IAHCSMM CRCST 8TH EDITION - CRCST FINAL EXAM PREP JCSPD 2023 COMPLETE SOLUTION

IAHCSMM CRCST 8TH EDITION - CRCST FINAL EXAM PREP JCSPD 2023 COMPLETE SOLUTION Decontamination - Answer Removing or reducing contamination by infectious organisms or other harmful substances. Decontamination Area - Answer location within a healthcare facility designated for collection, retention, and cleaning of soiled and/or contaminated items. Negative air pressure. Workflow - Answer the workflow in a central service department is designed to avoid cross-contamination and insure that items efficiently flow through the process from decontamination to storage. Central Service Workflow - Answer Decontamination. Preparation/packaging/sterilization. Sterile storage. Preparation/Packaging/Sterilization Area - Answer Items are carefully inspected for cleanliness proper function, and defects. Instruments, utensils, and other devices are assembled into sets, and are then packaged and labeled in preparation for sterilization. positive air pressure Sterile Storage - Answer The supply area of central service is dedicated to the storage of sterile and clean supplies. Positive air pressure. Case cart system - Answer an inventory control system for products/equipment typically used in an operating room that involves use of an enclosed cart generally prepared for one surgical case. Case cart pull sheet / pick list - Answer a list of specific supplies, utensils and instruments for a specific procedure. Central service technicians use these lists to assemble the items needed for individual surgical procedures. Negative air pressure - Answer the situation that occurs when air flows into a room or area because the pressure in the area is less than that of surrounding areas. Positive air pressure - Answer the situation that occurs when air flows out of a room or area because the pressure in the area is greater than that of surrounding areas. Processing cycle - Answer Use.Return. Identify. clean. assemble. package. sterilize. store. Deliver. At each step in the process, items are inspected to ensure that they are clean, in good repair, assembled and processed correctly. Standard precautions - Answer methods of using appropriate barriers to prevent transmissions of infectious organisms from contact with blood and all other body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes. applies to all patients, regardless of diagnosis or presumed infectious status. Nosocomial - Answer hospital acquired infection Hemi- - Answer half gastro - Answer stomach -ectomy - Answer surgical removal hemigastrectomy - Answer removal of half of the stomach colo - Answer colon hemicolectomy - Answer removal of half of the colon -ac -al -ic -eal -ary -ous. are examples of. - Answer pertaining to. endo- - Answer within artery - Answer artery -cide - Answer kill -itis - Answer inflammation -cise - Answer cut -ectomy - Answer surgical removal -oscopy - Answer visual exam of an organ or joint-ostomy - Answer creation of a new -otomy - Answer incision into an organ laparoscopy - Answer visual exam of organs in the abdomen colostomy - Answer creation of new opening to the colon on the body -pexy - Answer surgical fixation orchiopexy - Answer surgically fixation of an undescended testicle to the correct location. -plasty - Answer surgical restoration, plastic repair. rhinoplasty - Answer surgical repair of the nose -rrhaphy - Answer to suture -tome - Answer a cutting instrument dermatome - Answer an instrument used for cutting skin. artho - Answer joint cardio - Answer heart chole - Answer bile cholecyst - Answer gall bladder costo - Answer rib intercosto - Answer between the ribs gastro - Answer stomach gyne - Answer woman hema - Answer blood hepat - Answer liver cranio - Answer skull herni - Answer rupturehyster - Answer uterus lipo - Answer fat litho - Answer stone lithotripsy - Answer crushing of a stone oophor - Answer ovary rhino - Answer nose tracheo - Answer trachea tracheostomy - Answer surgical opening into trachea. hyper- - Answer above, excessive hypo- - Answer below, deficient pre- - Answer before sub- - Answer under, beneath supra- - Answer above bi- - Answer two/both sides hemi- - Answer half para- - Answer beside, near peri- - Answer around, about post- - Answer after ACL - Answer anterior cruciate Ligament. reconstruction or repairing of the anterior cruciate ligament. BSO - Answer Bilateral Salpingooophorectomy. surgical removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries BKA - Answer below the knee amputation CABG - Answer coronary artery bypass ion of a new blood supply to an area of the heart with a clotted/blocked artery. CR - Answer closed reduction. treatment of a fractured bone without a surgical incision. D & C - Answer dilation and curettage. dilate the uterine cervix and remove the inner lining of the uterus by scraping with a curette. ORIF - Answer open reduction internal fixation. treatment of a fractured bone with an incision and the use of plates and screws or pins to hold the fragments together. TAH - Answer total abdominal hysterectomy. surgical removal of the uterus through an incision in the abdomen. THA - Answer total hip arthroplasty. hip joint reconstruction. TURP - Answer transurethral resection of the prostate. surgical removal of part of the prostate gland by inserting instruments across the urethra to reach the prostate internally. Cell - Answer basic unit of life. the smallest structural unit of living organisms capable of performig all basic functions of life. Cell membran - Answer outer covering of a cell that regulates what enters and leaves. Cytoplasm - Answer the lining matter of a cell between the cell membran and nucleus. Nucleus - Answer functional center of a cell that governs activity and heredity. tissue - Answer a group of similar cells that perform a specialized funtion. organ - Answer a part of the body containing two or more tissues that function together for a specific purpose. Epithelial tissue - Answer Skin Connective tissue - Answer provides support, stores energy, and connects other tissues and parts. Bones, fat, cartilage. muscular tissue - Answer muscle nervous tissue - Answer tissue of communication.9 body systems - Answer CN-MURDERS Circulatory. nervous. muscular. urinary and excretory. reproductive. digestive. endocrine. respiratory. skeletal. system - Answer group of organs that work together to carry out a specific activity. tendons - Answer attaches muscle to bone. ligaments - Answer connects bone to another bone. cartilage - Answer type of flexible connective tissues ossification - Answer process which cartilage is replaced by bone. joint - Answer place where 2 bones meet. Types of joints - Answer Gliding joints; vertebrae/neck slide over one another. ball and socket; shoulder and hip. pivot joints; turning motion. hinge joints; knees, elbows. covering or lining of a joint - Answer synovial membrane. fluid produced and secreted by synovial membrane. - Answer synovial fluid 3 types of muscle tissue. - Answer Skeletal muscles - attached to bones by tendons. Smooth muscle - involuntary muscles, control breathing, digestive system, blood flow. cardiac muscle - involuntary muscles, heart beat. Nervous system - Answer controls all body activities, and allows us to respond to stimuli. Nerve tissue - Answer carries electrical messages from the brain and spinal cord that signal muscles to contract. 2 nervous system cells - Answer Neurons - carry and transmit information. Neuroglia - support and protect neurons. 