Nursing Exam 2 questions and verified answers.

Nursing Exam 2 Which item below correctly describes the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics predictions by 2020? a. Positions that historically required registered nurses will be filled by unlicensed personnel. b. The job growth rate for RNs will surpass job growth in all other occupations. c. The need for hospital nurses will dramatically decrease. d. Hospitals will finally achieve the required RN workforce. - Correct answer B" "What effect did the movie One Flew Over the Cuckoo's Nest have on health care? a. Funding for mental health care increased, allowing the point of care to change from the community to standardized institutional care. b. The public and the nursing profession were made aware of the rights of vulnerable populations. c. Nurses were seen as advocates for individuals who cannot advocate for themselves. d. Funding for nursing traineeships was eliminated. - Correct answer B" "Which nurse died after deliberately acquiring two bites from yellow fever carrier mosquitoes to enable her to provide care to soldiers with yellow fever during the Spanish-American War? a. Florence Nightingale b. Margaret Hoolihan c. Clara Maas d. Sairy Gamp - Correct answer C" "A bronze statue of a nurse in battle fatigues who is obviously exhausted but demonstrates caring by holding a soldier's head is an artistic representation of nurses who served in which war? a. World War I b. World War II c. Spanish-American War d. Vietnam War - Correct answer D" "What was the purpose of the Nurse Reinvestment Act of 2002? a. Provided disability insurance to RNs who contract a life-threatening illness while on duty b. Funded public service announcements that promote unlicensed caregivers as an alternative to professional nurses c. Focused on nurse retention and safety enhancement grants to address the current nursing shortage d. Provided pediatric nursing training grants - Correct answer C" "What is the best way for the individual nurse to maintain the most effective professional image? a. Change out of their work attire before running errands. b. Renew membership in a nursing organization. c. Earning an advanced nursing degree. d. Developing effective nurse-physician relationships. - Correct answer B" "Charles Dickens' character Sairy Gamp: a. portrayed nurses as trained professional individuals who put others before themselves. b. chose nursing because she had no other avenue for employment. c. was a prostitute who took advantage of sick old men. d. characterized nurses as being at the forefront of technology and autonomy. - Correct answer B" "What does the Spirit of Nursing statue honor? a. Florence Nightingale's accomplishments in public health b. Edith Cavell's attempt to help the victims of the Tuskegee experiment seek treatment c. Clara Maas, who found the cure for yellow fever during WWII d. All military nurses for their bravery and compassion - Correct answer D" "Although the media portrayed nursing in a negative light in M*A*S*H through the character of a promiscuous, uncaring nurse, it also provided Americans with a promising glimpse of: a. nurses who can be promiscuous and still help doctors. b. the fact that caring is not as important as the desire to serve one's country. c. the ability of nurses to cope with the dreadfulness of war by using humor. d. the contributions of male military nurses. - Correct answer C" "With the crisis in health care and the nursing shortage, why is the image of nursing still important? a. Nursing care is often delivered during a time of uncertainty, and the image of nurses during this time can reinforce trust in the nurse-patient relationship. b. Physicians have a distinctive body of knowledge that identifies them as professionals, whereas nursing has yet to develop a unique body of knowledge on which to base practice. c. Nurses must present a unified image if they hope to ever establish nursing as a profession. d. The dynamic state of today's health care requires nurses to move from a caring image to one of technologic competence. - Correct answer A" "Nurses can combat the nursing shortage by: a. joining unions, which influence employers to provide incentives such as pay raises and free child care, thus encouraging the large percentage of nonworking nurses to return to the workforce. b. demanding that the requirements of the qualifying examination for foreign nurses should be reduced, so they are eligible to sit for the licensure examination. c. working more hours with a higher nurse/patient ratio. d. advocating for funds to pay for nursing education and a safer work environment. - Correct answer D" "The demographics of the twenty-first century nursing population indicate that: a. individuals entering nursing are second-degree students who average 45 years of age. b. more white nurses enter and obtain graduate degrees than any other ethnic group. c. the highest level of nursing education for most RNs is an associate degree. d. the majority of nurses practice in hospitals. - Correct answer D" "A nursing student asks, "I wonder if the reason that the nursing shortage is so severe is that registered nurses are unhappy with their jobs." To research the answer, the National Survey of Registered Nurses was reviewed and found: a. registered nurses change employers every year to prevent burnout and to keep the nursing shortage from increasing. b. nursing faculty are aging or leaving academia due to increased work demands and generational difference from students. c. practicing registered nurses are satisfied with their job and most remain with same employer they worked for the previous year. d. registered nurses were the least satisfied with their job of all health care providers. - Correct answer C" "A registered nurse is on break and checking e-mails. One e-mail contains a picture of a celebrity who is a patient in the hospital, and on the same floor, where the nurse works. Included with the photo is a message, "check out my Facebook," which contains additional photographs of the patient. The nurse immediately deletes the picture to prevent having to report the "friend" to supervisors. Based on the action of the nurse who received the message, which statement is correct? a. The nurse is not at risk for having his or her license suspended since removing the photos made them temporary and invisible to all others. b. Because the nurse did not send the message and immediately deleted the photo, there is no risk for discipline. c. Failing to report receiving the message demonstrates poor ethical and legal role-modeling as well as placing the nurse at risk for discipline. d. Because the patient is on the same floor as - Correct answer C" "A nurse executive is concerned that the mortality rate in his or her hospital exceeds the national average and searches the literature finding Aiken's 2011 Survey on the effects of nurse staffing and education on mortality, including work environment. If Aiken's recommendations are followed, which change would be most effective? a. Increasing staffing ratios to include more nurses of all levels of educational preparation on all shifts b. Employing bachelor's prepared nurses who participate in interprofessional rounds with attending physicians where their voices are heard c. Ensuring nurse managers and administrators have at minimum a master's degree d. Encouraging all unlicensed assistive personnel to attend educational programs to be certified - Correct answer B" "In order to best improve patient outcomes on an acute care hospital unit, which