CPO Test with correct 100% answer 2024

The ASIS International General Security Risk Assessment Guideline defines an asset as "Any real or personal property, tangible or intangible, that a company or individual owns, that can be given or assigned a monetary value. True or False - correct answer True CPTED stands for Crime Prevention through Environmental Dedication. True or False - correct answer False CPTED: Crime Prevention through Environmental Design Physical security planning was originally based upon response to a military threat. True or False - correct answer True Risk Management is a term closely associated with the insurance industry. True or False - correct answer True A vulnerability assessment will include a thorough examination of the following: A. Facility and personnel B. Contents and material C. Suppliers and contractors D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above Deterrence is the practice of discouraging an individual or group from even attempting to attack the asset. True or False - correct answer True All risks can be reduced completely. True or False - correct answer False There is a theory of loss control developed by Bottom and Kostanoski in security and loss control. It is known as: A. WASTE B. WASTMGMT C. WAECUP D. WHATSUP - correct answer C. WAECUP The most intangible valuation of an asset would be in what is referred to as: A. Liquid asset B. Respectful damage C. Punitive damage D. Reputational damage - correct answer D. Reputational damage Intangible property include things such as goodwill, proprietary information, and related property. True or False - correct answer False Intangible Property: Something which a corporation can have ownership of and can transfer ownership to another corporation, but has no physical substance, for example brand identity or knowledge/intellectual property. Which of these is a type of control force used in Ancient Rome? A. Roman chariots B. Praetorian guards C. Varangian guards D. Nubian mercenaries - correct answer B. Praetorian guards In what year and country did the Peshtigo Fire occur? A. 1655, England B. 1655, America C. 1871, England D. 1871, America - correct answer D. 1871, America Railroad police were, and still are, a privately employed police force with full law enforcement authority. True or False - correct answer True Which of these are reasons that are driving radical Islamic fundamentalism? A. Undereducated or miseducated young men who have learned that the United States is "The Great Satan" B. A large number of unemployed or underemployed people living in poverty. C. Charismatic leaders D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above What is the importance of the Taft-Hartley Act? A. This act ensured collective bargaining rights B. This allowed the first labor union to be formed C. The U.S. president, via the attorney general, can obtain an injunction against a strike or lockout if a substantial area is affected or national security is threatened. D. This act forced labor unions to temporarily disband until clearer regulations for labor unions could be put into place. - correct answer C. The U.S. president, via the attorney general, can obtain an injunction against a strike or lockout if a substantial area is affected or national security is threatened. Intrusion alarms are point protection only. True or False - correct answer True Which of these are lessons that have been learned by studying the history of security? A. The need for a chain of command B. An increase in professionalism C. The need for professional training D. Both B and C - correct answer D. Both B and C Allan Pinkerton was known for which of the following unique innovations? A. Arming officers with handguns B. Extensive centralized records C. A training camp for his employees D. The idea - correct answer B. Extensive centralized records The central alarm/dispatch operations is "the brain" of a security operation, serving as the command, control, and communications center. True or False - correct answer True Which of the following best describes a protection officer? A. A man or a woman hired to look after an entrance door. B. A man or a woman who concentrates on safety and security while others perform various tasks. C. A man or a woman in charge of welcoming visitors and providing them with information D. A man or a woman hired to dissuade potential trespassers - correct answer B. A man or a woman who concentrates on safety and security while others perform various tasks. The career path of a protection officer might take him through: A. Operational level B. Supervisory level C. Management level D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above The Professional Protection Officer has some essential characteristics. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Follows a code of ethics B. Shares a common history C. Masters the use of lethal and non-lethal weapons D. Owns a common body of knowledge - correct answer C. Masters the use of lethal and non-lethal weapons Competency can be demonstrated through professional certifications, and consists of an adequate balance of three characteristics. Which of the following is not one of those? A. Attitude B. Skills C. Communication D. Knowledge - correct answer C. Communication Every decision that a protection officer makes reflects on the organization he or she represents; for instance, patrol officers often times are the only people on the premises (during night and weekends). Which of the following tasks is most unusual to a basic protection officer? A. Collect intelligence on changes, unusual situations, or suspicious persons. B. Maintain compliance with