3 brain membranes - Answer Pia matter - inner membrane.Arachnoid matter - middle membrane. Dura matter - outer membrane. Central nervous system - Answer brain & spinal cord. Peripheral nervous system - Answer all nerve tissue outside central nervous system. brain - Answer main control unit cerebrum - Answer large part of brain, controls mental activities and movement. cerebellum - Answer 2nd larges part of brain, controls muscle coordination, body balance, and posture. brain stem - Answer controls many automatic functions such as heartbeat and breathing. 3 eye layers - Answer sclera - white portion. choroid - middle layer, provides nourishment to eye. retina - 3rd layer receive and transmit impressions to brain. Endocrine system - Answer made of glands that produce hormones, has profound influence on metabolism, growth, personality, reproduction. Glands of the Endocrine system - Answer pituitary gland. thyroid gland. adrenal gland. pancreas. testes. ovaries. urinary and excretory system - Answer Pollution control eliminates waste. organs of the urinary system - Answer kidneys - remove excess water and waste from blood , yields urine. Ureters - connect kidneys to urinary bladder bladder - holds urine. urethra - connect bladder to outside of body, piss tube. Liver - filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize toxins. skin - eliminates toxins through sweating. respiratory system - Answer supplies body with oxygen and removes carbon dioxide. inspiration - Answer inhaling air expiration - Answer exhaling airorgans of respiratory system - Answer Nose. pharynx. trachea. lungs. pharynx - Answer throat larynx - Answer voice box trachea - Answer windpipe esophagus - Answer tube that carries food from throat to stomach Digestive system - Answer converts food into energy (Digestive system) Alimentary system - Answer Mouth. esophagus. stomach. small intestine. large intestine. rectum. anus. Approximately 30 feet long. circulatory system - Answer transportation network. delivers nutrients and oxygen to body cells and carries away carbon dioxide and other harmful waste products. plasma - Answer 55% of blood is made up of plasma, yellowish liquid that is composed of 92% water, and proteins. Transports dissolved nutrients, enzymes, waste, through the body. Red blood cells - Answer rich in hemoglobin, takes oxygen to lungs, transports carbon dioxide to lungs, life span approximately 120 days white blood cells - Answer twice as large as red blood cells, can live for years, produced by bone marrow, they attack, destroy, and digest disease-producing organisms that enter the body. 4 chambers of the heart - Answer Atria - upper chambers, Left & Right. Ventricles - Lower chambers, left & right. aorta - Answer the largest blood vessel in the body arteries - Answer carry blood away from heartveins - Answer carry blood to heart capillaries - Answer connections between veins and arteries. contamination - Answer state of being soiled or infected by contact with infectious organisms or other material. cocci - Answer round or spherical shaped, occur in pairs, clusters, or chains. staphylococcus aureus. Bacillus - Answer Rods, brick shaped or stick-like. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Spirillum - Answer Spirals, comma shaped. helicobacter pylori Bacteria stain tests - Answer Gram stain. Ziehl-neilson stain/acid fast stain. Gram positive = purple Gram negative = Red spore - Answer microorganisms capable of forming a thick wall around themselves enabling them to survive in adverse conditions. aerobic bacteria - Answer requiring oxygen anaerobic bacteria - Answer Not requiring oxygen, deep puncture wound preceding tetanus or lockjaw. psychrophiles - Answer cold loving bacteria. mesophiles - Answer bacteria that grow best at moderate temperature. Most dangerous to humans. thermophiles - Answer hot temperature bacteria. binary fission - Answer way microorganisms reproduce multiply by dividing into two cells. vegetative stage - Answer state of active growth of microorganisms MRSA - Answer methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. bacteria that have developed resistance to methicillin. VRE - Answer vancomycin resistant enterococcus. bacteria that are no longer sensitive to - Answer minute infectious agents that grow only in living tissues or cells. about 1000 times smaller than bacteria. fungi - Answer plant-like organisms including molds, mushrooms, and yeasts. Feed on living or dead organisms. chain of infection - Answer causative agent. reservoir of agent. portal of exit. mode of transmission. portal of entry. susceptible host. regulation - Answer mandatory law or rule that is issued by a governing body. standard - Answer method of defining basic parameters for processes, products, services, and measurements. regulatory standard - Answer benchmark that is mandated by a governing agency and, if not complied with, may cause a facility to be in violation a d liable for legal penalty. voluntary standard - Answer benchmark that is strongly recommended. statute - Answer written and enforceable law enacted by a governing body. FDA - Answer Food and Drug administration. Regulates Medical devices, Medical device recalls, device classification. Etc Class 1 device - Answer low risk devices. Most hand-held surgical instruments, and ultrasonic cleaners. Subject to general controls which include registration and device listing, device reporting, and quality regulation and labeling. exempt from PMA and 510k Class 2 device - Answer pose potential risks great enough to warrant higher level of regulation. Sterilization equipment, packaging materials, biological and chemical indicators. Requires 510k before they can sell these products, subject to performance standards. Class 3 device - Answer most stringently regulated, pose greatest risk, heart valves, pacemakers, life sustaining devices. Most obtain a PMA, to demonstrate safety and effectiveness. 510k - Answer required for class 1 and class 2 devices, comprehensive package of information designed to demonstrate that the new product is substantially equivalent to one or more devices already being marketed.PMA - Answer required for most class 3 devices which are new to the market, a PMA is more complicated to complete because it must prove the device has a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for its intended use based on valid scientific evidence. FDA Recall Class 1 - Answer High Risk. Reasonable chance product will cause serious problems or death. FDA Recall Class 2 - Answer Serious Risk. possibility product will cause a temporary or reversible health problem or remote chance that device will cause serious health problem. FDA Recall Class 3 - Answer Low Risk. little chance that using or being exposed to the product will cause health problems. CDC - Answer Centers for Disease Control. promote the health and quality of life by preventing and controlling disease, injury, and disability, and by responding to health emergencies. DOT - Answer Department of Transportation. EPA - Answer Environmental protection agency. create and enforce laws relating to cleaner water, air, and land. Regulate products such as disinfectants, and sanitizers. OSHA - Answer Occupational Safety and Health Administration. protect workers from occupational-caused illnesses and injuries. Exposure to bloodborne Pathogens standard and guidelines for the use of Ethylene Oxide sterilization. AAMI - Answer Association for the advancement of Medical Instrumentation. Develop new or revise existing recommended practices and standards that address the use, care and processing of devices and systems. ANSI - Answer American National standards Institute. promote and facilitate voluntary consensus standards and ensuring their integrity. AORN - Answer Association of operating room nurses. Dedicated to providing optimal care to the surgical patient. APIC - Answer Association for professionals in infection control and Epidemiology. Dedicated to the prevention