intervention should the nursing staff advocate for? a. Staffing only 8 hour shifts on the unit b. Decreasing the number of patients cared for on any specific unit c. Increasing salaries for experienced nurses d. Increasing staffing on the evening shift - Correct answer D" "A physician complains to administration that the nurse working last evening is unethical, based on observing the nurse educate the patient about a new medication ordered. The physician demanded the nurse be reprimanded and reminded that only physicians have the educational background to teach patients about new medications. Which comment and action by the administrator would be most effective in changing nurse-physician relationships in this instance? a. Inform the nurse, "You will be suspended for 3 days for going beyond your job description," and enforce the 3-day suspension because the physician did not write the order to "teach the patient about the new medication" b. Advise the physician that only nurses can teach patients about medications; the physician's role is to only prescribe. No action will be taken against the nurse. c. After investigating the situation, thank the physician while also providing informat - Correct answer C" "Which nurse best portrays nursing as a "knowledge worker"? a. Nurse in matched scrubs with lab coat, hair back, small stud earrings b. Nurse in mismatched scrubs, no lab coat, large hoop earrings c. Nurse in white uniform with apron with no jewelry/hair back d. Nurse with nose ring and eyebrow piercing with starched white uniform and cap - Correct answer A" "According to current data related to the nursing shortage: (select all that apply) a. salaries of nurses are competitive with those of other professionals such as teachers. b. only 19% of nurses are minorities. c. overall, nurses are satisfied with their jobs but leave the profession because of fear of contracting fatal diseases. d. the employment opportunities for nurses continue to be strong. e. staff nurses are returning to school to obtain certificates to teach nursing. - Correct answer B,D" "A group of new graduate nurses is asked to speak to a group of politicians to describe the current state of professional nursing and how best to alleviate the nursing shortage. Which statements accurately portray professional nursing today and tomorrow? (select all that apply) a. More RNs attain a bachelor's degree than an associate degree or diploma. b. Because of pressure to shorten length of stay in hospitals, more RNs practice in outpatient settings and home health than in acute care settings. c. The most popular advanced practice specialty is nurse anesthesia. d. White nurses are more likely to enter graduate school than nurses from other ethnic groups. e. Nursing represents the largest health care professional group, followed by medical doctors. - Correct answer A,E" "Which actions would result in a greater number of nurses entering and staying in practice, given today's state of nursing? (select all that apply) a. Determine why few black women enter graduate school. b. Provide incentives for minorities and men to enter nursing. c. Obtain grant funding to increase the number of faculty members and scholarship availability for students entering baccalaureate nursing programs. d. Survey nurses to determine why their job satisfaction is lower than that of other health care professions. e. Develop ad campaigns that target younger students. - Correct answer B,C,E" "The Nurses of America's media campaign raised awareness of which aspects of nursing? (select all that apply) a. Nurses are expert clinicians. b. A higher nurse/patient ratio is needed. c. Nurses are invisible in the news media. d. Nurses are caring. e. Nurses are well paid. - Correct answer A,C" "The advanced practice nurse who is seeking information about requirements for practice in a specialized area should contact the: a. American Nurses Association (ANA). b. National League for Nursing (NLN). c. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC). d. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN). - Correct answer C" "The primary purpose of licensure for RNs is to: a. prevent others from using the title nurse. b. demonstrate a specialized body of knowledge. c. protect the public. d. enhance recognition for the profession. - Correct answer C" "Nurse practice acts: a. are written and passed by legislators. b. cannot be influenced by special interest groups. c. reflect only the concerns of RNs. d. are affected by the practice of dentists. - Correct answer A" "To ensure that nursing legislation is current and is reviewed by specific dates, if a nurse practice act fails to be reviewed, it is automatically rescinded under which law? a. Nurse review act b. Sunset legislation c. Mandatory revocation d. Grandfathering - Correct answer B" "Current trends in telecommunications and increased mobility of nurses have led to the approval of a mutual recognition model of nursing regulation, in which nurses are allowed to practice in states that are compact states without obtaining a license in each state. On which website would a nurse find a list of current compact states? a. National League for Nursing (NLN) b. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) c. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) d. Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE) - Correct answer B" "The first field of nursing to certify advanced practitioners was the field of: a. adult nurse practitioners. b. nurse-midwifery. c. clinical nurse specialist. d. nurse anesthesia. - Correct answer D" "A graduate of a nursing school in the United States plans to practice nursing in Paris, France. To request licensure to practice in Paris, the nurse: a. must contact the Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools to complete a special examination. b. realizes that education in the United States is so generalized that he or she is eligible to practice in other countries without additional licensure. c. is required to take a language proficiency examination for the primary language of that particular country, as well as a cultural assessment test, prior to licensure. d. should contact the International Council of Nurses or the nursing regulatory board of that country. - Correct answer D" "A nurse who is licensed in Georgia and moves to Oregon: a. must check Oregon's nurse practice act related to licensure for endorsement. b. will automatically be grandfathered in as a licensed registered nurse. c. may request certification in Oregon rather than licensure, so as not to have to retake the NCLEX-RN®. d. should contact the American Nurses Credentialing Center to determine whether he or she is eligible to practice in an another state. - Correct answer A" "When practicing in a compact state: a. the nurse must abide solely by the practice act of the largest state. b. patients' rights in relation to the nurse practice act are protected by the mutual recognition model. c. the nurse must pay for a license in all states that participate in the mutual recognition model. d. the nurse must refer to the nurse practice act for the list of skills that can be performed. - Correct answer B" "When participating in a nurse licensure compact, the nurse: a. is held responsible for complying with the nursing practice laws in the state where practicing at the time care is rendered. b. must purchase a license in each state but does not retake the licensure examination. c. determines residency based on the state where educated as registered nurse. d. may practice using one