organizational policies C. Legal consultant role D. interacting with the public in the environment - correct answer B. maintain compliance with organizational policies The basic role of the protection officer is to prevent, mitigate, and respond to: A. Intentionally created risks (security) B. Accidental and unintentional risks (safety, health, environment, and quality) C. Any and all risks in the WAECUP model D. None of the above - correct answer C. Any and all risks in the WAECUP model There are five types of critical resources to be protected; which of the following is not one of those? A. Time B. Information C. People D. Reputation - correct answer A. Time The value added by a protection officer's performance is measured in the level of improvement that his work brings into the organization's protective process and objectives. Examples of this can include: A. Vigilance of better practices and recommends state of the art standards B. Always reporting adequately and keeping adequate records C. Improving policies, procedures, job-specific instructions D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above All actions taken before active protective measures are performed can be included in the preventative functions. Which of the following is not one of those actions? A. Preventative investigations B. Identification of hazards and risk factors C. Induction training D. Separate physically or in time the aggressor from the objective - correct answer D. Separate physically or in time the aggressor from the objective One of the steps taken during response functions performed by protection officers is recovery. Which of the following is an example of it? A. Preventative investigations B. Identification of hazards and risk factors C. Video footage from a bank robbery is given to local police D. All the above - correct answer D. All the above Leaders and supervisors are not one and the same. Our expectation is that every supervisor is a leader but not every leader is necessarily a supervisor. True or False - correct answer True The key for a supervisor to get anyone to do anything is to: A. Threaten them to do it B. Get them to want to do it C. Bribe them to do it D. None of the above - correct answer B. Get them to want to do it Leadership is not about self-interest; it is about being other-person-centered. Thus, before embarking on a mission to become a leader, one should conduct a self-examination in all the following ways, except to: A. Assure that no one in the group will be able to pass you up and become your boss B. Make ethics more important than your career C. Have a deep desire to help others to solve both work-related and personal problems D. Find the potential in subordinates and push those subordinates to self-actualize - correct answer A. Assure that no one in the group will be able to pass you up and become your boss An effective team member will display the following attributes: A. Continuously identify ways to improve human performance B. Advise upline management when problems exist in work performance C. Be motivated to improve operations and always strive for excellence D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above Traits that can characterize a leader in any organization include all the following, except: A. Advocate teamwork in the ranks B. Encourage open communications C. Support complacency in the ranks D. None of the above - correct answer C. Support complacency in the ranks There are numerous critical leadership skills. A leader will display all of the following skill sets, except: A. High ethical beliefs and attitudes B. A high ability to communicate well while understanding and relating to all people C. Learning how the mission of the organization compares to the leader's career goals D. Being aware of the organization's mission and being focused on accomplishing that mission - correct answer C. Learning how the mission of the organization compares to the leader's career goals There are four communication skills needed for every leader. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Never missing a chance to shut up (listening) B. Top down as a priority communications direction C. Complete and concise face-to-face communications D. Reader-friendly written material, sending complete, clear, easily understood communications - correct answer B. Top down as a priority communications direction The optimal way to communicate is written. True or False - correct answer False Some experts say we conduct a vast amount of our communications nonverbally. No matter how we or others communicate nonverbally, we must always strive for clarification if we want to achieve understanding. Which of the following is true about nonverbal communications? A. The content is more difficult to read than verbal and written communications. B. The message being sent is usually just as important as other forms of communication C. Asking for clarification will keep the misunderstanding to a minimum D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above Leaders are often called upon to institute change in a department. Change is hard to accept by many subordinates because of insecurities or lack of trust. Resistance can be overcome by all of the following suggestions, except: A. When possible, discuss why the change is required B. Inform the employees that if they cannot accept the change you will help them find work elsewhere C. Be honest and consistent D. Answer questions, or take the information and follow-up if you don't know the answer - correct answer B. Inform the employees that if they cannot accept the change you will help them find work elsewhere Which of the