True • False Question 4 Q: Which of the following is an "issue" with the caloric values contained on food labels? • Cost of the food • Preparation/method of cooking • Does not specify the type of protein • None of the above • All the above Question 5 Q: Which of the following is not a metabolic pathway involving carbohydrates? • Gluconeogenesis • Glyconolisthesis • Glycogenolysis • Glycolysis • None of the above Question 6 Q: A summation of all things your body does both actively and passively to burn calories in a 24 hour period is called: • Resting Metabolic Rate • Total daily energy expenditure • Basal metabolic rate • Metabolic set point • A and B Question 7 Q: Which factor(s) affects energy balance? • Food intake • Exercise activity • Genetic factors • All of the above • None of the above Question 8 Q: When caloric intake is lower than the amount needed to maintain normal function, RMR increases. • True False Unit 19: Nutritional Science Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Which of the following is not a form of carbohydrates found in the diet? • Sugar • Insulin • Starch • Dietary fiber • All of the above Question 2 Q: Animal-based fats contain a higher ratio of unsaturated fats than plant-based oils. • True • False Question 3 Q: Which of the following chemical component(s) does protein contain that is not found in carbohydrates or fats? • Carbon • Hydrogen • Oxygen • Nitrogen • None of the above Question 4 Q: What is the recommended minimum protein intake for sedentary, generally healthy individuals? • 0.8g per pound of body mass • 1g per pound of body mass • 0.8g per kilogram of body mass • 1g per kilogram of body mass • None of the above Question 5 Q: Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient? • Carbohydrates • Insoluble fiber • Vitamin C • Omega 3 • None of the above Question 6 Q: While having too little water relative to other solutes is bad, having too much water can also have severe consequences. • True • False Question 7 Q: For most people, drinking approximately two liters of water per day is sufficient. • True • False Question 8 Q: Fish oil is rich in: • DHA • EPA • Omega-36 • A and B All of the above Unit 20: Nutritional Coaching Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Which of the following is not an appropriate characteristic of a goal? • Goals are specific and measurable • Goals have a timeline • Goals are unrealistic • Goals are written down • None of the above Question 2 Q: Limiting factors are the choices an individual makes that prevent him/her from reaching goals. • True • False Question 3 Q: For men, what is the average portion size of protein dense foods with each meal? • Half a portion • Two portions • One palm portion • Two palm portions • None of the above Question 4 Q: Outcome goals are the steps that you must take to accomplish your behavior goal. • True • False Question 5 Q: Which of the following is not a common limiting factor regarding nutrition? • Sugar-sweetened beverages • Lack of sleep and recovery • Cost of food • Not eating satisfying meals • None of the above Question 6 Q: Calorie counting is a foolproof method to accurately determine your dietary needs. • True • False Question 7 Q: For women, what is the average portion size of protein-dense foods with each meal? • Half a portion • Two portions • One palm portion • Two palm portions • None of the above Question 8 Q: An advanced nutrition technique is to eat according to your body type. • True False Unit 21: Exercise and Older Adults Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: The past surgeon general has estimated that close to what percent of our most dreaded diseases could be prevented with lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise? • 50% • 100% • 85% • 75% • None of the above Question 2 Q: Most older adults fear losing their independence more than they fear death. • True • False Question 3 Q: While exercise may be an option of the young, it is imperative for older adults. • True • False Question 4 Q: Dr. DeVries of USC has shown that men and women in their 70s and 80s can achieve levels of vigor associated with people: • 5 years younger • 10 years younger • 20 years younger • 25 years younger • 30 years younger Question 5 Q: What is the approximate guideline duration of a workout program for an older adult? • 40 minutes total (20 minutes CV, 20 minutes of resistance training) • 50 minutes total (20 minutes CV, 30 minutes of resistance training) • 60 minutes total (30 minutes CV, 30 minutes of resistance training) • 70 minutes total (40 minutes CV, 30 minutes of resistance training) • None of the above Question 6 Q: What are the recommended strength program guidelines for an older adult? • Low intensity with low repetitions • Low to moderate intensity with high repetitions • Low to moderate intensity with low repetitions • Low intensity with high repetitions • Moderate intensity with high repetitions Question 7 Q: How frequent should an older adult be trained in conjunction with a cardiovascular program? • Once per week • 2-3 times per week • 3-4 times per week • 4-5 times per week • Every day Question 8 Q: Medical doctors may perform what assessment(s) on older adults before clearing them for exercise? • EKG • Blood panel • Neurological assessment • All of the above A and B Unit 22: Exercise and Adaptive Fitness Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 5 out of 5 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: The goal of an adaptive fitness session for a client with a disability is improved fitness, mobility, and self-efficacy. • True • False Question 2 Q: Which component(s) should be addressed