license in any state or territory in the United States that recognizes the NCLEX as the source of licensure. - Correct answer A" "A new graduate from a master's entry program in nursing announces, "I just passed my clinical nurse leader certification examination." Certification as a clinical nurse leader: a. is granted by the state board of nursing. b. denotes minimum level of knowledge and skills to practice safely. c. allows independent nursing practice, often in primary care. d. recognizes achievement of advanced skills and knowledge. - Correct answer D" "A nurse holds a license in one state but wishes to practice in a second state that is not participating in a nurse licensure compact agreement. The nurse is granted licensure on payment of a fee but does not retake the licensure examination. The nurse obtains licensure in the second state: a. by licensure and by endorsement. b. through mandatory continuing education. c. by the statutory process known as being grandfathered. d. through sunset legislation. - Correct answer A" "A nurse practicing in the early 1900s was awarded a permissive license. These licenses: a. were voluntary; however, a nurse who failed the examination could not use the title RN. b. required a maximum of 1 year of formalized nurse training. c. allowed nurses who did not pass the licensure examination to still practice. d. allowed nurses the choice of taking a written or oral licensure examination. - Correct answer A" "A group of registered nurses with ADN degrees are concerned that the minimum educational standard for licensure as a registered nurse is being raised to the bachelor's (BSN) level. After contacting the American Nurses Association, they learn they will be "grandfathered" in. Under the "grandfather clause," nurses with associate degrees will: a. be required to complete a bridge program to earn a BSN and then be tested only on material that was not part of the ASN curriculum. b. continue to use the title "registered nurse." c. have 10 years to obtain a BSN or the license will be revoked. d. use whatever title is established for associate degree nurses. - Correct answer B" "Who establishes the "rules" for nursing practice? a. Individual state boards of nursing b. Employer, based on area of practice c. United States Department of Health and Human Services d. Local health officials - Correct answer A" "A nurse is completing the degree requirements for an advanced practice role as a nurse practitioner and is concerned about certification requirements. Which statement concerning certification for advanced practice is true? a. All states require certification for all specialty roles that are identified as advanced practice. b. Nurse anesthetists and nurse-midwives are the only advanced practice role that require certification in the state nurse practice acts. c. Scope of practice remains unclear in state nurse practice acts due to the increasing number of new advanced practice roles. d. Certification is automatic when the nurse applies for an advanced practice license. - Correct answer A" "Nurses in Tennessee, Mississippi, and Arkansas gather for a conference related to improving quality and safety in practice and nursing education. They are awarded continuing education (CE) credit for participation and evaluation of the conference. One nurse from California states, "I need these CEs to renew my license." The nurse from Mississippi replies, "You do not need CEs for license renewal or advance practice certification renewal." Which statement about CEs would help these nurses? a. All states require proof of continuing education for renewal of license with the number of hours varying. b. The purpose of continuing education is to ensure competence of the workforce after graduation, but each state determines if CEs are required. c. Continuing education is required if nurses work across state lines. d. Initial licensure provides evidence of a minimum safety and competence, so it is illegal for states to requi - Correct answer B" "A nurse who wishes to practice in another state: (select all that apply) a. must retake the NCLEX-RN for that state. b. should determine whether the state is a compact state. c. may obtain licensure by endorsement. d. must revoke licensure in the current state because nurses cannot be licensed in more than one state concurrently. - Correct answer B,C" "Which statements concerning licensure as a registered nurse are correct? (select all that apply) a. Nurses who graduate from different types of nursing education programs are granted different types of licenses, those with a baccalaureate degree having the most expanded role. b. A nursing license cannot be revoked, only suspended. c. Each nurse practice act describes requirements for initial licensure. d. It is illegal for states to ask about the mental or physical status of an applicant. e. Students who graduate in the top 10% of their class are exempt from taking the NCLEX-RN for licensure. f. Candidates for licensure must present proof of graduation as required by the state. - Correct answer C,F" "A group of graduates were just notified that they had successfully passed the licensure examination. During the orientation process at the hospital, one asks, "I am looking at my license, but I don't really know the duties performed by the board of nursing." The staff development nurse explains that the board of nursing: (select all that apply) a. grants nursing licensure. b. constructs the licensure examination. c. assigns disciplinary action when the nurse acts in a manner that results in harm to a patient. d. members are appointed. e. conducts certification examinations for advanced practice nurses. - Correct answer A,C,D" "A nursing student is in the final term of an Associate Science of Nursing (ASN) program and is preparing for licensure. Prior to licensure the candidate must provide evidence of: (select all that apply) a. graduation from a nursing program. b. graduation from high school or high school equivalency. c. evidence of current malpractice insurance. d. evidence of plan to continue study to obtain a minimum of a BSN within 2 years. e. validation of skills competence provided by a certifying agency. - Correct answer A,B" "The primary purpose of licensure is protection of the ___________. - Correct answer PUBLIC" "A current trend is for students to be evaluated to determine whether they demonstrate competence in the actual client care environment or with a standardized patient. This process occurs in addition to or instead of traditional pencil-and-paper evaluations. This type of evaluation is referred to as: a. core practice competencies. b. continuing competence. c. distance learning. d. performance-based assessment. - Correct answer D" "One of the major trends that currently influences nursing education and practice is: a. increased technology in the field of critical care. b. a narrowing scope of practice for nurses. c. incivility or disregard of others' rights in social interactions. d. a decrease in ethnicity due to international programs allowing students to study from a distance. - Correct answer C" "Although the use of technology and the Internet provides nursing faculty and students with unlimited resources and current information, an outcome associated with this trend is that: a. users of electronic resources spend a disproportionate amount of time looking for pertinent content. b. additional time is available to study and revise curricula because special skills are not needed to access information via the Internet. c. immediate results and outcomes