AIC Exam exam with 100- correct answers 2024

. What percentage of conversations do listeners remember of what they hear? A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 90% - ANSWER-10% What percentage of conversations do speakers remember of what they say and do? A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 90% - ANSWER-90% When giving presentations, people should do which of the following? A. present extra information beyond their primary goal to demonstrate their expertise B. speak quickly to get in as much information as possible C. speak as loudly as possible to ensure they can be heard D. keep the conversation short and on topic - ANSWER-keep the conversation short and on topic Which of the following should people do to effectively listen? A. keep their mobile phone volume up so they do not miss a phone call B. listen objectively with the intent to understand the speaker's perspective C. ask questions as they think of them so they don't forget to ask them later D. avoid eye contact with the speaker - ANSWER-listen objectively with the intent to understand the speaker's perspective Which of the following statements is true about texting and a subcontractor change order? A. It is a good practice to text authorization of a change order to your subcontractors as long as you are sure they have a smartphone. B. It is a good practice for your subcontractors to text you an RFI before proceeding with a change order request. C. Texting your subcontractor that a change order is coming later in the day is a good practice. D. Texting contract amendments is a good practice because it saves time and saves the changes in the cloud. - ANSWER-Texting your subcontractor that a change order is coming later in the day is a good practice. What does RFI stand for? A. right for inclusion B. response from institute C. request for information D. regular foam insulation - ANSWER-request for information An owner-initiated change order should include which of the following? A. expected duration of individual activities described in the change order B. potential future cost impact of the change C. reference to contract documents describing the change in detail D. subcontractors to be used to complete the change - ANSWER-reference to contract documents describing the change in detail A job diary should be maintained by whom? A. superintendent B. foreman C. project manager D. all memmbers of the project management team - ANSWER-all memmbers of the project management team If a job has more than one shift, how often should a daily report be completed? A. once a day B. each shift C. twice a day D. once a week - ANSWER-each shift Daily reports are primarily created by whom? A. field laborers B. project manager C. superintendent D. estimator - ANSWER-superintendent Meeting agendas should be distributed______________. A. at least one day prior to the meeting B. at the beginning of the meeting C. about one day after the meeting D. any time during the project - ANSWER-at least one day prior to the meeting Meeting minutes should be distributed____________. A. about one day prior to the meeting B. at the beginning of the meeting C. about one day after the meeting D. any time during the project - ANSWER-about one day after the meeting Which of the following types of meetings is typically held at regular weekly or biweekly intervals throughout the project? A. preconstruction meetings B. progress meetings C. postconstruction meetings D. coordination meetings - ANSWER-progress meetings Which material is prone to fire damage and deterioration by moisture and insects? A. concrete B. masonry C. wood D. steel - ANSWER-wood Concrete is strongest in_________. A. compressive strength B. tensile strength C. shear strength D. fluid strength - ANSWER-compressive strength Which of the following is a type of aggregate? A. gravel B. topsoil C. water D. cement - ANSWER-gravel Approximately what percentage (by volume) does aggregate make up in generalpurpose concrete? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 90% - ANSWER-75% What does a sieve size of No. 4 mean? A. The sieve has 4-in. openings. B. The sieve has four openings per square inch. C. The sieve has four openings per linear inch. D. The sieve has four openings per square foot. - ANSWER-The sieve has four openings per linear inch. Which panel wood product is made up of thin layers of wood veneers adhered together in alternating directions? A. plywood B. oriented strand board (OSB) C. particle board D. medium-density fiberboard (MDF) - ANSWER-plywood The 10 in a W10 × 30 steel beam indicates what? A. the nominal width of the flange in inches B. the nominal depth of the beam in inches C. the weight per foot of length in pounds D. the length of the beam in feet - ANSWER-the nominal depth of the beam in inches Which of the following is a type of deep foundation? A. crawl space B. strip footing C. mat footing D. caisson - ANSWER-caisson Clay is what type of soil? A. solid rock B. cohesive soil C. cohesionless soil D. organic soil - ANSWER-cohesive soil Sand is what type of soil? A. solid rock B. cohesive soil C. cohesionless soil D. organic soil - ANSWER-cohesionless soil Soil that has been excavated and stockpiled is considered to be in a ________ state. A. natural B. bank C. loose D. compacted - ANSWER-loose What is the purpose of a visual field soil analysis? A. see how much work has been completed B. establish general soil classifications C. check for the presence of worms in the soil D. develop an excavation plan - ANSWER-establish general soil classifications What is the correct order of subsurface soil exploration? A. boring, sampling, testing B. sampling, boring, testing C. sampling, testing, boring D. testing, sampling, boring - ANSWER-boring, sampling, testing Fine-grained soils are soils finer than a ___________. A. No. 60 sieve B. No. 100 sieve C. No. 200 sieve D. No. 400 sieve - ANSWER-No. 200 sieve . Referencing the example of a boring log in Figure 2-7, at approximately what depth would you expect to find very stiff gray sandy clay? A. 5 ft to 9 ft B. 10 ft to 14 ft C. 15 ft to19 ft D. 20 ft to 22 ft - ANSWER-20 ft to 22 ft . Wood, steel, and rigid insulation are all used for_______________. A. concrete finishing B. formwork shoring C. strengthening concrete D. concrete formwork - ANSWER-concrete formwork Deflection is a result of what type of stress? A. bending B. tensile C. shear D. axial - ANSWER-bending Which of the following is a type of multiuse form? A. tubular fiber column forms B. insulated concrete forms (ICFs) C. panel forms D. form release - ANSWER-panel forms Which of the following would be considered a dead load? A. workers B. equipment C. stored materials D. formwork - ANSWER-formwork Which property of air is the best measure for latent heat? A. dry bulb B. relative humidity C. enthalpy D. humidity ratio - ANSWER-humidity ratio If you have an air sample with a dry bulb temperature of 80º F and an RH of 50%, what is its wet bulb temperature? A. 31º B. 67º C. 77º D. 80º - ANSWER-67º If you have an air sample with a dry bulb temperature of 60º F and an RH of 100%, what is its wet bulb temperature? A. 30º B. 60º C. 90º D. 120º - ANSWER-60º Using the psychrometric chart, if you have an air sample with a dry bulb temperature of 60º F and a humidity ratio of 23.0 gr/lb, what is its relative humidity? A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 70% - ANSWER-30% Air sample A has a dry bulb temperature of 80º F and a relative humidity of 90%. Air sample B has a dry bulb temperature of 65º F and a relative humidity of 90%. Which of the following statements is true? A. A has more sensible heat but the same latent heat as B. B. A has less sensible heat but more latent heat as B. C. A has more sensible and latent heat as B. D. A has less sensible and latent heat as B. - ANSWER-A has more sensible