and control of infections and related outcomes. Joint Commission - Answer Develops standards for health care facilities. on site surveys at least every three years, loss of accreditation can result in forfeiture of medicare and medicaid payments.USP-NF - Answer United states pharmacopoeia - national formulary. creates and revises standards for medicines, dosages, forms, drug substances, and dietary supplements. Also set standards for packaging, labeling, bacteriological purity, pH, and mineral content. SGNA - Answer Society of Gastroenterology Nurses and associates. collects information and establishes standards and guidelines relating to the processing of flexible endoscopes. Central Service Umbrella. - Answer U-N-S-A-A-A-F-E-J-O. USP-NF. NFPA. State Law. APIC. AORN. AAMI. FDA. EPA. Joint Commission. OSHA. goals of the central service Deparment - Answer Eliminate and/or destroy all potentially infectious contaminants present on reusable instruments and equipment. safely distribute instruments and equipment. Establish and enforce standards for decontamination, disinfection and sterilization. infection - Answer invasion of human body tissue by microorganisms which multiply and produce a reaction. the primary purpose of the central service department is to stop the spread of disease producing microorganisms in the healthcare facility. - Answer each year approximately 2 million patients, about 10% of those hospitalized in U.S. hospitals develop healthcare facility-associated infection. Resulting in an estimated 90,000 deaths. fingernails of personnel working in high-risk areas should be maintained at a length of. - Answer 1/4 inch or less because they may harbor microorganisms. Putting on PPE - Answer Shoe covers. Gown. Mask/respirator. googles. face shield. Gloves. Removing PPE - Answer Shoe s. face shield. googles. gown. mask/respirator. PPE - Answer specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard. Standard Precautions - Answer appropriate barriers to prevent transmission of infectious organisms from contact with blood and all other body fluids, non-intact skin, mucous membranes. It applies to all patients, regardless of diagnosis or presumed infectious status. OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, published in 1991. Places responsibility for providing safe work environment on the employer, and contains several key elements. - Answer Written exposure control Plan - THE PLAN. Employee Training. Provide Free hep B vaccine. Observe standard precautions. physically remove hazards. provide PPE. Clean/sanitary work environment. biohazard signs. disposal of all sharps in rigid containers. proper transport of contaminated items. Decontamination work area - Answer 60°F-65°F 30%-60% humidity. 10 air exchanges per hour. Negative air pressure. preparation and packaging work area - Answer 68°F-73°F 30%-60% humidity. 10 air exchanges per hour. positive air pressure. Clean/sterile storage - Answer 75°F or lower less than 70% humidity. 4 air exchanges per hour. positive air pressure. What to Wear: Biohazard - Answer these areas may be contaminated from used equipment, utensils, and instruments. OSHA-required PE is required in these areas. RED.What to Wear: Unrestricted - Answer general public areas, street clothes may be worn in unrestricted areas. GREEN What to Wear: Semi-Restricted - Answer Support areas to the OR, such as central service clean assembly and sterile storage areas, and access corridors to operating rooms. Surgical scrub attire and hair coverings are required in these areas. WHITE. What to Wear: Restricted - Answer areas where sterile procedures are performed. Surgical scrub attire, hair coverings, and masks are required in these areas. Persons working within the sterile field have additional requirements of a sterile surgical gown and gloves. BLUE. fomite - Answer an inanimate object that can transmit bacteria. Environmental housekeeping - Answer floors should be wet mopped at least daily. Environmental housekeeping - Answer horizontal work surfaces such as counters and worktables should be cleaned at least daily. Environmental housekeeping - Answer light fixtures or their covers should be cleaned at least every 6 months. Environmental housekeeping - Answer walls, cabinets, and racks should be cleaned on a regularly scheduled basis. Workflow - Answer the workflow in a central service department is designed to avoid cross-contamination and insure that items efficiently flow through the process from decontamination to storage. progression from contaminated to steile - Answer USER. Decontamination. inspection and assembly. sterilization. sterile storage. USER. asepsis - Answer the absence of microorganisms that cause disease aseptic technique - Answer any activity or procedure that prevents infection or breaks the chain of infection. asepsis medical - Answer reduce the number of microorganisms to minimize their is surgical - Answer eliminate the presence of all microorganisms, and/or prevent the introduction of microorganisms to an area. Principles of Asepsis - Answer Know what is dirty. Know what is clean. Know what is sterile. keep the 3 conditions separate. Remedy contamination immediately. conductivity - Answer measurement of the ability of water to carry an electrical current. deionization - Answer process by which ions with an electrical charge are removed from water. reverse osmosis - Answer diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane to eliminate impurities that it contains. silicate - Answer mineral commonly found in water that is derived from silca found in quartz and other components. Ideal level in water used for cleaning is 100 ppm or less chloride - Answer compound commonly found in water that is created when chlorine is combined with another element or radical, such as a salt or hydrochloric acid. ideal level is 100 ppm or less. total dissolved solids - Answer include elements such as iron, silicates, calcium, and magnesium. bluish or rainbow-type stains - Answer are caused by iron and silicates in water powdery or chalky stains/build ups - Answer are caused by calcium and magnesium in the water. water softeners - Answer used to remove calcium and magnesium in water. GAC - granular activated charcoal - Answer used to remove chlorides in water. also used to treat water in a deionization or reverse osmosis system, placed before the system to reduce the chlorides that would inhibit effectiveness. Distillation - Answer Distillation is the process of heating a liquid until it boils, then condensing and collecting the resultant hot vapors. Removes dissolved solids, gasses and organics, along with particles, bacteria, pyrogens, and endotoxins. Deionization - Answer water filtration process whereby total dissolved solids (TDS) are removed from water through ion exchange. In simple terms, by controlling the electric charge of ions in the water, it is possible to remove the TDS.Reverse Osmosis - Answer a technique for purifying water, in which pressure is applied to force liquid through a semipermeable membrane in the opposite direction to that in normal osmosis enzymatic products - Answer contain protease enzymes that are useful in removing proteins such as dried-on blood and tissue. Water temperatures should not exceed 140°F because the enzymes become inactive. Protease enzyme - Answer protein soils lipase enzyme - Answer fat soils amylase enzyme - Answer starches chelating agents - Answer are chemical compounds that form complexes with metal ions or other substrates. They are also called chelators or sequestering agents. Emulsifier - Answer surrounds particles to prevent them from re-attaching and help break bonds that oils can create to trap soil hot water temperatures - Answer 120°F -165°F gross