are expected from students and faculty, thus enhancing time management. d. skills that require problem solving and reflective abilities are developed. - Correct answer A" "A new trend in nursing education that is consistent with real-world practice is focused on: a. outcomes. b. objectives. c. goals. d. subjective appraisals. - Correct answer A" "The practice of nurses, nursing students, and faculty is affected by demographic changes due to: a. the growing percentage of adults ages 50 to 55 years. b. increasing numbers of obese children and adults. c. changes by which families are becoming more nuclear. d. social programs that are essentially eliminating poverty. - Correct answer B" "The first university to offer nursing graduates a baccalaureate degree was: a. Columbia Teachers College. b. Yale University. c. Harvard University. d. the New York Regents Program. - Correct answer B" "Which nursing model is referred to as the "class without walls"? a. Articulation b. Career ladder (2 + 2) c. External degree d. Second degree - Correct answer C" "When focusing on addressing issues identified by the 2000 Institute of Medicine report, the nursing faculty will access information associated with which initiative? a. Quality and Safety in Nursing Education b. Competency Outcomes and Performance Model (COPA) c. The National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculties (NONPF) d. Academic Center for Evidence-Based Practice (ACE) - Correct answer A" "The number of reported medical errors demonstrates a need for what priority intervention? a. Simulation experiences b. Performance competency exercises c. Comprehensive instructor-constructed examinations d. Detailed care planning exercises - Correct answer B" "Which trend is an effect of the nursing shortage on nursing education? a. Only devoted qualified nurses are continuing to provide bedside nursing because of the complexity of care required, resulting in excellent preceptorships for students. b. The number of applicants to nursing programs has risen, but enrollment is limited because of a decrease in the number of available scholarships and grants. c. With an increase in the number of nurses who are entering graduate school to escape bedside nursing, students will soon enjoy a lower faculty/student ratio. d. Students may be assigned to preceptors who have not yet developed expertise in the field of interest. - Correct answer D" "The NCLEX® examination is created and administered by the: a. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN). b. American Nurses Association (ANA). c. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN). d. National League for Nursing (NLN). - Correct answer C" "A student is planning to enroll in prerequisite courses after graduating from high school and is researching options for nursing programs. During a career fair the student compares different types of nursing education programs and discovers that: a. diploma programs focus on family and community, with an emphasis on health promotion. b. most practicing RNs graduated from diploma programs because this was the first type of RN program. c. baccalaureate programs focus on technical and hands-on nursing skills in diverse community settings. d. master's programs such as that for the clinical nurse leader provide entry into practice with a focus on interdisciplinary and bedside nursing care for complex client populations. - Correct answer D" "When preparing to complete a competency examination involving a neurologic assessment in a simulation laboratory, the nurse reviews the critical elements, which consist of: a. those steps that result in life or death of a client. b. required criteria that must be incorporated into the assessment for the desired outcome. c. fundamental strategies unique to complex dynamic care environments. d. objective data that can be used to determine the likelihood that the client will recover. - Correct answer B" "An RN with a diploma preparation wants to participate in decisions about health care and decides the first step is to obtain a BSN. The nurse enrolls in a nursing program offering self-scheduling and a self-paced curriculum. This nurse is taking advantage of: a. educational mobility. b. a traditional nursing program. c. training for advanced practice nursing. d. credit by examination. - Correct answer A" "A nursing student scores 95% on the written examination for the adult health course. To be successful in this course, this same student must then perform an indwelling catheter insertion and wound care in a simulated environment meeting core competencies. The student asks, "What are core competencies?" The nursing instructor replies, "Core competencies are: a. a trend used in nursing education to reduce attrition in prelicensure students." b. those skills necessary for safe, competent nursing practice." c. educational opportunities that provide remediation when student is unable to perform psychomotor skills correctly." d. critical thinking exercises aimed to improve reading and math skills." - Correct answer B" "A nurse realizes that a health care concern related to globalization was: a. the emergence of epidemic hepatitis A. b. the pandemic of H1N1 "swine flu." c. reemergence of polio. d. an increase in chronic illnesses. - Correct answer B" "A student nurse is preparing a presentation that requires identification of outcomes for the care of heart failure patients. Which is a correctly written outcome? a. Develop a teaching program to address physical activities that result in improved cardiac function. b. Discuss the clinical manifestations associated with Level 4 heart failure. c. List the most common pharmaceutical approaches to reduce preload in heart failure patients. d. Recognize the economic impact that recidivism has on the patient and health care facility. - Correct answer A" "A member of a nursing students study group comments, "I wish our instructor would just tell us the important information that we will be tested on in our course and on NCLEX®. Instead, we spend some time early in the class discussing key facts then the most of the time working through case studies, then practicing on the simulator rather than caring for 'real' patients." This teaching-learning style represents: a. memorization of basic facts presented early in the lecture. b. Objective Structured Clinical Examinations (OSCE). c. peer-to-peer learning. d. practice-based competency. - Correct answer D" "Which experience is best designed to support a nursing student's preparation for interprofessional team participation? a. Attending a seminar on interprofessional team cooperation b. Completing a preceptorship with an advanced practice nurse c. Carrying for three patients with varying medical diagnoses d. Presenting patient information at the daily care planning meeting on a mental health unit - Correct answer D" "A person interested in employment in the health care sector has less than 1 year to pursue his or her education and wants to focus on functional aspects of patient care. He/she desires to work in a long-term facility. Which type of nursing program should this person request information about? a. Bachelor's degree in nursing (BSN) b. Licensed practical nurse (LPN) c. Associate degree in nursing d. Master's degree in nursing - Correct answer B" "A nurse is concerned that the policy of using povidone-iodine (Betadine) to clean foot ulcers may lead to unwarranted allergic reactions and drying of surrounding tissue. A literature review is performed to determine the "best practice" related to