and latent heat as B. If you have 10 Ω of resistance and a voltage of 20 V, how much current is going through the circuit? A. 0.5 A B. 2 A C. 10 A D. 200 A - ANSWER-2 A E = IR; 20 = I × 10; I = 2 Which is the unit of measure for AC power? A. volt B. ampere C. watt D. coulomb - ANSWER-watt If you have three resisters in series and they each have 4 Ω of resistance, what is the total resistance in the circuit? A. 0.75 Ω B. 1.33 Ω C. 4 Ω D. 12 Ω - ANSWER-12 Ω 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 If you have three resisters in parallel and they each have 4 Ω of resistance, what is the total resistance in the circuit? A. 0.75 Ω B. 1.33 Ω C. 4 Ω D. 12 Ω - ANSWER-1.33 Ω 1/R = 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4; R = 1.33 . In the United States, alternating current is provided by utility companies at ________________ hertz or cycles per second. A. 1 B. 50 C. 60 D. 100 - ANSWER-60 If a three-phase circuit has 240 V, using 100 A with a power factor of .5, what is the real power? A. 0.24 W B. 12,000 W C. 20,760 W D. 24,000 kW - ANSWER-20,760 W 1.73 × 240 × 100 × 0.5 = 20,760 If a single-phase circuit has 120 V, using 10 A with a power factor of .8, what is the apparent power? A. 12 W B. 1,200 W C. 1,661 W D. 2,076 W - ANSWER-1,200 W 120 × 10 = 1,200 Which of the following is a fundamental element of a contract? A. exchange of money B. revised scope of work C. time extension D. mutual acceptance - ANSWER-mutual acceptance . Which of the following contract types is generally considered to have the most risk for the contractor? A. lump sum B. unit price C. cost plus D. cost plus with GMP - ANSWER-. lump sum Which of the following contract types is best used if the scope is well defined but not the quantities of material? A. lump sum B. unit price C. cost plus D. cost plus with GMP - ANSWER-unit price In which delivery method is the construction administrator most like a consultant? A. lump sum B. CM agency C. CM at risk D. integrated project delivery - ANSWER-CM agency . Which delivery method has the most risk for the contractor? A. design-bid-build B. design-build C. CM at risk D. integrated project delivery - ANSWER-design-build Which statement is true about the designbuild delivery method from the owner's perspective? A. Design is complete when contractor is hired. B. Fast tracking is difficult with this delivery method. C. There is a single source of fault for building system failures. D. Design Build firms are rarely temporary joint ventures. - ANSWER-There is a single source of fault for building system failures. . Under which legal structure are the least total taxes paid for the goods and services provided by the company? A. sole proprietorship B. federalist C. corporation D. joint venture - ANSWER-sole proprietorship Which of the following is a major difference between a CM agency and a CM at risk? A. manages construction on the owner's behalf B. has a contract with the designer C. provides a lump sum price for construction services D. caps the construction costs the owner is required to pay - ANSWER-caps the construction costs the owner is required to pay In the construction industry, which legal entity is often a temporary arrangement? A. sole proprietorship B. partnership C. limited liability corporation D. joint venture - ANSWER-joint venture A company has $10,000 in cash, $20,000 in equipment, and $20,000 in accounts payable. The tax rate is 13%. What is the current ratio? A. 0.5 B. 0.67 C. 1.3 D. 1.5 - ANSWER-0.5 $10,000/$20,000 = 0.5 Which is an advantage of forming a corporation? A. Shareholders have reduced personal liability. B. The corporation's value can't go down from its initial purchase price. C. Less taxes are paid than in a limited liability corporation. D. Quick decision making is possible, especially for large companies. - ANSWER-Shareholders have reduced personal liability. What is the return on assets assuming a net profit before tax of $15,000 and $30,000 total assets? A. 0.5% B. 2% C. 50% D. 200% - ANSWER-50% $15,000/$30,000 × 100 = 50% Which chart would be the most appropriate to show the percentage of fall protection safety violations compared to all safety violations? A. histogram B. bar chart C. pie chart D. line chart - ANSWER-pie chart A company has $50,000 in equipment, $20,000 in cash, and $30,000 in accounts payable. How much working capital does it have? A. ($10,000) B. $10,000 C. $20,000 D. $40,000 - ANSWER-($10,000) $20,000 - $30,000 = ($10,000) Which of the following is a management system used to improve customer satisfaction? A. TQM B. Six Sigma C. Lean D. All the above - ANSWER-All the above Which of the following is not a type of pile installed by pile driving? A. cofferdams B. precast concrete pile C. cast-in-place concrete pile D. metal pile - ANSWER-cast-in-place concrete pile Which management system was developed based on Toyota's Production System? A. TQM B. Six Sigma C. Lean D. ISO 9000 - ANSWER-Lean Which of the following should a construction professional provide when delivering services to his or her clients based on the AIC code of ethics? A. adjustable ethics based on clients' preferences B. management excellence C. minimum industry standards D. complete transparency to everyone on every task - ANSWER-management excellence Which of the following types of equipment is most suitable for excavation of a standard residential basement? A. excavator B. loader C. scraper D. dragline - ANSWER-excavator Which of the following types of excavation equipment is most suitable for removing and stockpiling on-site 2 ft of soil from 1 acre of excavation area? A. excavator B. loader C. scraper D. dragline - ANSWER-scraper . Which of the following types of excavation equipment is most suitable for final grading of a roadway? A. dozer B. grader C. loader D. backhoe - ANSWER-grader Which of the following types of compaction equipment is most suitable for compacting the granular base of a large parking lot? A. tamper B. plate compactor C. smooth wheel roller D. sheepsfoot roller - ANSWER-smooth wheel roller A sheepsfoot roller is most suitable for compaction of which type of soil? A. clay soils B. gravel C. sandy soils D. topsoil - ANSWER-clay soils What is an advantage of a tower crane? A. It is easily moved from one location to another on the job site. B. Its operator has an unobstructed view of the site. C. Several mobilizations and demobilizations per project are common. D. Its setup time is fast. - ANSWER-Its operator has an unobstructed view of the site. . Which of the following types of aerial work platforms is most suitable for installing fire sprinkler piping inside a building? A. slab scissor lift B. rough terrain scissor lift C. straight boom manlift D. mast boom lift - ANSWER-slab scissor lift Using Figure 4-12, what is the maximum load of a crane if the boom is at an angle of 40º and extended 53 ft? A. 4,640 lb B. 5,030 lb C. 13,010 lb D. 80,000 lb - ANSWER-5,030 lb In which CSI division is information about structural steel located? A. Division 01 B. Division 05 C. Division 10 D. Division 15 - ANSWER-Division 05 Which CSI technical specification part would contain information about which submittals were required? A. Part 1 B. Part 2 C. Part 3 D. Part 4 - ANSWER-Part 1 Which CSI division significantly changed with the 2004, 50-division format change? A. Division 01 B. Division 05 C. Division 10 D. Division 15 - ANSWER-Division 15 Which of the following views is used in plumbing drawings to show a 3D view of pipe runs? A. plan B. elevation C. section D. isometric - ANSWER-isometric Which of the following types of lines are used to show hidden objects or objects above or below the cutting plane? A. light solid line B. bold solid line C. dot then dashed line D. dashed line - ANSWER-dashed line . Using the sample drawings provided in this chapter, what is the fire rating for door 