soil - Answer tissue, body fat, blood, and other body substances. point of use preparation - Answer helps prolong life of instruments. makes the cleaning process easier. cleaning - Answer removal of all visible and non-visible soil, and any other foreign material from the medical device being reprocessed. decontamination - Answer removing or reducing contamination by infectious organisms or other harmful substances. cleaning is: - Answer the first step in reprocessing a device after use. Emergency eyewash/shower equipment - Answer should be accessible within 10 seconds or 100 feet of potential chemical exposure. Manual cleaning - Answer physically remove deposits, water temperature should be below 110°F this will help prevent the coagulation of proteins. idealy between 80°F- 109°F Decontamination area housekeeping - Answer work surfaces should be cleaned and disinfected at the beginning and end of each shift. spills spot-cleaned s cleaned and disinfected daily. biohazardous waste removed frequently. wetting agent - Answer substance that reduces the surface tension of a liquid, and allow the liquid to penetrate or spread more easily across the surface of a solid. detergents - Answer substances that can dislodge, remove, and disperse solid and liquid soils from a surface being cleaned. lower surface tension. break up and disperse soil. keep soils and dirt in suspension. when cleaning aluminum or stainless steel a "to and fro" motion in the direction of the grain should be used rather than a circular motion. - Answer this will help to prevent scratching the surface of the item and causing damage. 3 sink arrangement used for manual cleaning - Answer wash sink with water and a detergent solution. intermediate rinse sink, plain or softened/deionzed water. final rinse sink distilled/deionized water. washers - Answer automated equipment used to clean decontaminate or disinfect and dry medical devices. cavitation - Answer process used by ultrasonic cleaner in which low pressure bubbles in a cleaning solution burst inward and dislodge soil from instruments. ultrasonic cleaners - Answer 20,000-38,000 vibrations per second are transmitted through the detergent bath and create cavitation, small gas bubbles develop and implode this creates a vacuum that draws soil from cracks and crevices. impingement - Answer spray force action of pressurized water against instruments being processed to physically remove bioburden. mechanical washer cycles - Answer pre-rinse- at lower temp. detergent cycle - higher temp. lubrication cycle. final rinse cycle. dry cycle. free rinsing - Answer refers to the removal of any residue of cleaning agents and chemicals remaining after the cleaning process and is necessary regardless of whether a manual or automated cleaning process is used. medical waste categories - Answer general trash. regulated medical dous waste. low-level radioactive waste. regulated medical waste - Answer represents risk to public health and environment. Sharps. selected isolation - biological waste and discarded materials. pathological waste - human tissue, organs, and body parts. Human blood. disinfectant - Answer a chemical which kills most pathogenic organisms, but does not kill spores, and is not a sterilant sterile - Answer completely devoid of all living microorganisms antiseptics - Answer a solution which inhibits the growth of bacteria. usually used topically and only used on animate objects disinfection - Answer the destruction of nearly all pathogenic microorganisms on an inanimate surface thermal disinfection - Answer the use of heat to kill all organisms except spores sterilization - Answer process by which all forms of microbial life including bacteria, viruses, spores, and fungi are completely destroyed. bactericidal - Answer relating to the destruction of bacteria cleaning of items is the first and most important step in any sterilization or high-level disinfection process. Items should be cleaned until no visible tissue residue, fluid, or soil remains on them. - Answer excessive moisture must be removed from items before they are disinfected, disinfectant solution can be diluted by water and it is unable to kill certain microorganisms within the recommended exposure time. Effectiveness of disinfectants depends on several factors including: - Answer Type & amount of microorganisms. Contact. Time. Temperature. pH. Water quality. device material. Positioning of device. spaulding classification - Answer Earle Spaulding of Temple University (Philadelphia, Pa) in a 1939 paper on disinfection of surgical instruments in a chemical solution[1]proposed "a strategy for sterilization or disinfection of inanimate objects and surfaces based on the degree of risk involved in their use."[2] for the medical community. critical items - Answer Sterile body cavity. sterilization. Instruments or objects introduced directly into the blood stream or into other normally sterile areas of the body. Semi-Critical items - Answer Mucous membranes. High-level disinfection. these items come in contact with intact mucous membranes, they do not ordinarily penetrate body surfaces. flexible endoscopes, endotracheal tubes, anesthesia breathing circuits, and cystoscopes. Non-critical items - Answer Intact skin. Low level disinfection. items usually come into direct contact with the patient but, in most instances, only with unbroken skin. high-level disinfection - Answer kills all vegetative microorganisms, tubercle bacilli, most fungi, non-lipid and small viruses, and lipid and medium-sized viruses with the exception of high numbers of bacterial spores. intermediate-level disinfection - Answer process that kills viruses, mycobacteria, fungi, and vegetative bacteria, but not spores. Low-level disinfection - Answer process that kills vegetative forms of bacteria some fungi, and lipid viruses. shelf life (disinfectants) - Answer the length of time a disinfectant can be properly stored after which it must be discarded Use life (disinfectants) - Answer length of time or number of times used after which the efficiency of a disinfectant is diminished. QUATS - Quaternary Ammonium Compounds. - Answer Low-Level disinfectant. Cationic, incompatible with soap. denatures essential cell protein, and disrupts cell membranes. Environmental sanitation of non-critical surfaces such as floors, walls, & furniture. Not the disinfectant of choice for use in central service. Phenolics - Answer intermediate to low-level disinfectant. penetrates cell wall, and precipitates cell protein. Residual activity. agent of choice for housekeeping services.Alcohol - Answer 70% isopropyl alcohol. denatures proteins. fast-acting no residue. 