care of foot ulcers. This nurse: (select all that apply) a. is applying evidence-based practice to the clinical setting. b. is using critical thinking to change procedures performed in the care of foot ulcers. c. is minimally educated at the master's level and participating in research to provide cost-effective care (soap is less expensive than povidone-iodine). d. lacks clinical competence in health assessment and in application of theory to the clinical setting. e. is using information to problem-solve and ensure safe, competent care. - Correct answer A,B,E" "Graduates from approved schools of nursing cannot sign their charting as registered nurses (RNs) until they: a. pass the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN®). b. provide evidence of mental competency. c. supply written proof of physical fitness. d. have signed an employment contract with a health care facility. - Correct answer A" "Which statement concerning the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination is correct? a. Graduates from all three types of nursing programs (diploma, associate degree, and baccalaureate degree) take the same examination. b. The examination is scored on an interval scale rather than on a pass-fail basis. c. The examination is offered twice a year in major urban areas. d. The candidate has the option of choosing a pencil-and-paper format. - Correct answer A" "Computerized adaptive testing implies that: a. the candidate must be computer literate. b. competency is determined on the basis of difficulty of questions, knowledge of the nursing process, and the number of questions answered correctly. c. testing facilities have been adapted for the physically challenged candidate. d. questions cannot be adapted to the needs of the student. - Correct answer B" "On the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination, when the candidate is asked to set goals in collaboration with other members of the health care team, the nurse is being tested in the area of: a. assessment. b. planning. c. analysis. d. implementation. - Correct answer B" "The length of the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination is based on the: a. last four numbers of the candidate's social security number. b. location of testing. c. candidate's educational preparation. d. performance of the candidate. - Correct answer D" "The primary purpose of the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination is to: a. ensure that practitioners have the minimum skills and knowledge needed to provide care that will produce the best patient care outcomes. b. regulate nursing education. c. determine the mandatory educational level required for nurses to practice. d. accredit schools of nursing. - Correct answer A" "A student nurse who is preparing to graduate and take the licensure examination asks, "What is compulsory licensure?" The appropriate response of the nursing advisor is which of the following? a. All candidates wishing to take the licensure examination must pass a drug screen. b. Candidates must not have a felony conviction. c. To practice as an RN, the nurse must be licensed as an RN. d. An impaired nurse must sign a legal document to acknowledge limitations on his or her practice. - Correct answer C" "The National Council of State Boards of Nursing determines acceptable National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination questions on the basis of: a. the geographic location of the candidate. b. research that indicates needed skills for positions in which most entry level nurses are employed. c. surveys conducted by employers to determine the weaknesses of entry level nurses. d. surveys of physicians performed to determine what nurses must know to provide safe care. - Correct answer B" "Although the NCLEX-RN examination has new formats for questions, the most common format is the: a. fill-in-the-blank item because candidates are not provided with clues from distracters. b. multiple-choice question item, which allows candidates to select the one correct answer. c. multiple-response item because these questions require a higher level of critical thinking. d. hot-spot item because these questions are written at the application level of Bloom's analysis. - Correct answer B" "When delegating care, the RN assigns one nurse to care for a patient with shingles and a different nurse to care for a patient with human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immunodeficiency disease syndrome (HIV/AIDS). This represents which category of nursing care? a. Safe and effective care environment b. Health promotion and maintenance c. Psychosocial integrity d. Teaching/learning - Correct answer A" "A patient is brought to the unit with mediastinal chest tubes with no fluctuation in the water seal chamber; arterial blood gas results reveal pH, 7.55; CO2, 55; HCO, 28 mEq/L, and O2, 98%. Carotid artery pulsation is visible with the head of the bed elevated and the use of tangential lighting. The first action of the nurse is to: The above question represents which level of Bloom's taxonomy? a. Knowledge b. Comprehension c. Application d. Analysis - Correct answer D" "A candidate who is taking the NCLEX-RN examination received only 75 questions before the test was stopped. She called her professor and stated, "I passed. I had to answer only 75 questions." The professor correctly responds by saying: a. "You are now officially licensed; you answered the more difficult questions correctly." b. "It is possible to receive only 75 questions and not be successful; however, we will keep a positive attitude." c. "If you were given only 75 questions, you will have to retest because this is not enough to determine competency." d. "You must have been extremely close to the passing standard because the computer shut off." - Correct answer B" "On the basis of changes effective with the April 2010 test plan, candidates who take the NCLEX-RN examination: a. will have to answer more than 75 questions to be 95% certain that they are above the passing standard. b. will be required to submit a 100-word essay on an important nursing topic to evaluate safe nursing practice. c. should study and take practice examinations written at the application and analysis level to ensure that they can meet the higher standards of nursing care and health care delivery. d. will have additional time to complete the examination because most questions will be prepared in the alternate format, thereby requiring critical thinking. - Correct answer C" "In the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination test plan, client needs form the organizing framework of the examination with questions in four categories: safe and effective care environment, health promotion and maintenance, psychosocial integrity, and physiologic integrity. Certain processes are then integrated throughout the categories of client needs. Which process is integrated into all client need categories? a. Teaching/learning b. Health promotion c. Infection control d. Pharmacology - Correct answer A" "Which action would help a student successfully prepare for the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination? a. Make note cards that can easily be retrieved to list only facts. b. Avoid timing oneself while studying and when in the actual testing mode to decrease anxiety. c. Ask peers for help because they had the same resources; especially seek their help for difficult concepts requiring critical thinking. d. Practice taking NCLEX-RN examination-type questions and reviewing rationales for correct