062.3? A. not rated B. 30 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 90 minutes - ANSWER-not rated Where is the best location to look to determine the electrical requirements for a project's chillers? A. contract B. details C. schedule D. specifications - ANSWER-schedule Using the sample drawings provided in this chapter, what is the horse power of the fan servicing AHU-1? A. 1 hp B. 10 hp C. 25 hp D. 35 hp - ANSWER-25 hp (Page 72) Which of the following bid documents would the contractor place his or her price on? A. instructions to bidders B. bid form C. contract agreement D. general conditions - ANSWER-bid form Which of the following bid documents contains additional or supplemental information to the design documents? A. instructions to bidders B. addendum C. alternate D. general conditions - ANSWER-addendum Which type of specification provides the criteria that the contractor must build to but does not include a specific design? A. performance specification B. project specification C. preliminary specification D. prescriptive specification - ANSWER-performance specification What is the term used to describe the financial evaluation of the cost of a building component or system over its useful life? A. cost ratio B. value engineering C. life cycle costing D. initial cost analysis - ANSWER-life cycle costing Which type of estimate is most appropriate when the contract documents are 100% complete? A. detailed estimate B. cost indices estimate C. parametric estimate D. conceptual estimate - ANSWER-detailed estimate The criteria set by a trade organization for acceptable quality and installation procedures, such as the Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning Contractors' National Association (SMACNA) benchmarks for ductwork quality, are best described as a ____________. A. code B. specification C. regulation D. standard - ANSWER-standard If a project trailer is vandalized, which of the following type of insurance would cover the claim? A. errors and omissions B. builder's risk C. general liability D. property insurance - ANSWER-builder's risk Using the square foot costs from Figure 5-1, how much would a 6,500 sq ft post office cost? A. $484,575 B. $617,630 C. $660,055 D. $689,585 - ANSWER-$617,630 6,500 × 95.02 = $617,630 Using Figure 5-3, how much would a bank that costs $500,000 in Clemson, South Carolina, in 2012 cost if built in 2015 in Provo, Utah? A. $367,155 B. $628,947 C. $680,912 D. $889,685 - ANSWER-$680,912 (500,000 × 47.8)/35.1 = $680,912 How many crew days would it take to install 1,500 sq yd of carpet if the two-person crew can install 500 sq yd/day? A. 1.25 days B. 2.25 days C. 3.00 days D. 4.35 days - ANSWER-3.00 days 1,500/500 = 3.00 days What would happen to the total cost of the building described in Figure 5-2 if the brick veneer made up 60% and the windows made up 40% of the building enclosure instead of 80% and 20%? A. Cost would decrease $780,900. B. Cost would decrease $334,650. C. Cost would increase $334,650. D. Cost would increase $780,900. - ANSWER-Cost would increase $334,650. (25,000 × 0.6 × 4.46) + (25,000 × 0.4 × 71.4) - (89,250 + 357,000) = $334,650 Carpet is typically taken off by which unit of measure? A. square foot B. square yard C. square D. cubic yard - ANSWER-square yard How many 7-cy dump truck loads are needed to remove 350 Bcy of soil assuming the swell factor is 15%? A. 53 B. 58 C. 59 D. 412 - ANSWER-58 350 × 1.15/7 = 57.5 How many bank cubic yards of soil would be needed to fill an excavation requiring 45 Ccy of fill assuming an 88% compaction factor? A. 39.6 B. 40.5 C. 50.4 D. 51.1 - ANSWER-51.1 45/.88 = 51.1 Ccy Assuming the footings shown in Figure 5-6 were formed along the sides (not the bottom). How much formwork would be required? A. 9 sq ft B. 112 sq ft C. 224 sq ft D. 448 sq ft - ANSWER-224 sq ft (30 × 4) + (4 × 26) = 224 sq ft . How much concrete is needed for the footing shown in Figure 5-6? A. 0.3 cy B. 4.2 cy C. 8.3 cy D. 16.6 cy - ANSWER-16.6 cy (28 × 4) × 1 × 4/27 = 16.6 cy How many board feet is 200 lnft of 2 in. × 6 in wood studs. A. 12 bft B. 138 bft C. 200 bft D. 2,400 bft - ANSWER-200 bft 2 × 6 × 200/12 = 200 A structure is an intersecting hip roof with the main hip roof outside dimensions being 73 ft long and the width being 30 ft wide. The intersection portion extends 20 ft beyond the 30-ft side, and the intersecting portion is 20 ft wide. The overhang is 2 ft 6 in. and the slope is 5:12. The rafters are 16 in. on center. Based on the information provided, what is the total length of the common rafters in linear feet? A. 13.00 B. 17.50 C. 18.90 D. 35.00 - ANSWER-18.90 (15 ft + 2.5 ft) × 1.08 = 18.9 How much rebar should be ordered for the footing shown in Figures 5-6 and 5-7? Assume rebar comes in 20-ft lengths. A. 125 lnft B. 224 lnft C. 500 lnft D. 548 lnft - ANSWER-500 lnft Effective length = 20 - ((5/8) × 30)/12 = 18.44 ft Total length of runs = 28 ft centerline × 4 sides × 4 bars = 448 ft 448 ft/18.44 = 25 sticks of rebar 25 sticks × 20 ft = 500 lnft Using the information provided in the previous question, what is the total number of common rafters required for the roof? A. 55 B. 72 C. 112 D. 146 - ANSWER-146 Main = 73 ft/1.3 = 55 + 1 = 56 56 × 2 sides = 112 Extension = 20 ft/1.3 = 16 + 1 = 17 17 × 2 sides = 34 112 + 34 = 146 Which of the following statements is true about a company's cost code structure? A. is most typically organized alphabetically by item description B. is most typically organized by sequence of installation C. often organized by CSI division with adaptations by individual companies D. completely unique to each company - ANSWER-often organized by CSI division with adaptations by individual companies Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure? A. divides the work into manageable packages B. is created by the project manager to organize the activities of the operational team C. is created at the end of the project to finalize and categorize costs D. is organized by sequence of installation - ANSWER-divides the work into manageable packages A work breakdown structure typically includes which of the following for each work package? A. budgeted cost of work scheduled B. actual cost of work performed C. budgeted cost of work performed D. earned value - ANSWER-budgeted cost of work scheduled Using Figure 6-2, what are the projected completion costs if the to date quantities changed from 124 to 150 and the to date expended costs changed from $179 to $225? A. $1,680 B. $2,199 C. $2,224 D. $3,222 - ANSWER-$1,680 225/120 = $1.50/sq ft; 1.5 × 1,120 = 1,680 Using Figure 6-3, what would be the expected projected gain/loss for cost code 035300.4000-Subcontracts assuming that a $100 change order was approved by the owner and that 100% of the change order was subcontractor costs? A. ($113) Loss B. ($13) Loss C. $0 D. $113 Gain - ANSWER-($13) Loss (207 + 100) - (120 + 100) = ($13); no change When are commercial contractors typically paid by the owner? A. as the costs are received B. weekly C. monthly D. a lump sum at the end of the project - ANSWER-monthly Which statement is true about front end loading a schedule of values? A. common practice that is accepted by owners B. increases the value of activities at the end of the project in the schedule of values to ensure the contractor completes them C. increases the value of activities at the beginning of a project in the schedule of values to improve the contractor's cash flow D. is typically denoted on a schedule of values, making it easy to identify which line items are front end loaded - ANSWER-increases the value of activities at the beginning of a project in the schedule of values to improve the contractor's cash flow Which of the following statements is true about liquidated damages? A. determined at the end of the job based on actual loss of revenue B. determined at the time of contract signing based on estimated owner losses C. a lump sum value deducted from the contract if the contractor is late D. calculated by number of days late divided by total duration of contract and expressed as a percentage of total job cost - ANSWER-determined at the time of contract signing based on estimated owner losses A Gant chart is which type of scheduling tool? A. bar chart B. activity on arrow network C. activity on node network D. precedent diagram - ANSWER-bar chart Which type of relationship is being shown in Figure 7-3 between activities C and E? A. finish to start B. start to start C. finish to finish D. start to finish - ANSWER-finish to start What type of relationship would best describe "installing the scratch coat of stucco" and then "installing the top coat of stucco"? A. finish to start B. start to start C. finish to finish D. start to finish - ANSWER-finish to start Using Figure 7-13, what is the early start for activity G? A. 5 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9 - ANSWER-6 Using Figure 7-13, what is the late start for activity H? A. 4 B. 5 C. 8 D. 12 - ANSWER-5 Using Figure 7-13, how much total float does activity F have? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 - ANSWER-2 . Using Figure 7-13, which activity is critical? A. B B. C C. D D. G - ANSWER-C Using Figure 7-13, how much free float does activity E have? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 - ANSWER-0 What classification of activity would "shop drawing rejection" be? A. acceleration B. design C. procurement D. construction - ANSWER-procurement What classification of activity would "building programming" be? A. acceleration B. design C. procurement D. construction - ANSWER-design Which of the following defines the term trade stacking? A. the loss of worker productivity from overtime work B. the inefficiency from redoing work C. the loss of productivity in the seasoned workforce from training new hires D. the loss of productivity by placing too many workers in too small a space - ANSWER-the loss of productivity by placing too many workers in too small a space . When was the Occupational Safety and Health Act passed? A. 1790 B. 1930 C. 1970 D. 1990 - ANSWER-1970 Which of the following parts of CFR Title 29 addresses safety and health regulations for construction? A. 1904 B. 1926 C. 1980 D. 2111 - ANSWER-1926 How many employees must an employer have before OSHA record keeping is required? A. 1 or more B. 10 or more C. 11 or more D. 100 or more - ANSWER-10 or more Which of the following forms is used to record the information of a single specific incident? A. Form 300 B. Form 300-A C. Form 301 D. Form 409 - ANSWER-Form 301 How long must the OSHA Form 300 be kept by the employer? A. until the hazard has been abated B. 3 months C. 1 year D. 5 years - ANSWER-5 years Within how many days must a notice of contest be filed for an OSHA citation? A. 1 day B. 15 days C. 30 days D. no statute of limitation - ANSWER-15 . Which of the following accidents makes up the majority of fatalities in the construction industry? A. falls B. inhalation C. explosion D. cranes - ANSWER-falls What size load must a personal fall arrest system be designed to? A. minimum 200 lb per person B. minimum 500 lb per person C. minimum 1,000 lb per person D. minimum 5,000 lb per person - ANSWER-minimum 5,000 lb per person Which of the following heights would be acceptable for the top rail of a guardrail system? A. 21 in. B. 38 in. C. 45 in. D. 52 in. - ANSWER-45 in. . Which of the following ratios of vertical rise to horizontal run is acceptable for an extension ladder supported against a building? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 - ANSWER-4:1 What is the maximum horizontal travel distance that a portable fire extinguisher can be located on a job site? A. 50 ft B. 75 ft C. 100 ft D. 3,000 ft - ANSWER-100 ft What is the farthest away that an egress ladder can be located from a worker in a trench excavation greater than 4 ft in depth? A. 15 ft B. 25 ft C. 35 ft D. 50 ft - ANSWER-25 ft Which of the following ratios of vertical rise to horizontal run is acceptable for a supported scaffold that is not braced or tied back to a structure? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 - ANSWER-4:1 What is the minimum load that a suspension scaffold must be designed to? A. 5,000 lb B. 10,000 lb C. three times the intended load D. four times the intended load - ANSWER-four times the intended load What is the average noise level for which hearing protection is required to be worn? A. 85 dB B. 90 dB C. 95 dB D. 100 dB - ANSWER-85 dB Which of the following pieces of equipment does not measure vertical angles? A. builder's level B. theodolite C. transit D. robotic total station - ANSWER-builder's level What type of telescoping rod is often used with levels, transits, and total stations? A. Alachua rod B. Leon rod C. Pinellas rod D. Philadelphia rod - ANSWER-Philadelphia rod How many feet are in 1 mile? A. 12 B. 100 C. 5,280 D. 12,000 - ANSWER-5,280 If a 1,000-ft road has a vertical rise of 10 ft what percent incline does the road have? A. 0.01% B. 0.10% C. 1% D. 10% - ANSWER-1% The contour lines showing the existing grade on a topographic survey are commonly______________________. A. bold solid lines B. highlighted solid lines C. colored dashed lines D. lightly colored dashed lines - ANSWER-lightly colored dashed lines What do contour lines that are spaced closely together indicate? A. slight slope B. steep slope C. direction of erosion D. direction of water runoff - ANSWER-steep slope A rectangular slab on grade is 60 ft 0 in. long × 45 ft 0 in. wide. What is the diagonal measurement in feet and inches? A. 52 ft 6 in. B. 75 ft 0 in. C. 105 ft 8 in. D. 115 ft 11 in. - ANSWER-75 ft 0 in. 60^2 + 45^2 = diagonal ^.5 = 75 ft Assume you have a right triangle with a hypotenuse of 310 ft. If one of the angles is 20º, what is the length of the side that is opposite this angle? A. 106.03 B. 112.84 C. 291.09 D. 851.73 - ANSWER-106.03 A rod reading of 4.72 ft is taken on a benchmark whose elevation is 813.30. The finish floor is 809.00. The top of the batter board is set 1 ft above the finish floor. What rod reading is required to set the line for the top of the batter board? A. 4.30 B. 5.30 C. 8.02 D. 9.02 - ANSWER-8.02 (813.3 + 4.72) - 810 = 8.02 What does the surveying abbreviation TP mean? A. tangent point B. turning point C. traverse point D. terminal point - ANSWER-turning point Using Figure 9-13, what is the benchmark elevation at IP #4? A. 864.62 B. 889.90 C. 896.27 D. 902.64 - ANSWER-889.90 You are required to establish grade to the bottom of a footing that is 1 ft thick. The elevation at the top of the footing is 102.33 ft. The backsight of the instrument on the benchmark of 100.00 ft is 6.78. What is the correct reading of the rod at the bottom of the footing? A. 0.64 B. 3.81 C. 4.45 D. 5.45 - ANSWER-5.45 . (100 + 6.78) - (102.33 - 1) = 5.45 . What is the process of screening subcontractors before they bid a project to ensure they are capable of completing the work called? A. prescreening B. prebidding C. prereferencing D. prequalifying - ANSWER-prequalifying What is the act of showing subcontractors the price of their competitors in the hope that they will lower their bid called? A. bid looking B. bid shopping C. bid happy D. bid capping - ANSWER-bid shopping Which of the following statements is true about the procurement process? A. Specific contract terms, such as taxes, bonding, and accounting terms, are always included with the bid. B. Submittals are typically included with the bid. C. Submittals must be approved before a contract is signed. D. Submittals do not supersede the contract documents even if they have been reviewed by the general contractor and designer. - ANSWER-Submittals do not supersede the contract documents even if they have been reviewed by the