following best describes the importance of career planning? A. Meet with parents and friends to determine which career is best B. Job shadow a professional currently in the field of one's potential career C. Complete a self-evaluation study that can be found on the internet D. None of the above - correct answer D. None of the above When earning an education what are the most important considerations? A. Determine if the college or university is accredited B. Gain work experience through internships or volunteer work C. Maintain a satisfactory grade point average D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above On average, how much of a salary increase do college graduates earn over noncollege graduates? A. 77% B. 58% C. 84% D. 35% - correct answer A. 77% Why is experience such an important component of your resume (Choose the best answer) A. Experience provides exposure to scenarios and interaction not available in the classroom B. Education is more important than experience and it is not necessary C. It demonstrates a high level of motivation D. A job allows the student to earn money while in school - correct answer A. Experience provides exposure to scenarios and interaction not available in the classroom. On average, how many certifications should one obtain? A. 8 B. 4 C. 9 D. None of the above - correct answer D. None of the above What is the difference between a functional and a chronological resume? A. A functional resume lists the functions that you performed at a job B. A functional resume is a summary of experience, whereas a chronological resume lists jobs or positions by dates of employment C. There is no difference D. A chronological resume only lists education and certification - correct answer B. A functional resume is a summary of experience, whereas a chronological resume lists jobs or positions by dates of employment When interviewing for a job, what preparation is necessary (Choose the best answer)? A. Drive the route to the interview location the day before B. Research the organization C. Be prepared to answer standard interview questions D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above Why do employers search social networking sites for applicant information? A. They want to find other candidates for other positions B. Searching these sites provides a quick and efficient way to learn more about the candidate C. To find a specific person's resume D. Employers do not search social networking sites on job applicants - correct answer B. Searching these sites provides a quick and efficient way to learn more about the candidate There are four strategies for developing a career; choose the one that is not a strategy. A. Develop a personal brand B. Network C. Find a mentor D. List one's resume on an online job board - correct answer A. Develop a personal brand What is one of the fastest growing fields related to security? A. Law enforcement B. Homeland security C. Private detectives D. Contract security - correct answer B. Homeland security Which of the following best describes effective communications? A. A faithful reproduction of a message sent to a receiver clearly understood and confirmed by the receiver B. A message sent by a communicator who expects the receiver to understand it C. A message that is sent to a person with hope that it will be understood by all D. All of the above - correct answer A. A faithful reproduction of a message sent to a receiver clearly understood and confirmed by the receiver Tort law expects every business to actively pursue the following: A. Employee background checks B. Due diligence regarding safety and security C. Adequate training of all employees D. Employee benefits - correct answer B. Due diligence regarding safety and security There are four channels of communications in most companies; which of the following is not a channel? A. Top-down communications B. Bottom-up communications C. Grapevine communications D. Reverse-horizontal communications - correct answer D. Reverse-horizontal communications There are six essentials of effective communications; which of the following is not one of those essentials? A. The communications must be complete B. The communications must be clear C. The communications must be consistent D. The communications must be concise - correct answer C. The communications must be consistent Effective communications has built-in flexibility to facilitate the needs of the receiver or receiver groups. Which of the following characteristics is important to take into consideration? A. Communications grade level remembering the seventh-grade midpoint rule. B. English as a Second Language (ESL), people with poor understanding of English C. Medical condition such as speech impediment, hearing loss, or poor sight D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above A very important part of effective communications is that the communicator must be able to tell which of the following? Choose the best answer. A. That the communications were necessary B. That the communications were timely C. That the message was received D. That the message has been received and understood - correct answer D. That the message has been received and understood The only misconception that causes more errors than any other in effective communications is: A. Every message must be brief B. Every message requires some interpretation C. Every message must be clear and concise D. None of the above - correct answer A. Every message must be brief The telephone equipment in a security program must be which of the following? Choose the best answer. A. It must be technologically rugged and capable of working under severe