and incorrect answers. - Correct answer D" "The nurse prepares to apply sterile gloves needed for a procedure. After introducing self and verifying patient information, the nurse performs hand hygiene. The nurse should open the outer package and then perform the following steps in order: (items on left will be moved in correct order on the right) Open inner package, taking care not to touch inner surface. Put the glove on the nondominant hand using the sterile gloved hand. Put glove on dominant hand by grasping folded cuff edge, touching only inside of cuff. Adjust each glove carefully by sliding finders under the cuffs. The above question represents which type of alternate-format question written at which level of Bloom's taxonomy? a. Drag-and-drop item, comprehension b. Chart/exhibit item, analysis c. Multiple-response, application d. Hot-spot item, knowledge - Correct answer A" "A graduate is preparing for the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination. Based on the latest practice survey, the candidate would focus the most amount of time on which content? a. Stages of grief b. Pharmacologic pain management c. Practices to promote rest and sleep d. Prioritization of workload to manage time effectively - Correct answer B" "Which strategy would promote a high rate of success on the National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses (NCLEX-RN) examination? a. Since the examination is time limited, skip questions when unsure of the answer and return later if time permits. b. Work quickly through the examination to answer as many questions as possible. c. Mark questions that may need to have the answer reviewed to make it possible to quickly go back and make change after answering all questions. d. Read the entire question and all possible answer options before selecting an answer. - Correct answer D" "A candidate is taking the NCLEX-RN examination when the computer turns off. The candidate was aware they had reached the 6-hour time limit. A count of completed questions had been recorded on the note pad, and 100 questions were answered. How will the examination be scored? a. The computer will analyze the last 60 questions and if above the passing standard, the candidate passes. b. The candidate will be administered an additional 50 questions to determine ability to reach the 95% confidence interval. c. If the time runs out, the candidate automatically fails the examination because it is impossible to determine if candidate is safe. d. The candidate has the option to complete a simulated examination to show competence. - Correct answer A" "The order reads: Administer 500 mg of Kefzol (cefazolin sodium) Intramuscular. Using information located on the medication vial above, the nurse will administer how many mL? The above question represents which type of alternate-format question written at which level of Bloom's taxonomy? a. Multiple-response item, comprehension level b. Hot-spot item, application level c. Chart/exhibit item, analysis level d. Drag-and-drop item, knowledge level - Correct answer C" ""A patient with end-stage renal disease has a potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this laboratory result, the nurse interprets which symptom as significant prompting which action? a. Drowsiness, stimulate the patient every 30 minutes b. Confusion, ask the patient to state their name and date of birth c. Irregular heartbeat, evaluate the patient's capillary refill d. Muscle cramps, elevate the affected limb" - Correct answer A" "patient presents with chest pain that increases when lying flat and low-grade fever. Assessment reveals muffled heart sounds, tachycardia, and 3+ edema in the lower extremities. The nurse asks the patient to learn forward, which eases respiratory efforts. The nurse then places the stethoscope at which area on the chest to facilitate auscultation? The above question represents which type of alternate-format question written at which level of Bloom's taxonomy? a. Multiple-response item, comprehension level b. Hot-spot item, analysis level c. Chart/exhibit item, application level d. Drag-and-drop item, knowledge level - Correct answer B" "An older adult client was admitted to the hospital with the condition classified as "pneumonia." Reimbursement was based on a predetermined fixed price. This classification system is referred to as: a. diagnosis-related groups (DRGs). b. subjective symptom management. c. acuity classification system. d. organized managed care. - Correct answer A" "The precise classification of clients according to the highest diagnosis-related group (DRG) has created a new role for nurses, known as a _____ nurse. a. case management b. quality assurance c. utilization review d. cost-control - Correct answer C" "Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) have attempted to reduce health care costs by decreasing: a. hospital admission rates. b. length of hospital stay. c. outpatient services. d. specialty groups. - Correct answer B" "When reviewing the literature on the effects of Medicaid on health care for the poor, the nurse researcher found that the poor: a. have less access than even the uninsured. b. receive many unnecessary treatments. c. lack consistent providers. d. abuse preventive services. - Correct answer C" "Lack of insurance, uninsured populations, and uncompensated care are covered by charging more to those who can pay. This practice is referred to as: a. charity. b. cost shifting. c. price sharing. d. governmental reimbursement. - Correct answer B" "A contractual agreement between the insurer and the provider in which covered members are encouraged to use specific health care providers in return for reduced rates is which type of arrangement? a. Health maintenance organization b. Preferred provider organization c. Fee-for-service arrangement d. Philanthropic agency - Correct answer B" "In the triad of health care, which would be considered the third-party payer? a. Client b. Health care provider c. Insurance company d. Government agency that sets reimbursement rules for services - Correct answer C" "A physician bills the insurance company for a computed tomography (CT) scan, laboratory tests, chest x-ray, and an extended visit and receives revenue for each procedure billed. This type of payment system is a _____ payment system. a. prospective b. retrospective c. diagnosis-related group d. capitated - Correct answer B" "A client is admitted with chest pain. A series of diagnostic tests are ordered, and the client undergoes coronary artery bypass grafting. The cost of care for this client is increased because of a four-pack-per-day smoking history that resulted in extension of the client's intensive care unit (ICU) stay by 3 days because of respiratory problems. The case manager realizes that under the terms of the diagnosis-related group (DRG) payment system for this diagnosis: a. the cost of caring for this client was $5000 greater than the DRG reimbursement fee, and the hospital will be allowed to collect the additional fees from the insurance company. b. although the cost of care for this client was greater than the DRG reimbursement amount, the hospital will be reimbursed only at the set fee. c. the client will be sued to pay back the insurance company for the extra fees incurred because smoking is a modifiable health risk for h - Correct answer B" "A young mother has detected a lump in her breast, and because she lives at the poverty level, she is covered under Medicaid. This individual: a. is more likely to participate in mammography screening than