in a sound APF program? • Balance • Flexibility • Power • A and B • A, B, and C Question 3 Q: The role of an exercise intervention for chronic conditions in adaptive fitness is to increase without exacerbating existing conditions. • Inflammation • Functional fitness • Limit strength • PES • None of the above Question 4 Q: The goal of an adaptive fitness session for a client with a disability is improved , , and . • Fitness, intelligence, communication • Fitness, mobility, self-efficacy • Running, jumping, strength • Communication, self-efficacy, self-worth • None of the above Question 5 Q: What is generally defined as anything that prevents the attainment of one's goals? • Disability • Handicap • Impairment • All the above None of the above Unit 23: Exercise and Our Youth Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Children should be trained like adults. • True • False Question 2 Q: Children are natural markets for personal trainers. • True • False Question 3 Q: Obesity does not affect our children. • True • False Question 4 Q: Neurological factors as opposed to hypertrophic factors are primarily responsible for strength gains in children. • True • False Question 5 Q: Children ages 5-12: • Have a lower tolerance to the demands of exercise • Should not perform high-resistance exercises • Need repetitions of 10-15 at all times • All of the above • B and C Question 6 Q: How frequently should a youth work out? • Once per week • 2-3 times per week • 3-4 times per week • At least 5 days per week • Every other day regardless of the workout Question 7 Q: How many days of rest does a youth need between workouts? • No days • 1-2 days • 2-3 days • 3-4 days • At least 5 days Question 8 Q: Children are: • Not miniature adults • Susceptible to heat exhaustion and heat stroke • More susceptible to cold injury • Particularly vulnerable to Osgood Schlatter's disease All of the above Unit 24: Exercise and Hypertension Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Hypertension is the medical condition of a chronically elevated level of arterial blood pressure. • True • False Question 2 Q: Smoking has no effect on hypertension. • True • False Question 3 Q: Maintaining an appropriate bodyweight can help prevent hypertension. • True • False Question 4 Q: Hypertensive individuals should be encouraged to exercise at least times per week. • One • Two • Three • Four • None of the above Question 5 Q: Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of ? • Fruit • Salt • Nuts • Water • None of the above Question 6 Q: Statistics indicate that an estimated Americans suffer from a chronically elevated level of arterial blood pressure, a medical condition known as hypertension. • 300,000 • 60,000,000 • 1,000,000 • 5,500,000 • None of the above Question 7 Q: The recommended RPE range for individuals with hypertension would be to . • 6 to 7 • 10 to 13 • 5 to 8 • 12 to 13 • None of the above Question 8 Q: Regular exercise can have a positive effect on both preventing and treating chronic high blood pressure. • True False Unit 25: Exercise and Diabetes Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 8 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: The body of a diabetic does not produce enough insulin or it cannot properly use the insulin it does make. • True • False Question 2 Q: Type II diabetes is known as insulin-dependent diabetes. • True • False Question 3 Q: Type I diabetes is known as non-insulin dependent diabetes. • True • False Question 4 Q: Type II diabetes is known as non-insulin dependent diabetes. • True • False Question 5 Q: Exercise: • Lowers blood sugar levels • Strengthens your heart • Improves circulation • Reduces Stress • All the above Question 6 Q: Diabetics should be instructed to always carry a form of fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., juice, soft drinks, etc.) in case of a hypoglycemic emergency. • True • False Question 7 Q: Diabetes increases your likelihood of suffering from: • Heart disease • Stroke • Gangrene • Kidney disease • All of the above Question 8 Q: How many Americans die annually from diabetes and its complications? • Over a million • More than 500,000 • More than 150,000 • More than 100,000 None of the above CFT Quiz 26 - Unit 26: Exercise and Arthritis Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 7 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Arthritis refers to a disease that causes pain or stiffness in skeletal joints. • True • False Question 2 Q Heredity is one potential cause of arthritis. • True • False Question 3 Q: Osteoarthritis is an age-related condition. • True • False Question 4 Q: Swelling in one or more joints is one warning sign of arthritis. • True • False Question 5 Q: A disease, which causes pain or stiffness in your skeletal joints, is referred to as . • Arthritis • Inflammation • Cancer • Diabetes • None of the above Question 6 Q: One major component of an exercise program for arthritis sufferers is . • Powerlifting • Aerobic • Nutrition • Meditation • None of the above (your answer) Question 7 Q: Individuals with arthritis should exercise at least times per day? • 1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • None of the above Question 8 Q: One of the seven major warning signals for arthritis is ? • Redness in the eyes • Dry mouth • Pus • Lock jaw None of the above Unit 27: Exercise and Coronary Heart Disease Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 6 out of 7 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Cigarette smoking does not affect coronary heart disease. • True • False Question 2 Q: Age and family history are confirmed risk factors for coronary heart