conditions B. It must be simple to use with the least probability of failing during an emergency C. It must be available on a 24/7 basis D. None of the above - correct answer B. It must be simple to use with the least probability of failing during an emergency In the security office, separate and apart from the general use telephone, there will be a red phone used exclusively for emergencies. That phone will have the following attachments to make it more effective. Which of the following is not one of those attachments? A. Ringer B. Strobe C. Tape recording device D. Beeping sound every 3 seconds - correct answer C. Tape recording device During some emergency situations, the phone system will be destroyed, especially when there is a building collapse. What can we do to protect that phone line? A. Use a separate single-cable phone line not part of the building's main phone system B. Place the telephone cable inside of a metal conduit C. Have the cable enter/exit the building at the lowest level of the building D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above Security awareness is simply letting everyone know in the organization how security impacts them and how important they are, as stakeholders and team members, to the continued success of the company. True or False - correct answer True To be effective, the security department should instill "security awareness" among all levels of the organization and external partners. True or False - correct answer True Security awareness meetings should be held with all departments at a minimum frequency of: A. Annually B. Quarterly C. Weekly D. Daily - correct answer B. Quarterly Security awareness should be instilled among half of the members, from all layers of the organization and external partners. True or False - correct answer True In double loop communication, information should not only flow from the top of the organization but also a process should be in place for information to travel back to the top. True or False - correct answer True The "lessons learned" examples help employees and partners understand why security awareness is important to them personally and for the success of the organization. True or False - correct answer True Which is a method to increase security awareness among all layers of the organization and external partners? A. Eyeglasses B. Bright lights C. Interactive activities D. None of the above - correct answer C. Interactive activities Focus groups consist of: A. Organizations B. External partners C. Individuals selected by management D. None of the above - correct answer C. Individuals selected by management When double loop communications is used, the following employees have the opportunity to become active: A. Police officers B. Stakeholders C. Managers D. None of the above - correct answer B. Stakeholders Team members are trained and polled regularly to heighten their awareness about changing trends in practices and rapidly advancing technology in security. True or False - correct answer True Magnetic contact switches, motion sensors and glass break sensors are examples of what kind of sensors? A, Access control B. Building automation C. Closed circuit television D. Intrusion - correct answer A. Access control Magnetic stripe, wiegand, proximity and biometric are examples of access control readers. True or False - correct answer True An advanced radio dispatch system may consist of the following: A. Touch screen interface B. Voice recording C. Remote paging D. All of the above - correct answer D. All of the above A main component of a medium to large access control system is the following: A. Access control B. Distributed processor C. Card data D. Field - correct answer B. Distributed processor Network Attached Storage (NAS) and Storage Area Networks (SAN) are examples of Large capacity storage devices used with video surveillance systems. True or False - correct answer A. True The 10-codes are used to assist with rapid transmission of radio communications. True or False - correct answer True Access control sensors may be used to detect unauthorized access to a facility, and to generate security alarms in response. Which of the following is not one of those access control sensors? A. Magnetic contact switch B. Network attached storage device C. Keypad locks D. REX or request to exit device - correct answer B. Network attached storage device A transmission medium is simply the method by which an electronic message is carried. Signals may be transmitted in a variety of ways. Which of the following is not one of those mediums used to transmit electronic messages? A. Copper wire B. Fiber optics C. Cellular Transmission D. None of the above - correct answer D. None of the above A smoke detector is a device to manually initiate a fire alarm. True or False - correct answer True Gas, temperature and power failure are examples of which of the following sensors? A. Access control B. Building automation C. Closed circuit television D. Fire alarm - correct answer B. Building automation Automated visitor management systems should only be used in large, complex organizations with multiple facilities. True or False - correct answer False One use for crime mapping is to help determine where to locate new facilities. True or False - correct answer True Studies indicate that security technologies will soon make security officers obsolete. True or False - correct answer False Incident Management Systems today are really nothing more than word processing systems that allow an officer to enter reports electronically. True or False - correct answer False Two dangers mentioned in this chapter that protection professionals