general contractor and designer. Which trade ties and places rebar? A. rigger B. rod buster C. pile driver D. iron worker - ANSWER-rod buster Which job title traditionally has multiple project managers from the same project report to them? A. project executive B. senior project manager C. senior superintendent D. project engineer - ANSWER-senior project manager Which of the following documents is used to prove eligibility to work in the United States? A. I-9 B. W4 C. IIRAIRA D. 1099 - ANSWER-I-9 . Which of the following documents is considered a submittal? A. RFI B. specification C. change order D. shop drawing - ANSWER-shop drawing Contractors typically mark up their submittals in which color? A. green B. red C. blue D. orange - ANSWER-green Who is most commonly responsible for creating shop drawings? A. architect B. owner C. general contractor D. subcontractor - ANSWER-subcontractor Which of the following statements is true if the contract documents required #6 rebar but #5 rebar was submitted and approved by the general contractor and the architect? A. The approval of the submittal allows the contractor to use the #5 rebar. B. The approval of the submittal allows the contractor to use the #5 rebar only if a credit is provided. C. A new submittal must be issued for the #5 rebar highlighting the change, but the material can be ordered. D. The approved submittal does not change the scope of the contract documents. - ANSWER-The approved submittal does not change the scope of the contract documents. Which of the following documents starts the contractor's schedule to complete the project? A. notice of award B. letter of intent C. notice to proceed D. start work order - ANSWER-notice to proceed Which of the following alternative dispute methods is often required by contract to resolve a claim? A. negotiation B. mediation C. arbitration D. litigation - ANSWER-arbitration . Which of the following documents typically starts the warranty period? A. final payment B. substantial completion C. completion of punch list D. certificate of occupancy - ANSWER-substantial completion Which of the following is a term used to describe minor incomplete or deficient items that need to be completed before final acceptance of a building? A. punch list B. deficiencies list C. incomplete item list D. pay for completion list - ANSWER-punch list What is the most common green building rating system in the United States for commercial buildings? A. Green Globes B. LEED C. CASBEE D. Green Star - ANSWER-LEED Which of the following is the initial LEED credential available to individuals? A. LEED Green Associate B. LEED V1 C. LEED Accredited Professional D. LEED Lt - ANSWER-LEED Green Associate Purpose of a business letter? - ANSWER-business letters are commonly used as formal correspondence to request information or action, respond to a request, state a position, or present an explanation. Purpose of a memo? - ANSWER-Memos are often used internally to notify or provide clarification to employees about policy changes, procedures, or disciplinary issues. Externally, memos are often used to notify or remind subcontractors about important information or upcoming deadlines or meetings. What is a change order? - ANSWER-A change order is a type of formal written correspondence that modifies the contract or written agreement. Change orders can be categorized as either owner or subcontractor change orders. Owner change orders modify the contract between the owner and the prime contractor. What are included in weekly and monthly reports? - ANSWER--Overall project status -Schedule analysis -Cost analysis -Labor, material, and/or equipment analysis -Subcontractor and purchase order management -Changes in work Who is responsible for planning for, providing leadership during, and documenting meetings? - ANSWER-Contractor What is the purpose of preconstruction meetings? - ANSWER-Preconstruction meetings are initial or project kickoff meetings typically held before the start of a construction project. On large projects, preconstruction meetings are also commonly held before each major phase of construction. What is a contractor's preconstruction meeting? - ANSWER-These meetings are held in-house between members of the contractor's project management team, which often includes such people as senior project managers, project managers, assistant project managers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, foremen, estimators, and administrative assistants. What are project preconstruction meetings? - ANSWER-These meetings are between key project participants, which often include the owners or owners' representatives, key members of the design team, and members of the prime contractor's project management team. What are subcontractor's preconstruction meetings? - ANSWER-These meetings are between members of the prime contractor's project management team and subcontractors and suppliers selected for the project. Purpose of an OAC meeting? - ANSWER-They are used to update participants on the status of the project and any other issues or concerns. OAC progress meetings tend to focus on the big picture of the project as well as immediate concerns needing to be addressed to avoid cost and schedule impacts. When should meeting agendas be distributed? - ANSWER-Meeting agendas should be distributed at least one day prior to the meeting to remind participants of the meeting and allow them to prepare for it. When should meeting minutes be issued? - ANSWER-After the meeting, notes should be edited, organized, written into minutes, and distributed to all participants of the meeting within 24 hours to allow for immediate feedback. Major types of aggregates? - ANSWER-granular material, typically sand, gravel, and crushed stone 3 ingredients of concrete? - ANSWER-aggregate, water, and hydraulic cement Aggregate takes up how much of concrete? - ANSWER-3/4 (75%) The most common type of hydraulic cement used in concrete construction? - ANSWER-portland cement What is hydration? - ANSWER-Concrete cures (hardens) through a chemical reaction between the water and cement called hydration. Air-entraining admixtures - ANSWER-improve concrete's ability to resist freeze-thaw cycles and increase workability of wet concrete. Water-reducing admixtures - ANSWER-increase the workability of wet concrete without the addition of water Retarding admixtures - ANSWER-slow the curing time of concrete. Commonly used in hot weather to reduce the effects of high temperatures on curing. Accelerating admixtures - ANSWER-decrease the curing time of concrete. Commonly used to reduce setting time in cold-weather applications and to increase rate of strength development in tiltwall construction. Superplasticizers - ANSWER-increase the fluidity of concrete without adding additional water. Typical weight of concrete? - ANSWER-140 pcf- 150 pcf Most common size of CMU? - ANSWER-8 in. × 8 in. × 16 in. nominal What is the diameter of a #5 bar? - ANSWER-5/8 (diameters are in eighths of an inch) What are the ingredients in conventional mortar? - ANSWER-sand, water, portland cement, and hydrated lime What is type M mortar? - ANSWER-high-strength mortar, typically used in high load areas and masonry below grade two main classifications of wood? - ANSWER-hardwoods and softwoods Typical size of wood panel products? - ANSWER-4x8 ft sheets Plywood: - ANSWER-made up of thin layers of wood veneers adhered together in alternating directions Oriented strand board (OSB) - ANSWER-made up of large strands of wood adhered together in layers of strands in alternating directions; Cohesive soils: - ANSWER-soils with very small particles that typically stick together, such as clay Cohesionless soils: - ANSWER-soils that do not tend to stick together such as gravel, sand, and silt Organic soil - ANSWER-soils that contain organic material, such as peat Which sieve size