2-10 minutes. up to several hours to destroy viruses. used to flush endoscopes after disinfection to facilitate drying and discourage growth of residual microorganisms. Halogens - Answer chlorine & Iodine intermediate-level disinfectants. chlorine: widely used for disinfection of dialysis machines, hydrotherapy baths, bathrooms, also used as a bleach for laundry. Iodine: used in skin preparations, corrosive to metals Glutaraldehyde - Answer High level disinfectant used for semi-critical devices such as endoscopes and ultrasonic probes used in radiology. Kills by alkylation of protein. usually clear, turns green when activated, sharp pungent odor. Need very good ventilation when used 10 air exchanges per hour. Reuse for 14 - 28 days, tested with test strips, 1.5% MEC. high level disinfection 25 min sterilization soak time is 6-10 hours. Can be used in manual or automated system. OPA - ortho-phthalaldehyde - Answer High-level disinfectant. Does not have strong odor, good ventilation needed 10 air exchanges per hour. 12 minute soak time at room temp 68°F in a manual system, or 5 minute soak time at 77°F in and AER. copious amounts of rinsing needed. Not a sterilant. Requires no activation, kills by alkylation, 14 day reuse life, 2 year shelf life. MEC is 0.3% formaldehyde - Answer High-level = 8% formaldehyde + 70% alcohol. Intermediate-level = 4% to 8% + water. kills by alkylation. martensitic stainless steel - Answer also known as 400 series stainless steel. it is magnetic, and may be heat-hardened. used to make scissors, osteotomes, chisels, needle holders, forceps. austenitic stainless steel - Answer 300 series stainless steal, non-magnetic, cannot be heat-hardened, and is more corrosion resistant, more workable and malleable. retractors, cannulas, rib spreaders,suction devices. passivation - Answer chemical process applied during instrument manufacture that provides a corrosion resistant finish by forming a thin transparent chromium oxide film. uses nitric acid to remove all the iron content still found on outside layer. sharpness testing: Laparoscopic scissors. - Answer single-ply facial tissuesharpness testing: scissors 4.5 inches and larger. - Answer Red test material sharpness testing: scissors 4 inches and smaller - Answer yellow test material sharpness testing: bone cutter. kerrison rongeur. laminectomy rongeur. double action rongeur. - Answer Index card sharpness testing: Bone curette. chisels and osteotomes. - Answer plastic dowel rod instrument identification procedures Tape - Answer cut tape at angle. wrap tape 1-1.5 times around device shank. autoclave to bond tape to instrument. heat-fused nylon - Answer Dipping; powder coating process that leaves a thin layer of color nylon on instrument. tray assembly tips - Answer heavy instruments on bottom/side. adequate space for weight distribution. curves in same direction. forceps softly nested together. delicate instruments in micro cases. use a stringer. gomco and mogen circumcision clamps. - Answer never intermix parts from nonpatented/disposable clamps. Gap of clamps should be measured each year 1.5-2.5 mm lumen - Answer the interior path through a needle, tube, or surgical instrument. types of electric powered surgical instruments - Answer electric. pneumatic. battery. AER - Answer automatic endoscope reprocessor. automated equipment designed to clean, disinfect, and rinse flexible endoscopes. the minimum recommended practice for endoscope disinfection is high-level disinfection with a liquid sterilant/disinfectant with evidence of efficacy in clinical practice publishedin scientific literature. - Answer to achieve adequate high-level disinfection, all internal and external surfaces and channels must be in contact with the disinfecting agent. Glutaraldehyde. OPA - ortho-phthalaldehyde. Peracetic Acid. peracetic acid PA - Answer liquid oxidizing agent that is an effective biocide at low temperatures, used in a sterilization system that processes immersible diagnostic and surgical instruments primarily flexible and rigid scopes. items must be used immediately because they are wet and cannot be stored. advantages of AER - Answer timed cleaning. consistent exposure to agents. time contact with agents. use of air flush cycle. use of copious and consistent amounts of water. Endoscope channels - Answer Instrument channel. optical channel. suction channel. air/water channel leak test - Answer an endoscope processing procedure that ensures the devices flexible covering and internal channels are watertight. 6 basic steps are required to clean and reprocess endoscopes. - Answer pre-cleaning. leak testing. cleaning. high-level disinfecting/sterilizing. drying. storing. steps for reprocessing rigid scopes - Answer clean. inspect. high-level disinfect. sterilize. inspect. high-level disinfection and sterilization. rigid / semi-rigid scopes - Answer high level disinfection is recommended only for telescopes that come into contact with mucous membranes. Sterilization is recommended for telescopes to be used in any laparoscopic, arthroscopic, OB/GYN, plastic, reconstructive, or aesthetic surgery procedures. central service technician should log receipt of loaner instrumentation and implants with information including. - Answer Date / Tery person. receiving person. Doctors name. Patients name. number of trays. number of implants. prion - Answer virus-like infectious agents that cause a variety of neurodegenerative diseases in humans and animals, including scrapie in sheep and goats, bovine spongiform encephalopathy in cattle, and cretzfeldt-jakob disease in humans. seals tamper evidnet - Answer sealing methods for sterile packaging that allow users to determine if the packaging has been opened. two categories of sterility packaging. - Answer reusable. disposable. objectives of packaging process - Answer allow penetration of chosen sterilant. maintain sterility of package contents. allow for being opened aseptically. Reusable sterilization materials - Answer woven textiles. rigid sterilization containers. disposable sterilization materials. - Answer pouches. nonwoven wrap. muslin - Answer wide variety of plain-weave cotton or cotton/polyester fabrics having approximately 140 threads per square inch. superheating - Answer condition that arises when steam is at a temperature which exceeds that of saturated steam at the same pressure linen packs size limit - Answer 12x12x12, weight no more than 12 lbs, max density not to exceed 7.2 lbs packaging used for steam sterilization - Answer must be capable of withstanding high temps of , must allow air removal and steam penetration, and must permit drying. packaging used for ETO - Answer allow adequate of gas sterilant penetration and removal of gas reside "aeration" packaging used for dr heat sterilization - Answer must be able to tolerate 2-3 hrs of 320- 400 ging used for gas plasma - Answer must be able to tolerate deep vacuum draw, with out absorbing the sterilant. rigid container system - Answer instrument containers that hold medical devices during sterilization and also protect devices from contamination during storage and transport wet-pack - Answer containers with moisture, after the sterilization process is completed. kraft-type papers - Answer a medical grade paper packaging material used for numerous sterilization applications. SMS spunbond-meltblown-spunbond - Answer non woven packaging material which is the most popular flat wrap. papers/pouches that contain cellulose; - Answer cannot be used in gas plasma sterilizers because cellulose absorbs the sterilant and reduces penetration of sterilant. paper plastic pouches/SMS wraps - Answer acceptable for use with steam and EtO sterilization processes. spunbond polyolefin-plastic/SMS wraps - Answer used for gas plasma sterilization. Referred to as tyvek pouches, contains no cellulosic materials therefore compatible with gasplasma/Hydrogen peroxide. basin sets should not exceed - Answer 7 lbs wicking material - Answer an approved absorbent material that allows for air removal, steam penetration and facilitates drying. package labeling should include - Answer description of contents. initials of assembler. lot control number. sterilizer ID and cycle. Date/Time. packaging materials should be held; - Answer at room temperature 64°F-72°F, humidity ranging from 35% - 70% for a minimum of two hours before sterilization. wrapped pans of instruments should not exceed. - Answer 16 lbs containerized instrument sets should not exceed - Answer 25 lbs sterility time related - Answer specific expiration date is reaachedsterility event related - Answer considered sterile unless the integrity of the packaging is compromised or suspected of being compromised by an event regardless of expiration date. FIFO - Answer first in first out. point of use processing - Answer occurs when a medical device is processed immediately before use, and/or close to the patient care area flash sterilization / IUSS - Answer process by which unwrapped instruments are sterilized for immediate use when an emergency situation arises. 