should be aware of in using online resources are (Choose two): A. The possibility of going off on a tangent rather than focusing on the objective. B. The possibility of introducing a virus to the system C. Accidentally disseminating sensitive information to unauthorized recipients. D. Assuming that information in online databases is credible. - correct answer C. Accidentally disseminating sensitive information to unauthorized recipients. D. Assuming that information in online databases is credible. Among the advantages of automated visitor management systems are (choose all that apply): A. Ability to reduce costs by integrating with access control systems B. Ability to keep a searchable record of visitors C. Ability to better account for all building occupants during an evacuation D. Ability to support subsequent investigations in the event of an incident. - correct answer A. Ability to reduce costs by integrating with access control systems B. Ability to keep a searchable record of visitors C. Ability to better account for all building occupants during an evacuation D. Ability to support subsequent investigations in the event of an incident. A study by Bolyard and Powell concluded that "security officers lacking this knowledge would be placed at a great disadvantage..." What "knowledge" were they referring to? A. An understanding of basic electronic security systems and design parameters B. A thorough understanding of contemporary information technology )IT) security threats and risks C. An orientation on automated tools such as incident and visitor managements systems as well as crime mapping and analysis D. An orientation on the historical basis for automation in protection operations as it applies to the security industry in the United States - correct answer C. An orientation on automated tools such as incident and visitor managements systems as well as crime mapping and analysis Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are closely related to: A. Integrated security systems B. Crime mapping systems C. Automated incident management systems D. Graphical user interface systems - correct answer B. Crime mapping systems A number of studies in recent years have projected massive expansion of electronic security systems employing advanced technologies, but they also concluded that the human element (i.e., security officers) will not be predominantly replaced by technology. True or False - correct answer True Technology and automation is not bringing the benefits, efficiencies, and opportunities to the field of security and asset protection that was anticipated. True or False - correct answer False Uniformed and paid police did not come around until which of the following: A. The early 1900s just before World War I B. The 1830s when Philadelphia started paying police C. The late 1700s about the start of the Revolutionary War D. 725 A.D. - correct answer B. The 1830s when Philadelphia started paying police The patrol function is the least important but necessary part of the loss control approach. True or False - correct answer False Based on organizational needs, there are many major purposes of patrol. Which of the following is not one of those purposes? A. To detect unauthorized activity B. To prevent unauthorized activity C. To perform an activity that creates the appearance of authority D. To provide emergency response in a timely fashion - correct answer C. To perform an activity that creates the appearance of authority There are basically two types of patrol. Which of the following are those two types? A. Mobile and foot patrol B. CCTV Surveillance and foot patrol C. Canine patrol and checking ID's at the main entrance D. None of the above - correct answer A. Mobile and foot patrol Preparation for a patrol tour of duty requires more than just putting on the uniform and going to work. It also requires mental and psychological preparation. True or False - correct answer True If the officer is working the overnight shift, 2200 to 0600, it is advisable to do which of the following: A. Stop ingesting alcohol-laced adult beverages two hours before the shift B. Sleep at least 10 hours before the shift to assure alertness all through the night C. Ingest at least four cups of coffee to keep awake all night D. Visit the work site during the day for facility orientation - correct answer D. Visit the work site during the day for facility orientation There are numerous techniques that help an officer to detect unusual situations. Which of the following is one of those techniques? A. Get acquainted with the people on your shift and where they should be and what they do B. Get to know maintenance personnel and how they can help you C. Visit the central alarm station and become familiar with the CCTV system and what the area coverage is D. All the above - correct answer D. All the above One area of preparation often overlooked by many security departments is: A. Failing to provide continuing training and education B. Failing to perform driver license checks on each patrol officer C. Failing to provide less-than-lethal weapons to each officer D. Equipping the patrol vehicle with wrong colored flashing lights - correct answer A. Failing to provide continuing training and education Which of the following is a principle of patrol that every patrol person should follow: A. A patrol should always be done in a random fashion B. The time the patrol officer leaves on patrol each time should be random C. Keep in communications with either internal or external backup support when needed D. All the above - correct answer D. All the above There are many internal factors that can influence a patrol