determines fine/coarse soils? - ANSWER-No. 200 Types of shallow foundations? - ANSWER--Isolated, single column or pad footing -Wall, strip, or continuous footing -Monolithic slab on grade Types of deep foundations? - ANSWER--Caisson: -Piles Bank soil: - ANSWER-Bank soil is soil that is in its natural, undisturbed state Loose soil: - ANSWER-Loose soil is soil that has been disturbed from its natural state, creating voids, causing the soil to swell and increase in volume Compacted soil: - ANSWER-Compacted soil is soil that has been compressed to reduce air in the soil, decreasing its volume • Panel forms and systems: - ANSWER-reusable forms comprising a system of panels, hardware, and ties. Tubular fiber column forms - ANSWER-single-use onepiece form. Forms can be easily cut by saw to desired length Round glass fiber-reinforced plastic column forms - ANSWER-reusable one-piece form that bolts or clamps along a single joint to allow the form to be removed after concrete has cured. Round steel column forms: - ANSWER-reusable forms made up of sections connected by hardware with bracing built into the forms. Insulated concrete forms (ICFs) - ANSWER-single-use forms made up of interlocking modular units or panels of rigid insulation. Metal deck: - ANSWER-single-use ribbed or corrugated sheets of steel that form, support, and reinforce cast concrete. Equation for voltage? - ANSWER-Voltage = Current × Resistance (E = IR) Equation for circuits in series? - ANSWER-Rt = R1 + R2 + R3 + Rn Equation for circuits in parallel? - ANSWER-1/Rt= 1/R1+ 1/R2+ 1/R3 Single phase apparent power equation? - ANSWER-Papparent = Voltage (E) × Amperes (A) Three phase apparent power equation? - ANSWER-Papparent = 1.73 × Voltage (E) × Amperes (A) Single phase real power equation? - ANSWER-Preal(Watt) = V × A × PF Three phase real power equation? - ANSWER-Preal(Watt) = 1.73 × V × A × PF Lump sum contract: - ANSWER-A lump sum contract is the most common type of contract. In a lump sum contract, the contractor gives the owner a single price, or lump sum, to complete the contracted scope of work. contractors have the highest amount of risk Unit Price contract: - ANSWER-In a unit price contract, contractors provide a price for a unit of work. This contract type is typically used when exact quantities cannot be determined in advance. Cost Plus contract: - ANSWER-In a cost plus contract, a contractor is paid for all direct costs, such as labor, material, equipment, subcontracts, and field supervision, plus an agreed upon fee. Cost plus contracts are typically used in cases where the scope of work is not easily defined. DESIGN-BID-BUILD: - ANSWER-The design-bid-build delivery method is commonly referred to as hard bid, stipulated sum, or fixed price. In this method, the owner has separate contracts directly with the architect and contractor. The contractor is generally considered to have the highest risk DESIGN-BUILD: - ANSWER-In the design-build delivery method, the owner contracts with a single entity for both design and construction services. Entities may be a single design-build firm with in-house design and construction employees or a temporary partnership between design and construction firms commonly through a joint venture or subcontract. the design-build firm has the highest risk CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT (CM) AGENCY: - ANSWER-in the construction management (CM) agency delivery method, an independent agency acts as the owner's representative and coordinates work between the design and construction teams. CM agency has the lowest risk CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT (CM) AT RISK: - ANSWER-. In this method, the owner contracts directly with the designers and construction manager. With this delivery method, however, the CM at risk is responsible for the work and contracts directly with the contractor/subcontractors. SOLE PROPRIETORSHIP: - ANSWER-Sole proprietorships are companies owned, operated and managed by a single person. PARTNERSHIPS: - ANSWER-A partnership is a business entity owned by two or more people. The amount of ownership each partner has within the company is determined by legal agreement CORPORATIONS - ANSWER-Corporations are independent legal business entities. To form a corporation, a company must file documentation with and pay fees to the state in which the company will do business. LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANY (LLC) - ANSWER-Limited liability companies (LLCs) are a hybrid type of business similar to a corporation in that individual owners have limited liability and similar to sole proprietorships and partnerships regarding tax and operational benefits. To form an LLC, members must file a document called articles of organization with the state in which they will do business and pay associated fees JOINT VENTURES - ANSWER-A joint venture is an agreement between two or more individuals or companies formed to complete a single business enterprise. Joint ventures may be a new business entity or a collaborative agreement. In the construction industry, joint ventures are often temporary arrangements. Assets: - ANSWER-include current assets, such as cash, accounts receivable, inventory, cost-in-excess, and prepaid expenses; fixed assets, such as buildings and equipment; and other assets, such as investments and goodwill. Liabilities: - ANSWER-include current liabilities, such as accounts payable, notes payable, billings-inexcess, accrued payments, and current maturity of long-term debt, and long-term liabilities, such as long-term debt • Owner's equity (net worth): - ANSWER-includes paid-incapital and retained earnings Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Net Worth Current ratio equation: - ANSWER-Current assets/ current liabilities Quick ratio equation: - ANSWER-(Cash and equivalents + accounts receivable) / current liabilities Working capital equation: - ANSWER-Current Assets - Current Liabilities Return on assets equation: - ANSWER-(Net profit before taxes / total assets) x 100 Three-Part Specification Format descriptions: - ANSWER--Part 1, General, provides a description of the work, the submittals required, and any inspections or testing needed to be performed by the contractor. -Part 2, Products, provides the technical specification of all of the material or equipment described in the section. -Part 3, Execution, provides clarification on how material and equipment are to be installed. Prescriptive Specifications: - ANSWER-A prescriptive specification provides a complete design to the contractor. Specific equipment, materials, and to a degree the means and methods of installation are provided. Proprietary specification: - ANSWER-a type of prescriptive specification that names the specific manufacturer or system desired by the designer. A closed proprietary specification allows for only one manufacturer or system to be selected from. An open proprietary specification provides a basis for design but allows for several preselected manufacturers or systems to be used. Performance Specifications - ANSWER-A performance specification provides a performance criterion that the contractor must then meet. The designer provides information on the final function of the system and some general requirements but not the specific design. Workers' compensation: - ANSWER-a type of insurance that compensates a worker for a portion of his or her lost wages (commonly 67%) and medical expenses for injuries that occurred at work. Builder's risk: - ANSWER-an insurance that builders purchase to protect them from building damage that occurs while the building is under construction. It also typically includes the temporary structures, such as trailers and storage containers, that are located on the project site. • General liability: - ANSWER-protects the contractor from claims by a third party of