3 agencies that have established standards, guidelines, and recommendations for IUSS - Answer AAMI. AORN. Joint commission. Flash/IUSS cycles - Answer gravity. pre-vacuum. express. commun IUSS exposure times - Answer 3. 4. 10. IUSS gravity cycle. single instrument comprised of metal and without lumens. - Answer 3 minutes @ 270°F IUSS gravity cycle. complex or lumened instruments, mixed load - Answer 10 minutes @ 270°F preset express cycle - Answer 4 minutes @ 270°F with 3 minutes drying time, total cycle time of 12 minutes. pre-vacuum load of mixed materials, or items with lumens - Answer 4 minutes @ 270°F to properly decontaminate dirty instruments, they must be opened and disassembled to the smallest part - Answer then soil and debris can be washed away from the jaws, box locks, crevices, and other challenging areas. if trays are used for flash sterilization, they should be - Answer perforated or meshbottomed to ensure good circulation of the steam in the sterilizers chamber. if rigid containers are used they should be specifically designed for flash sterilization. pre cleaning is the most important part of the decontamination process - Answer up to 99% of microorganisms on an instrument can be removed with thorough 5 integrators - Answer integrating indicators designed to react to all critical parameters over a specified range of sterilization cycles. they are correlated to the biological kill of Geobacillus stearothermophilus, used to monitor steam sterilization cycle efficacy. biological indicator - Answer sterilization process monitoring device consisting of a standardized viable population of microorganisms "spores" known to be resistant to the mode of sterilization being monitored incubation temperature for geobacillus stearothermophilus is - Answer 122°F - 140°F Control BI - Answer unsterilized or processed BI that is incubated to confirm spores in a batch of BI's are viable. Control BI's should always be positive. residual air removal test - bowie dick test Class 2 - Answer test for sterilizers with a pre vacuum cycle, checks the efficiency of the sterilizers air removal system during the pre vacuum cycle to detect inadequate air removal or air leaks in the chamber. steam pressure on the chamber and jacket gauges must be equal during the exposure phase of the cycle both should be at least: - Answer 27psi @ 270°F. 31psi @ 275°F documentation for each flash cycle should include - Answer patients name. contents. cycle used. reason. signature of staff person responsible. critical devices - Answer introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normally sterile areas of the body. should undergo a sterilization process. semi-critical devices - Answer come in contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes where risk of infection is less. should receive a minimum of high-level disinfection non-critical devices - Answer contact intact skin, risk of infection is low, only require intermediate or low level disinfection or cleaning oxidizing agent - Answer a material that removes electrons from another substance peracetic acid (PA) - liquid oxidizing agent that is an effective biocide at low temps. its chemical formula is acetic acid "vinegar" + an extra oxygen atom. PA is an effective germicidal agent and it is more potent than hydrogen peroxide. - Answer use dilutionconcentration of PA is 0.2% with a pH of 6.4 sterilization temps 122°F-133°F, exposure last for 12 minutes, followed by 4 sterile water rinses, by-products are vinegar, water, and oxygen. entire processing time approximately 30 minutes. BI Monitoring uses Geobacillus stearothermophilus. conduction - Answer transmission of heat from one part to another part of a material convection - Answer transfer of heat from one point to another as the liquid or gas circulates important factors for sterilization - Answer type of microorganisms. number of microorganisms. amount and type of soil. amount of protection device provides. advantages of steam sterilization - Answer cheap. fast. simple. no chemical residues. you can clean without sterilizing but you can never sterilize without cleaning. - Answer you can clean without sterilizing but you can never sterilize without cleaning. anatomy of a steam sterilizer - Answer jacket. door,gasket, and chamber drain. thermostatic trap. gauges and controls. types of steam sterilizers - Answer table top. gravity air displacement. dynamic air removal. steam flush and pressure pulse. flash. instrument washer sterilizer. gravity air displacement sterilizers - Answer passive air removal. steam enters chamber and forces cooler air to bottom of chamber and out of chamber drain. Dynamic air removal sterilizers - Answer active air removal. a vacuum pump removes air during the precondition phase prior to reaching the exposure temperature. better steam penetration, and over all faster cycle times. most be checked by bowie dick tests Steam flush pressure pulse sterilizers - Answer active air a repeated sequence of a steam flush and a pressure pulse to remove air from the sterilizing chamber, no vacuum created, no bowie dick test required. steam sterilizer cycle phases - Answer conditioning. exposure. exhaust. drying. condition phase - Answer steam enters chamber, air is forced out or mechanically removed. temperature and pressure increase. exposure phase - Answer after desired temperature is reached sterilizers control system begins time the cycle exposure phase. exhaust phase - Answer chambers drain is opened and the steam is removed through the discharge line, sterile filtered air is gradually re-introduced into the chamber through a special filter chamber gradually returns to normal temperature. conditions necessary for effective steam sterilization - Answer contact. time. temperature. moisture. most commonly encountered temperatures for steam sterilization are - Answer 250°F. 270°F. 275°F. atmospheric room pressure at sea level - Answer 14.7 psi dry heat gravity convection sterilizer - Answer air within chamber is heated, it rises and displaces cooler air that descends into the lower part of the chamber. prone to air layering which causes temperatures to be uneven. dry heat mechanical convection sterilizer - Answer contain a blower that actively forces heated air throughout all areas of the chamber, this flow creates uniform temperatures and equal transfer of heat. most common dry heat temp & time - Answer 320°F. 2 hours exposure process indicators/external chemical indicator - Answer devices intended for use with individual units to demonstrate that the unit has been exposed to the sterilization process, distinguish between processed and unprocessed units. load control number - Answer label information on sterilization packages, trays, or containers that identifies the sterilizer, cycle run, and date of sterilizationexample load control number - Answer S-3 L- information recorded and maintained for each sterilization cycle. - Answer Date/time. specific items. exposure time and temp. sterilizer operator ID. BI test result. CI test result. bowie-dick test result. after major repair outside the scope of normal maintenance to a dynamic air removal sterilizer. - Answer 3 consecutive bowie-dick test cycles should be run immediately after the other, 3 consecutive test cycles with a BI test pack should be run immediately after the other in an empty chamber. steam sterilization BI's - Answer Geobacillus stearothermophilus Dry heat sterilization BI's - Answer bacillus attophaeus hospital created PCD - Answer 16 clean preconditioned, re-usable