OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 21: Skin and Eye Infections

OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 21: Skin and Eye Infections * = Correct answer Multiple Choice 1. The top part of the skin, which is exposed to the environment, is called: A. adipose tissue B. the dermis C. the epidermis* D. the hypodermis 2. Which bacterial genus is commonly associated with acne? A. Candida B. Clostridium C. Propionibacterium* D. Salmonella 3. Papillomas are also known as: A. comedones B. pustules C. urticaria D. warts* 4. Tinea corporis is also known as: A. conjunctivitis B. ringworm* C. viral keratitis D. warts 5. The conjunctiva is the: A. boundary of the lens of the eye B. layer of mucus covering the eye C. layer of tissue surrounding the entire eye D. mucous membranes of the eye* 6. A deep lesion that develops from multiple boils is called a: A. carbuncle* B. furuncle C. macule D. pustule 7. Systemic symptoms are most likely to develop with a: A. carbuncle* B. comedo C. cyst D. pustule 8. Which of the following describes impetigo? A. a highly contagious infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes that causes vesicles, pustules, and bullae* B. a mild and self-limiting viral infection that can be caused by a wide range of infectious agents C. a noncontagious rash (not caused by an infectious agent) that spreads rapidly across the skin D. a systemic fungal infection caused by Candida spp. and other species that is difficult to treat 9. Which of the following is true of the normal skin microbiota? A. It does not change over time. B. It is always identical in all parts of the body. C. It varies between moist and dry areas only, but is consistent in areas of similar moisture content. D. It varies depending on microenvironment and is an important part of the nonspecific immune system.* 10. One reason that the skin is inhospitable to microbes is that: A. It is moist and hypersaline, which prevents growth by most species of microbes. B. It is relatively lacking in salt and is hypotonic to bacteria. C. It is relatively moist and this inhibits their growth. D. The normal microbiota outcompetes other microbes and inhibits their growth.* 11. An important difference between sebaceous glands and sweat glands is that: A. Sebaceous glands are not typically associated with hair follicles, whereas sweat glands typically are associated with hair follicles. B. Sebaceous glands are tubular and sweat glands are coiled. C. Sweat glands are found fully within the dermis, whereas sebaceous glands are found fully within the epidermis. D. Sweat glands produce a watery fluid, whereas sebaceous glands produce lipid-rich sebum.* 12. How does sebum affect microbial growth on the skin? A. It dries out the skin, reducing the ability of microbes to grow where it is present. B. It may aid growth by providing nutrients but also has components that inhibit microbial growth.* C. It only aids microbial growth, providing a source of nutrition without generally having any harmful effects on microbes. D. It repels microbes and they cannot grow where it is present, making it an important part of the nonspecific immune response. 13. Sebum-rich areas of the skin, such as the back, generally harbor which of the following? A. highly mixed microbial populations, including a range of bacteria and fungi B. less diverse microbial populations than other regions* C. more diverse microbial populations than other regions D. varied microbial diversity that is difficult to predict compared with other skin regions 14. The normal skin microbiota primarily includes: A. bacteria and fungi only B. bacteria, fungi, and viruses* C. bacteria only D. fungi only 15. The vitreous humor: A. has a microbiota similar to that of the conjunctiva B. has a rich bacterial microbiota, but no fungi C. has a variable and diverse microbial population D. has no normal microbiota* 16. What is one way you can distinguish between a Streptococcus and a Staphylococcus infection? A. Staphylococcus bacteria are gram negative, whereas Streptococcus bacteria are gram positive. B. Streptococcus bacteria are catalase positive, whereas Staphylococcus bacteria are catalase negative. C. Streptococcus bacteria grow on mannitol salt agar, whereas Staphylococcus bacteria do not. D. Under the microscope, staphylococcus bacteria form clusters and Streptococcus bacteria do not.* 17. Individuals who wear contact lenses are at particular risk of developing which of the following? A. acute bacterial conjunctivitis B. blepharitis C. herpes simplex virus 1 lesions D. keratitis* 18. Neonatal conjunctivitis is commonly treated with which of the following? A. chloramphenicol B. erythromycin* C. fluoroquinolones D. penicillin 19. What does it mean to say that HSV-1 is often latent? A. It is always present in infected individuals, but lesions may be small or hidden. B. It is normally difficult to detect even when causing an active infection, unless appropriate screening tests are conducted. C. It undergoes cycles of rapid growth and slower growth, affecting the symptoms that can be observed. D. It undergoes periods of inactivity when it resides in trigeminal nerve ganglia and does not cause symptoms.* 20. To reduce transmission risk and symptoms, HSV-1 is often treated with which of the following? A. azithromycin B. fluoroquinolones C. itraconazole D. valacyclovir* 21. The relatively mild viral disease usually caused by human herpesvirus-6, or sometimes human herpesvirus-7, is better known as: A. chicken pox B. fifth disease C. measles D. roseola* 22. Fifth disease is normally: A. allowed to resolve without treatment* B. prevented through vaccination C. treated intensively with intravenous antibiotics D. treated with topical antibiotic ointments 23. Tineas are commonly caused by which of the following? A. bacteria such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus B. human papillomaviruses, especially strains 16 and 18 C. parasites such as helminths D. Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, and Microsporum fungi* 24. Acanthamoeba keratitis is generally treated with which of the following? A. cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones B. chlorhexidine, azoles, and polyhexmamethylene biguanide* C. intravenous vancomycin administered in a hospital D. penicillins and related antibiotics 25. Deerflies spread which of the following? A. Acanthamoeba B. the loa loa worm* C. the varicella-zoster virus D. staphylococcal bacteria 26. Albendazole is a medication that affects the ability of organisms to use tubulin to synthesize microtubules. Although it has other uses, from this information, what can you tell about the type of infection it is used for? A. It is probably used to treat bacterial infections because bacteria use tubulin within their cell walls.