bodily injury, injury to person, and property damage as a result of ongoing operations. For example, this insurance would protect the contractor if a steel beam fell and crushed the building official's car. Errors and omissions: - ANSWER-protects designers from incomplete, incorrect, and faulty design documents. Contractors generally do not have this insurance unless they are providing design services Bid bond: - ANSWER-used to ensure that the principal will honor his or her bid and enter into a contract with the obligee for the bid amount after the bid opening. The bid bond usually covers the difference between the low bid and the second-lowest bid, typically up to 10% of the bid price. Performance bond: - ANSWER-a guarantee ensuring the obligee that the principal will perform all work in accordance with the terms of the agreement. Payment bond: - ANSWER-also known as labor and material bond, guarantees the obligee that the principal will pay his or her bills for labor and materials provided on the project. Life cycle costing (LCC): - ANSWER-a financial analysis that evaluates the cost of a building component or system over its useful life and not just its initial costs. Detailed estimate: - ANSWER-A detailed estimate is used when 90% to 100% of the construction documents (CDs) are completed. Semidetailed estimate: - ANSWER-also known as preliminary estimates, are used when the construction documents are 30% to 90% complete. At this stage of the design some major systems, such as foundations and structures, are fairly well completed; however, other systems, such as HVAC and electrical systems, are only roughly outlined. Conceptual Estimate - ANSWER-Conceptual estimates, also known as rough order of magnitude estimates, are used early in the development process. Conceptual estimates are completed by owners, even before the designer is hired, to test the feasibility of the project. Cost Indices equation: - ANSWER-(Known Cost)(Cost Index for Estimated Cost)/ Cost Index for Known Cost Which of the following documents is used for correspondence between the architect or owner and the contractor? A. job diary B. memorandum C. construction report D. formal business letter - ANSWER-formal business letter Which of the following documents is used for correspondence between the home office and the job site? A. job diary B. memorandum C. construction report D. formal business letter - ANSWER-memorandum What is the best time to distribute the working agenda to the participants of a meeting? A. as a follow-up to the meeting B. at the beginning of the meeting C. about one day after the meeting D. about one day prior to the meeting - ANSWER-about one day prior to the meeting . Which document describes the suggested agenda for the preconstruction meeting? A. general conditions B. general requirements C. technical specifications D. supplementary conditions - ANSWER-general requirements What is the best time to distribute the meeting minutes to the participants? A. at the beginning of the meeting B. about one day after the meeting C. about one hour prior to the meeting D. about one day prior to the meeting - ANSWER-about one day after the meeting Which of the following statements is true about the use of texting as a means of communicating in the construction industry? A. a means of easily and effectively documenting communication B. appropriate for clarifying but not for formal direction C. should be completely avoided in construction D. acceptable for communication if specifically allowed in the contract - ANSWER-appropriate for clarifying but not for formal direction What is the best way for a contractor to get formal clarification on an apparent discrepancy found on the plans? A. change order proposal B. RFI C. addressed in a meeting agenda D. any communication as long as each party completely understands the message and direction - ANSWER-RFI What are the leadership skills needed to conduct a productive meeting? A. planning, probing questions, responding critically, and decision making B. planning, timing, coordinating, probing, responding critically, and following up C. listening attentively, responding constructively, soliciting all ideas, and matching decision making to the situation D. coordinating, listening selectively, responding critically, soliciting supportive ideas, and adjusting decision making to the situation - ANSWER-listening attentively, responding constructively, soliciting all ideas, and matching decision making to the situation Which of the following is not commonly discussed at monthly owner/architect/contractor progress meetings? A. outstanding RFIs B. quality control C. project schedule D. pending subcontractor change orders - ANSWER-pending subcontractor change orders What is a listener's retention percentage of an oral conversation? A. 10% B. 50% C. 60% D. 90% - ANSWER-10 Which of the following communication methods is the most effective in knowing that the communication has been understood? A. The sender should ask closed-ended questions and tell the receiver twice. B. The sender should ask open-ended questions and make them speak. C. The sender should ask how they feel and their attitude toward the activity. D. The sender should tell them what to do and get them back to work quickly. - ANSWER-The sender should ask open-ended questions and make them speak. Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question? A. Do you understand what work is supposed to be completed? B. Do you know which shovel to get me from the tool shed? C. What steps are you going to take to complete the activity? D. How do you feel about completing the activities assigned? - ANSWER-What steps are you going to take to complete the activity? Assume you have a simple beam 16 ft long supported on each end by R1 and R2. There is a concentrated load of 900 lb that is 4 ft from R2. Reaction R1 is pinned 12 ft from the load. Reaction R1 is 225 lb and R2 is 675 lb. What is the maximum bending moment in pounds per foot? A. 900 B. 1,800 C. 2,700 D. 3,600 - ANSWER-2,700 Assume that you are pouring a wall that is 151 ft 4 in. long, 14 ft high and, 1 ft 4 in. thick. The crew's daily placement rate is 375 cy per 8-hr day. How many hours will it take to complete the wall? A. 0.3 B. 2.2 C. 27.0 D. 58.8 - ANSWER-2.2 Using the average soil weights from the table in Figure 1, what is the swell percentage of a loam soil? A. 8.3% B. 23.8% C. 31.9% D. 81.0% - ANSWER-23.8% . Using the psychrometric chart provided in Figure 2, what is the enthalpy of 1 lb of air given a dry bulb temperature of 75º F and a relative humidity of 50%? A. 14 BTUs B. 28 BTUs C. 54 BTUs D. 64 BTUs - ANSWER-28 BTUs Which source or organization promotes a uniform organizational system for categorizing construction materials, specifications, and documentation into divisions and sections for projects? A. International Building Code B. Underwriters Laboratories C. Construction Specifications Institute D. American Society for Testing Materials - ANSWER-Construction Specifications Institute The owner wants to fast-track a construction project. Which project delivery system best supports this process? A. partnering B. design-bid-build C. CM agency D. design-build - ANSWER-design-build A contract is entered into in which the design and scope are undefined and the owner agrees to pay for all direct labor, materials, and equipment, plus an agreed upon fee to the contractor for their services. What is this type of contract called? A. cost plus B. turnkey C. unit price D. lump sum - ANSWER-cost plus . A contract is entered into in which the owner holds a contract with the architect and each trade contractor. In addition, the owner holds a contract with a management service company to perform the trade coordination, cost control, and scheduling services. What is this project delivery method called? A. partnering B. joint venture