surgical towels. each towel folded lengthwise into thirds and then folded widthwise in the middle. towels placed on top of each other folds opposite each other, stack is 9x9x6, one or more BI between 8th and 9th towel. ANSI/AAMI ST79 recommends that every load containing implantable devices should be monitored with a: - Answer PCD and quarantined until the results of the BI testing are available. an implantable device should not be released before the BI results are known, and this should be documented. for each BI test, at least 1 unsterilized BI from the same lot as the BI used in the test should be incubated as a control to verify that the test spores were living at the time of the test. - Answer the control should show a growth or a positive result. if the control BI from a lot fails to grow, it should be assumed that the tes BI's from that lot are nonviable. If a BI shows positive growth, results should be immediately reported to supervisor who should notify infection control and all affected departments. Report should include the following - Answer Time and date. sterilizer and load, load control number. results of physical and mechanical monitoring, internal CI's. when a recall is initiated, all items processed in that sterilizer since the last negative are recalled. - Answer these devices should be considered non-sterile, retrieved if possible, and -dick test. Class 2 chemical indicator. - Answer used to evaluate the efficacy of air removal in dynamic-air-removal steam sterilizers. performed each day the sterilizer is used before the first load is processed. validation - Answer procedures used by equipment manufacturers to obtain, record, and interpret test results required to establish that a process consistently produces a sterile product. verification - Answer procedures used by healthcare facilities to confirm that the validation undertaken by the equipment manufacture is applicable to the specific setting. D-value - Answer the amount of time required to kill 90% of all microorganisms present. parenteral solution - Answer solutions that are administered to patients intravenously external solutions - Answer solutions that are normally used for irrigating, topical application, and surgical use that are given orally or by inhalation. SAL - Answer sterility assurance level: the probability of a viable microorganism being present on a product unit after sterilization. PEL - Answer permissible exposure limits: developed by OSHA to indicate the max airborne concentration of a contaminant to which an employee may be exposed over the duration specified by the type of PEL. TWA - Answer time weighed average: 8 hour, the employees average airborne exposure in any 8-hour work shift of a 40-hour work week which should not be exceeded alkylation - Answer process Ethylene oxide destroys microorganisms, resulting in the inability of the cell to normally metabolize, reproduce, or both. oxidation - Answer the chemical breakdown of nutrients for energy. Eto PEL 8-hour TWA - Answer 1.0 ppm hydrogen peroxide/gas plasma/H202 PEL 8-hour TWA - Answer 1.0 ppm ozone PEL 8-hour TWA - Answer 0.1 aeration - Answer process in which a device is actively subjected to moving air. residual (EtO) - Answer the amount of EtO that remains inside materials after they are sterilizedEtO sterilizers should be located in a well ventilated area with a room air exchange rate of at least 10 changes per hour. - Answer ventilation systems and exhaust lines including floor drains should be periodically checked by qualified personnel to assure that they are working properly. Minimum general recommendations for product aeration for EtO are. - Answer 8 hours @ 140°F. 12 hours @ 122°F EtO personnel monitoring - Answer passive diffusion monitor affixed directly to the employee's clothing in the breathing zone, within one foot of the persons nose. for EtO sterilizers without in-chamber aeration, there are two times when the load can be removed. for a load processed in a sterilizer without a purge cycle the door must be opened 6 inches for 15 minutes before the load is removed. - Answer carts should be pulled to minimize exposure, load should immediately placed in aerator, once load has been placed in aerator new loads of items should not be added. Sterilizer performance monitors EtO - Answer pressure gauges, temp control,charts,graphs. chemical indicators. Biological indicators. Bacillus atrophaeus. Eto has excellent compatibility with nearly all of the materials used in the construction of both single-use and reusable medical devices. - Answer EtO packaging materials are plastic film, plastic pouches, paper-plastic pouches, non-woven and paper wraps, spunbonded polyolefin, and textiles. EtO boiling point - Answer 51.3°F BI microorganism of choice for hydrogen peroxide/H202 - Answer Geobacillus stearothermophilus hydrogen peroxide personnel monitoring - Answer currently no personnel monitors are required EtO cycle times - Answer 1-4 hours exposure, plus 8-12 hours aeration. 8 hour aeration @ 140°F. 12 hour aeration @ 122°F. Kills by Alkylation. Hydrogen peroxide cycle times - Answer 28-50 minutes depending on the equipment and load. kills by oxidation. ozone cycle times - Answer 4 sterilan to handle. no aeration. kills by oxidation. Hydrogen peroxide, packaging - Answer nonwoven polypropylene or Tyvek BI for Ozone - Answer geobacillus stearothermophilus BI for EtO - Answer Bacillus atrophaeus. consumable inventory cycle, disposable items - Answer purchase. store. use. discard. PAR-level systems. periodic automated replenishment. - Answer inventory replenishment system in which the desired amount of products which should be on hand is established, and inventory replenishment returns the quality of products to this level. Automated supply replenishment system - Answer items are automatically identified and tracked, when a reorder point is reached item information is generated on a supply pick list in the central storeroom, items are then issued and transferred to the appropriate user area. exchange cart system - Answer inventory system which desired inventory items are placed on cart which is assigned a specific location and quantity. A 2nd duplicate cart is maintained in another location, and exchanged once daily. requisition system - Answer items needed are requested by user department personnel. case cart system - Answer typically used in the operating room which involves use of a cart that is generally prepared for one special surgical case, and not for general supply replenishment. perpetual inventory systems - Answer keep track of all incoming and issued supplies. issue - Answer act of withdrawing supplies from storage for transfer to areas where they will be used. distribution - Answer movement of supplies throughout facility ABC analysis - Answer inventory management strategy that indicates storeroom controls should first address the relatively few items with the greatest value, A items, and lastly consider the many items with lowest value, C tory service level - Answer the percentage of items filled when an order is placed inventory stock out rate - Answer percentage of items that are not filled when an order is placed. patient care equipment - Answer portable equipment that is used to assist in the care and treatment of patients biomedical/clinical engineering department - Answer department responsible for performing safety inspections and function tests on medical equipment CPM - continuous passive motion device - Answer device that treats synovial joints hip,knee,ankle, shoulder,elbow,wrist. moves affected joint continuously without patient assistance hypothermia unit - Answer pumps heated or cooled water through a coiled pad to therapeutically raise or lower body temperature. infusion