officer's performance in a negative way. Which of the following is not one of those internal factors? A. Fatigue B. Preoccupation with personal problems C. Environmental conditions D. Boredom - correct answer C. Environmental conditions The following sign is without doubt the most important sign in use today. A. Yield B. No U-turns C. Stop D. None of the above - correct answer C. Stop Directing traffic from or at a gate would include such duties as checking A. Traffic flow B. Entry pass C. Travel tickets D. All the above - correct answer D. All the above On private property, the safe movement of traffic is the responsibility of the security officer. True or False - correct answer True When signaling a driver to stop, your hand should be: A. Closed B. Palm open C. Finger pointed D. Fist clenched - correct answer B. Palm open Slow or timid drivers should not be urged forward with increased rapidity of arm motion because they may over-react and cause an accident. True or False - correct answer False Directing traffic from the corner position is safer than a center-of-the-intersection position. True or False - correct answer True Proper protection against the elements is an important factor in maintaining effective traffic control. True or False - correct answer True The primary use of the traffic whistle is to attract the police. True or False - correct answer False General rules for traffic direction are: A. Select a position best suited for the intersection B. Use uniform signals and gestures C. Be cheerful, but firm D. All the above - correct answer D. All the above When on traffic control, proper equipment includes: A. Proper clothing B. Flashlight C. Radio D. All the above - correct answer D. All the above In controlling a hostile crowd, sufficient ______________ is/are basic to your success. A. Force B. Manpower C. Time D. Weapons - correct answer A. Force The protection officer should attempt to isolate and individual troublemaker by: A. Taking them down B. Tranquilizing them C. Removing them D. Arresting them - correct answer C. Removing them If you observe a hostile crowd gathering, never hesitate to request additional: A. Weapons B. Assistance C. Rioters D. Vehicles - correct answer B. Assistance A demonstration is a crowd that is exhibiting sympathy for or against authority, or some political, economical, or social condition. True or False - correct answer True A riot means any extreme or catastrophic condition that imperils or results in loss of life and/or property. True or False - correct answer True The basic reason for the information of any crowd is the occurrence of an event that is of common interest to each individual. True or False - correct answer True A leaderless crowd that is attempting to flee from something it fears is a/an: A. Spectator crowd B. Emotional crowd C. Hostile crowd D. Escape crowd - correct answer D. Escape crowd Some psychological factors in crowd formation are: A. Security B. Novelty C. Loss of identity D. None of the above E. All the above - correct answer E. All the above The protection officer dealing with crowds should: A. Exchange pleasantries with the crowd B. Give the impression he/she will enforce orders C. Apologize for his/her actions D. All of the above E. None of the above - correct answer B. Give the impression he/she will enforce orders Some riot control, force deployment procedures are: A. Arrowhead, left and right flanking line B. Right flanking, bullet, left flanking C. Line, bow, arrowhead D. Arrowhead, bullet, left flanking - correct answer A. Arrowhead, left and right flanking line Environmental crime control theory focuses upon the _____________ of the criminal act: A. Time B. Location C. Perpetuator D. Victim - correct answer B. Location Basically the offender uses a decision making process whereby the positive and negative aspects of committing a particular act is weighed. This is an example of: A. CPTED (Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design) B. Routine activity theory C. Rational choice theory D. Defensible space - correct answer C. Rational choice theory The application of situational crime prevention techniques are the results of this theory. A. Rational choice theory B. Routine activity theory C. Crime pattern theory D. Defensible space - correct answer C. Crime pattern theory There are _____ aspects of displacement. A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six - correct answer D. Six There are three key concepts specific to CPTED. Which of the following is not one? A. Natural Surveillance B. Defensible space C. Natural access control D. Territorial behavior - correct answer B. Defensible space There are _________ main categories of Situational Crime Prevention Techniques. A. Three B. Four C. Five. D. Six - correct answer C. Five Defensible Space: Crime Prevention Through Urban Design was created by: A. Oscar Newman B. Marcus Felson C. Patricia Brantingham D Ronald V. Clarke - correct answer A. Oscar Newman This revolves around public housing and seeks to reduce crime through the use of natural surveillance, natural access control and territorial concern. A. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) B. Crime Pattern Theory C. Defensible D. Rational Choice Theory - correct answer A. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) Routine Activity Theory, developed by Cohen and Felson, revolves around three things: which of the following is not one of the three factors? A. A potential offender B. A suitable target C. Acting under the influence of drugs or alcohol D. The absence of a capable guardian - correct answer C. Acting under the influence of drugs or alcohol