C. design-build D. construction management - ANSWER-construction management . Under which municipal law are corporations formed? A. city B. state C. federal D. municipal - ANSWER-state Which law establishes basic rules governing the sale of goods used to establish a purchase order? A. Davis Bacon Act B. Uniform Commercial Code C. National Labor Relations Act D. Uniform Transportation Code - ANSWER-Uniform Commercial Code Which graphical measurement tool is a bar chart that displays a frequency distribution? A. histogram B. Pareto chart C. pie chart D. fishbone chart - ANSWER-histogram Which of the following principles of law states that if the prime contractor reasonably relies on the promise or price of the subcontractor to its detriment, then the subcontractor must be held to its promise to avoid harm to the prime contractor even though a signed contract between the contractor and subcontractor does not exist at the bidding phase of a project? A. consideration B. legal purpose C. promissory estoppel D. equitable adjustment - ANSWER-promissory estoppel At which point in time must the ownercontractor agreement be provided to each prospective subcontractor bidder? A. at the bid opening B. during the bidding phase of the project C. at the signing of the owner-contractor agreement D. before the signing of the ownercontractor agreement - ANSWER-during the bidding phase of the project Using the financial statements provided in Figures 3a and 3b, what is the working capital for this company at the end of the year? A. $176,177 B. $733,154 C. $1,463,403 D. $1,633,389 - ANSWER-$733,154 Total current assets- total current liabilities Using the financial statements provided in Figures 3a and 3b, what is the current ratio? A. 0.47 B. 1.00 C. 2.07 D. 4.36 - ANSWER-2.07 Current assets / Current liabilities Using the financial statements provided in Figures 3a and 3b, what is the quick ratio (acid test)? A. 0.23 B. 0.48 C. 1.00 D. 2.07 - ANSWER-1.00 (cash and equivalents+ accounts receivable) / current liabilities . Which CSI division contains technical information on structural steel? A. 01 B. 03 C. 05 D. 15 and 23 - ANSWER-5 Which CSI division is considered the technical specifications? A. 00 B. 01 C. 01-49 D. 02-49 - ANSWER-02-49 Which CSI division contains the bidding requirements for a project? A. 00 B. 01 C. 01-49 D. 02-49 - ANSWER-00 Which part in the CSI technical specifications provides the contractor information about how the work is to be executed, including approved installation procedures? A. Part 1 B. Part 2 C. Part 3 D. Part 4 - ANSWER-Part 3 The technical specifications reference ASHRAE as a publisher of numerous technical standards. What does the acronym ASHRAE stand for? A. American Steel Housing Rating Association of Engineers B. Associated Structural Hoists Rating Association of Engineers C. American Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Conditioning Engineers D. Associated Society for Home Rating Air Equipment - ANSWER-American Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Conditioning Engineers Which party is normally responsible for designing the temporary structures? A. owner B. engineer of record C. contractor/vendor D. architect - ANSWER-contractor/vendor Which of the following systems is designed to carry the total vertical load of a structure? A. piling B. cofferdam C. timber shoring D. cribbing and tiebacks - ANSWER-piling Which piece of equipment is most efficient for compacting granular soils, such as sand, gravel, and crushed stone? A. backhoe B. sheepsfoot C. smooth wheel roller D. wheel tractor scraper - ANSWER-smooth wheel roller Using the information provided in Figure 4, how many layers or mats of reinforcement are required for concrete beam 1B1? A. 1 B. 2 C. 12 D. 24 - ANSWER-2 Using the information provided in Figure 5, where is AHU-1 located? A. Lower Level B. Prayer Room 205 C. Sanctuary Room 202 D. Mechanical Room 107 - ANSWER-Mechanical Room 107 . Which document notifies the contractor of the forms, content, and procedures for submitting the bid proposal? A. general conditions B. general requirements C. instructions to bidders D. supplementary conditions - ANSWER-instructions to bidders Which party has the design liability for a prescriptive specification? A. owner B. contractor C. architect/engineer D. code official - ANSWER-architect/engineer A specification reads as follows: "Furnish, install, operate, and maintain all necessary pumping equipment for dewatering the various parts of the work and for maintaining free of water the foundations and trenches as required for construction operations." Which type of specification is this? A. proprietary specification B. performance specification C. combination specification D. descriptive or design specification - ANSWER-performance specification The contractor submits a bid for $1,303,071 with the appropriate forms. They receive a notice of award letter indicating that their bid has been selected. The contractor decides not to accept the contract. Which of the following statements is a likely outcome? A. They will lose the amount of their bond premium. B. They will lose the amount of their bid bond face value. C. As long as the letter or contract has not been signed they can withdraw without ramifications. D. They will lose the amount of their performance bond face value. - ANSWER-They will lose the amount of their bid bond face value. Using the bond premium schedule below, what is the bond premium for a $2,755,000 project? First $5,000 = $12.00/$1,000 Next $2M = $6,000 + $7.25/$1,000 Next $2.5M= $20,500 + $5.75/$1,000 A. $19,974 B. $45,373 C. $55,974 D. $66,341 - ANSWER-$45,373 • First 5K = $5,000/1,000 × $12.00 = $60 • Next 2M = $6,000 + (2,000,000/1,000) × $7.25 = $20,500 • Next 2.5M = $20,500 + (2,755,000 - 2,005,000)/1,000 × $5.75 = $24,813 • $60 + 20,500 + 24,813 = $45,373 What does the R.S. Mean's unit of measure abbreviation MBF stand for? A. 100 board feet B. 1,000 board feet C. 1 million feet D. 1 million board feet - ANSWER-1,000 board feet . The plans call for the contractor to drive, pull, and salvage steel sheet piling 15 ft deep. The estimated quantity is 12,000 sq ft of contact area (SFCA). Given the crew makeup as shown in Figure 6, an 8-hr workday, and a crew daily output of 545 SFCA, how many total work hours are expended per day? A. 28 B. 32 C. 60 D. 100 - ANSWER-60 • 1 × 8 + 4 × 8 + 2 × 8 + .5 × 8 = 60 The plans call for the contractor to drive, pull, and salvage steel sheet piling 15 ft deep. The estimated quantity is 12,000 sq ft of contact area (SFCA). Given the crew makeup as shown in Figure 6, an 8-hr workday, and a crew daily output of 545 SFCA, what is the productivity rate expressed in work hours per unit (Whr/Unit)? A. 0.059 B. 0.110 C. 9.083 D. 17.031 - ANSWER-0.110 60Whr / 545SFCA Using the information provided in Figures 8a and 8b, how many bank cubic yards of soil must be excavated and removed? Assume the existing grade is 204 ft and that excavated soil is being used for backfilling. A. 40 B. 350 C. 1,070 D. 9,633,601 - ANSWER-350 Which statement is true about the critical path? A. is the shortest string of activities through the schedule B. is the longest string of activities through the schedule C. has zero total float but possibly some free float in the activities D. includes all activities that are impossible to compress their duration any further - ANSWER-is the longest string of activities through the schedule How is free float defined? A. the amount of slack in a node B. the amount of slack between activities C. the amount of slack within a series of activities D. the amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network - ANSWER-the amount of slack between activities Which types of activities are considered first when compressing the length of a project? A. zero float and least cost to compress B. zero float