pump - Answer mechanically controls the administration of intravenous therapy fluids PCA - patient controlled analgesia pump - Answer automatic self administration of pain medication sequential compression unit - Answer limits the development of deep vein thrombosis and peripheral edema in immobile patients. wound V.A.C therapy - Answer provides negative pressure wound therapy by using controlled suction to close large wounds and to promote faster healing patient care equipment should be prepared for use, and stored in a ready to dispense state - Answer patient care equipment should be prepared for use, and stored in a ready to dispense state Equipment Responsibilities - Central service - Answer Dispense. Track. Retrieve. Clean/Decontaminate. Reassemble. Store. Reasons to Track Equipment, Instruments, and Supplies - Answer quickly locate. determine replacement. measure usage. records of sterilization, distribution. quality cial analysis. internal customer - Answer the physicians nurses and other professional personnel served by central service staff members quality - Answer consistent delivery of products and services according to established standards quality is measured through the eyes of the customer, and their concerns relate to both products and service. - Answer the patient must be at the center of every quality concern. products and services might be considered excellent if they meet ones's needs, they do what they are supposed to do - Answer products processed by central service personnel should always be complete and properly assembled with no defects. process improvement - Answer activity to identify and resolve work task-related problems that yield poor quality. strategy of finding solutions to eliminate the root causes of process performance problems Steps of quality planning - Answer identify needs. identify process. compare steps and outcomes. plan process. measure. principles of quality management - Answer patient focus. process management. continuous quality improvement. fact-based decisions. failure mode and effect analysis FMEA - Answer process designed to predict the adverse outcomes of various human and machine failures to prevent future adverse outcomes. root cause analysis RCA - Answer looks backwards at an event to help prevent its future occurrence total quality improvement TQI - Answer concept of measuring current output of a process or procedure and then modifying it to increase the output increase efficiency and increase effectiveness. TQI 4 areas of improvement - Answer input. throughput. output. nuous quality improvement CQI - Answer scientific approach which applies statistical methods to improve work processes. work processes - Answer work activities which produce a product or service six sigma - Answer process that focuses on developing and delivering near-perfect products and services total quality management TQM - Answer quality management approach based on participation of all members aimed at long term success six sigma DMADV. new processes - Answer define. measure. analyze. desig. verify. six sigma DMAIC. existing processes. - Answer define. measure. analyze. improve. Control. sharps - Answer cutting instruments aerosol - Answer a suspension of ultramicroscopic solid or liquid particles in air or gas; a spray STEL - short term excursion limit for EtO - Answer 5 ppm AL - action level Eto - Answer 0.5 PEL - permissible exposure limit Eto - Answer 1 ppm as an eight-hour time-weighted average, TWA WMSD - Answer work related musculoskeletal disorder. exposure to workplace risk factors may have contributed to the disorders development or aggraved a pre-existing condition. Ergonomic stressors that employees may encounter include - Answer Force. repetition. awkward positions. ct stress. Central service occupational hazards - Answer physical. biological. chemical. Fire triangle - Answer combustible/flammable substance. source of ignition. source of oxygen. fire safety programs include. - Answer minimize combustible load. fire response plan. early detection. removal of persons in danger. containment. extinguish. evacuation. R.A.C.E - Answer Remove persons in danger. Alarm. Contain. extinguish/evacuate. P.A.S.S - Answer pull. aim. Squeeze. Sweep. Type A extinguisher. Type B extinguisher. Type C extinguisher. - Answer paper,wood,cloth,plastic. Flammable liquid. energized electrical equipment/computer equipment. MSDS - Answer material safety data sheet. written statement providing detailed information about a chemical or toxic substance including potential hazards and appropriate handling methods, provided by product manufacturer. polymerization - Answer a molecular reaction that creates an uncontrolled release of energy common hazards in Central Service - Answer Ethylene oxide. infectious agents. soaps, detergents. flammable e sticks. internal disaster - Answer situation with potential to cause harm or injury to central service employees External disaster - Answer activities external to the facility affects departmental or facility operations. endemic disease - Answer One that occurs more or less continuously throughout a community. Among the causes of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs), surgical site infections rank? - Answer According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, surgical-site infections are the second most common cause of hospital-acquired infections. 4 hour result (green cap) biological indicators and test packs for ethylene oxide sterilization cycles - Answer bacillus atrophaeus 3M Attest 1292 Biological indicators are designed to monitor 270°F vacuum assisted and 250°F gravity displacement steam sterilization and provide results in three hours. - Answer Geobacillus stearothermophilus 3m attest 1291 BI's are designed to monitor the 270°F gravity displacement steam sterilization process, and provide results in one hour. - Answer Geobacillus stearothermophilus 30-minute readout Biological Indicator for 270°F and 275°F 3-minute and 10-minute Gravity-Displacement Steam Sterilization cycles (Blue Cap) - Answer 3m Attest Super Rapid Readout Biological Indicator 1491 includes a spore carrier with spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus Auto-reader for use with 3M™ Attest™ Rapid Readout Biological Indicators and Process Challenge Packs for Steam. Replaces the 3M™ Attest™ Auto-reader 290. Includes ethernet cable for web app connectivity. - Answer Auto-reader for use with 3M™ Attest™ Rapid Readout Biological Indicators and Process Challenge Packs for EO. - Answer Designed for use with Attest Rapid Readout Biological Indicators and Test Packs 1294, 1298, 1298F 3M™ Steri-Gas™ EO (ethylene oxide) Gas Cartridges - Answer Single-dose 100% ethylene oxide cartridges Cleared for use with single- or dual-channel rigid and flexible scopes, with no restrictions on the length or inner diameter of endoscope channels - Answer Ethylene oxide is a proven, efficacious sterilant offering maximum assurance that instruments are sterilizedwarm water - Answer 100°F - 120°F hot water - Answer 120°F - 165°F when using enzyme based products water should not exceed - Answer 140°F 3 most common exposure times for IUSS/Flash sterilization - Answer 3, 4, & 10 minutes to facilitate the manual cleaning process the water temperature should be below 110°F - Answer this will help prevent the coagulation of proteins. Glutaraldehyde mode of action - Answer 2% alkaline solution kills microorganisms by alkylation of protein ortho-phthalaldehyde - OPA - Answer kills microorganisms by alkylation of protein formaldehyde - Answer kills microorganisms by alkylation of protein OPA MEC - Answer 0.3 Glutaraldehyde MEC - Answer 1.5 Glutaraldehyde; use life - Answer 14 - 28 days OPA; use life - Answer 14 days