disease. • True • False Question 3 Q: Age has no relevance to CHD. • True • False Question 4 Q: The most serious form of heart disease is coronary heart disease. • True • False Question 5 Q: Research has shown that the predominate contributing factor(s) to heart disease is: • Too much saturated fat • Too much alcohol • Too much smoking • Not enough exercise • All of the above Question 6 Q: High HDL cholesterol increases risk of coronary heart disease. • True (your answer) • False Question 7 Q: Research has shown that the beneficial effect(s) of exercise for hypertensives: • Lower blood pressure • Normalize kidney function • Decrease insulin secretion • Increase in high density lipoprotein cholesterol All of the above Unit 28: Exercise and Pregnancy Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 5 out of 7 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Sensible exercise can be a safe and productive undertaking for both a pregnant woman and her fetus. • True • False Question 2 Q: If a pregnant woman did not exercise prior to pregnancy, then it's important to increase weight-bearing activities to lower the risk of injury. • True • False Question 3 Q: Excessive fatigue, palpitations, and chest pain are reasons to discontinue exercise for a pregnant woman. • True • False Question 4 Q: Pregnant women should avoid prolonged bouts of exercise in what position? • Prone • Supine • Standing • Sitting • None of the above (your answer) Question 5 Q: Pregnant women should avoid exercising over minutes. • 30 • 45 • 60 • 90 • None of the above Question 6 Q: Pregnant women should avoid wearing which type of clothing? • Shorts • Clothes impermeable to water • Leotards • Clothes permeable to water • None of the above (your answer) Question 7 Q: Reasons for stopping an exercise routine for a pregnant woman includes which of the following? • Dizziness • Severe headaches • Excessive fatigue • All of the above A and C Unit 29: Exercise and Asthma Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Dec 04 2018 and you answered 7 out of 8 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: The primary method for controlling asthma involves taking drugs: inhaled and oral. • True • False Question 2 Q: Asthma sufferers should medicate 30 minutes prior to exercise. • True • False Question 3 Q: Asthma is a term derived from the Greek word that means "to pant." • True • False Question 4 Q: How many Americans are afflicted by asthma? • 500,000 • 1,000,000 • 25,000,000 • More than 50,000,000 • None of the above Question 5 Q: What triggers asthma? • Respiratory infection • Exercise • Sudden changes in either humidity or temperature • Air pollution • All of the above Question 6 Q: In order to help strengthen their lungs, asthmatics should: • Perform specific breathing exercises • Train at an increased intensity • Breathe through the mouth • Spend 5-10 minutes daily in a sauna • All of the above (your answer) Question 7 Q: At some time in their life, at least what percent of all Americans will experience the symptoms of asthma? • 2% • 5% • 10% • 20% • None of the above Question 8 Q: Asthma suffers should do what while exercising? • Breathe through the nose • Control breathing rate • Keep inhaler close by • Avoid very intense exercise All of the above Unit 30: Sports Medicine in the Trenches Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Jan 07 2019 and you answered 7 out of 7 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: Sports medicine is concerned with the diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, and prevention of athletic injuries, as well as dealing with the enhancement of athletic performance. • True • False Question 2 Q: Sports medicine is restricted only to the medical field. • True • False Question 3 Q: Sports medicine also involves athletic trainers, coaches, and personal trainers. • True • False Question 4 Q: Normal oral temperature ranges between degrees Fahrenheit. • 96.8 and 99.3 • 102.3 and 103.6 • 68.1 and 75.9 • 90 and 96.8 • All of the above Question 5 Q: What is cryotherapy? • The thermogenic effect of cold water • Massage technique utilizing electrostimulation • The application of heat to body tissues • The application of cold to body tissues • None of the above Question 6 Q: To reduce inflammation in the back, ice should be applied for at least minutes. • 30 • 15 • 45 • 60 • None of the above Question 7 Q: Improper biomechanical motion between two vertebrae is best referred to as: • Subluxation • Vertebral stiffness • Spinal stenosis • Spine freeze None of the above Unit 31: Basic First Aid Quiz Results This quiz was completed on Jan 07 2019 and you answered 7 out of 7 questions correctly. Question 1 Q: CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. • True • False Question 2 Q: The RICE principle helps reduce pain and inflammation. • True • False Question 3 Q: The "A" of the primary survey stands for "airway." • True • False Question 4 Q: RICE stands for rest, ice, compression, and elevation. • True • False Question 5 Q: The very first thing one should do in an emergency situation is: • Open the victim's airway and begin CPR • Assess the scene to ensure safety • Call for emergency medical services • Determine if the victim has life threatening conditions • None of the above Question 6 Q: Signs and symptoms of a stroke can include: • Difficulty speaking • Weakness and numbness, often on one side of the body • Loss of bowel control • All of the above • A and B Question 7 Q: The Good Samaritan Law states that the helping person cannot be sued for additional injuries caused during a rescue attempt even if it is less than perfect. • True False