are individuals covered by private insurance. b. has designated primary care and a specialist as sources of care. c. will more likely wait to seek care and will require hospitalization for a mastectomy, which could have been avoided if care had been sought earlier. d. has decreased access to health care when compared with the uninsured. - Correct answer C" "A client who is reading a newspaper asks, "This article about health care states that many providers of health care lack effectiveness. What is the difference between effectiveness and efficiency?" The nurse explains that: a. effective means performing the correct test or intervention whereas efficiency refers to the wise use of supplies and resources for the desired outcome. b. effective refers to competence in clinical practice and efficiency describes quick completion of the task. c. efficiency means wasting and meeting a minimum standard and effectiveness refers to taking all the time needed to exceed expectations. d. efficiency refers to speed and effectiveness refers to the usefulness of the implementation. - Correct answer A" "A nurse is offered several health care plans as part of employee benefits. Which plan is based on a monthly fee per participant and offers a range of preventive, diagnostic, and treatment services? a. Prospective payment system b. Retrospective payment system c. Single-payer system d. Capitation - Correct answer D" "In February 2010, Congress passed legislation to support universal health care for all Americans. At a local health fair, an individual asks about the difference between universal health care and a single payer system. The nurse explains the difference is that: a. with universal health, one universal payer, usually the government, pays all expenses for health care. b. single-payer systems offer health care only to eligible persons based on income. c. single-payer systems rely on insurance companies to pay predetermined fees for services. d. with universal health, one payer is responsible for all health care costs, providing health care to all citizens. - Correct answer D" "An elderly person, age 80, is finding it difficult to live alone and the family is considering long-term care. The elderly person is reasonably healthy, with only normal aging declines, and maintains a healthy appetite. All medications are administered orally and require only minimal assistance. She is financially secure with an income based on retirement from both the military and factory from her deceased husband and herself. The family contacts long-term care and is told that, based on this patient's information: a. Medicare will cover the cost of stay since skilled services are required. b. Medicaid is only for families with dependent children. c. Medicare will pay for home health services should these additional services meet the needs of the individual. d. Medicare will pay regardless of household income or financial status for nursing home care. - Correct answer C" "Certain groups of individuals are opposed to the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) based on religious beliefs that prohibit circumcision and blood transfusions. These individuals believe the PPACA is unconstitutional because it: a. mandates that all U.S. and legal residents must secure health insurance. b. replaces current Medicare and Medicaid plans. c. requires all citizens to participate in offered preventive services. d. prohibits use of health practices outside of Western medicine. - Correct answer A" "A nurse is newly employed by a state-owned hospital that provides health care insurance requiring a deductible paid by the employee with the majority of the premium cost covered by the employer. The insurance provided to the nurse is: a. private health insurance. b. a federal insurances program known as PPACA. c. state-subsidized Medicaid insurance. d. single-payer system coverage. - Correct answer A" "Health care is one of the major stories in newspaper and television and a group of nurses are interested in how the economy impacts their nursing practice. The group critiques the relationship between contemporary economic trends and professional nursing practice and finds: a. the implementation of the DRG system led to the nursing shortage since cost of nursing care is not billed. b. nursing care is focused on technologically advanced acute care rather than preventive, patient-centered care. c. with pay for performance, nurses have a significant effect on the quality of patient outcomes by reducing errors and providing care based on best practices. d. economic issues have little or no impact on nursing practice. - Correct answer C" "A patient is eligible to change health care providers and insurance and asks, "I am interested in health promotion activities; I walk, swim, and eat healthy. Which health insurance plan would support these activities rather than just pay for services when I am sick"? Which, if any, health insurance plan would best meet the needs of this patient? a. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO). b. Fee for Service. c. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO). d. None, because health insurance plans currently cover only disease management, not preventive care. - Correct answer A" "A patient is upset because her health insurance plan refused to pay for a mammogram and services by a women's health specialist because the primary care physician did not order the referral or the mammogram. Which type of insurance plan adheres to this type of payment system? a. Fee for Service b. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) c. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) d. Point of Service (POS) - Correct answer B" "A patient wants to reduce health care costs by being a model for making wise decisions that both promote health and reduce cost. Which statement by the patient would indicate a need for further teaching? a. "I will ask for the brand name drug Tylenol rather than acetaminophen since it works better and I won't be sick as long." b. "I looked up urinary tract infection prevention on the Internet." c. "I had my weight, body fat, and blood sugar measured at a local health fair." d. "My allergies are really bothering me. I spoke to the pharmacist, who recommended an over-the-counter antihistamine." - Correct answer A" "A nurse is very interested in learning more about health care economics and how she can use that knowledge to become a better patient advocate. She comments, "Nurses should not only deliver care one day at a time in one facility but should coordinate patient care as they move from acute care to rehabilitation to home care." This nurse would be a candidate for which nursing role? a. Disease management program (DMP) for chronic illnesses b. A hospital-based utilization management nurse who reviews medical records to determine the most appropriate DRG for patients c. Case management d. Reviewer for Managed Care Organization - Correct answer C" "A nurse who speaks at a health fair states that current attempts to increase efficiency of health care include: (select all that apply) a. an increase in acute care, so that specialized care can be provided. b. the growing use of outpatient services. c. shifting toward health promotion and prevention. d. allowing physicians to control health care decision making. e. the use of technology to educate the public about cost-effective measures. - Correct answer B,C,E" "Medicare would be responsible for: (select all that apply) a. a hospital stay following a total knee replacement for a 70-year-old client. b. nursing home cost for a 67-year-old adult receiving hemodialysis. c. rehabilitation care costs for a 24-year-old client with a broken femur resulting from a fall at work. d. prescription cost for a young mother who meets eligibility for Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC). e. home health services to administer heparin to a 27-year-old truck driver following a thrombus. - Correct answer A,B" "1. The student nurse studying the gastrointestinal system understands that chyme refers to what? a. Hormones that reduce gastric acidity b. Liquefied food ready for digestion c. Nutrients after being absorbed d. Secretions that help digest food - Correct answer B" "A client scheduled for a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) denies allergies to medication. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client about shellfish allergies. b. Document this information on the chart. c. Ensure that the client has a ride home. d. Instruct the client on bowel preparation - Correct answer A" "A client is having an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and has been given midazolam hydrochloride (Versed). The clients respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min. What action by the nurse is best? a. Administer naloxone (Narcan). b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide physical stimulation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask. - Correct answer C" "A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and the nurse has provided instructions on the bowel cleansing regimen. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. Its a good thing I love orange and cherry gelatin. b. My spouse will be here to drive me home. c. I should refrigerate the GoLYTELY before use. d. I will buy a case of Gatorade before the prep. - Correct answer A" "A client had a colonoscopy and biopsy yesterday and calls the gastrointestinal clinic to report a spot of bright red blood on the toilet paper today. What response by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client to call back if this happens again today. b. Instruct the client to go to the emergency department. c. Remind the client that a small amount of bleeding is possible. d. Tell the client to come in to the clinic this afternoon. - Correct answer C" "An older client has had an instance of drug toxicity and asks why this happens, since the client has been on this medication for years at the same dose. What response by the nurse is best?a. Changes in your liver cause drugs to be metabolized differently.b. Perhaps you dont need as high a dose of the drug as before. c. Stomach muscles atrophy with age and you digest more slowly. d. Your body probably cant tolerate as much medication anymore. - Correct answer A" "To promote comfort after a colonoscopy, in what position does the nurse place the client? a. Left lateral b. Prone c. Right lateral d. Supine - Correct answer A" "A nurse is examining a client reporting right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain. What technique should the nurse use to assess this clients abdomen? a. Auscultate after palpating. b. Avoid any palpation. c. Palpate the RUQ first. d. Palpate the RUQ last. - Correct answer D" "A client presents to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain. On assessment, the nurse finds a bulging, pulsating mass in the abdomen. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Auscultate for bowel sounds. b. Notify the provider immediately. c. Order an abdominal flat-plate x-ray. d. Palpate the mass and measure its size - Correct answer B" "A client presents to the family practice clinic reporting a week of watery, somewhat bloody diarrhea. The nurse assists the client to obtain a stool sample. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Ask the client about recent exposure to illness. b. Assess the clients stool for obvious food particles. c. Include the date and time on the specimen container. d. Put on gloves prior to collecting the sample. - Correct answer D" "A client who has been taking antibiotics reports severe, watery diarrhea. About which test does the nurse teach the client? a. Colonoscopy b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) toxin A+B c. Ova and parasites d. Stool culture - Correct answer B" "The nurse knows that a client with prolonged prothrombin time (PT) values (not related to medication) probably has dysfunction in which organ? a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Spleen d. Stomach - Correct answer B" "A client is recovering from an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and requests something to drink. What action by the nurse is best? a. Allow the client cool liquids only. b. Assess the clients gag reflex. c. Remind the client to remain NPO. d. Tell the client to wait 4 hours. - Correct answer B" "The nurse is aware of the 2014 American Cancer Society Screening Guidelines for colon cancer, which include which testing modalities for people over the age of 50? (Select all that apply.) a. Colonoscopy every 10 years b. Colonoscopy every 5 years c. Computed tomography (CT) colonography every 5 years d. Double-contrast barium enema every 10 years e. Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 10 years - Correct answer A,C" "A client had an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The nurse instructs the client and family about the signs of potential complications, which include what problems? (Select all that apply.) a. Cholangitis b. Pancreatitis c. Perforation d. Renal lithiasis e. Sepsis - Correct answer A,B,C,E" "The nurse working with older clients understands age-related changes in the gastrointestinal system. Which changes does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased hydrochloric acid production b. Diminished sensation that can lead to constipation c. Fat not digested as well in older adults d. Increased peristalsis in the large intestine e. Pancreatic vessels become calcified - Correct answer A,B,C,E" "he nurse working in the gastrointestinal clinic sees clients who are anemic. What are common causes for which the nurse assesses in these clients? (Select all that apply.) a. Colon cancer b. Diverticulitis c. Inflammatory bowel disease d. Peptic ulcer disease e. Pernicious anemia - Correct answer A,B,C,D" "The nurse working with clients who have gastrointestinal problems knows that which laboratory values are related to what organ dysfunctions? (Select all that apply.) a. Alanine aminotransferase: biliary system b. Ammonia: liver c. Amylase: liver d. Lipase: pancreas e. Urine urobilinogen: stomach - Correct answer B,D" "A nurse teaches clients at a community center about risks for dehydration. Which client is at greatest risk for dehydration? a. A 36-year-old who is prescribed long-term steroid therapy b. A 55-year-old receiving hypertonic intravenous fluids c. A 76-year-old who is cognitively impaired d. An 83-year-old with congestive heart failure - Correct answer C" "A nurse is caring for a client who exhibits dehydration-induced confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?a. Measure intake and output every 4 hours. b. Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula. c. Increase the IV flow rate to 250 mL/hr. d. Place the client in a high-Fowlers position. - Correct answer B" "After teaching a client who is being treated for dehydration, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. I must drink a quart of water or other liquid each day. b. I will weigh myself each morning before I eat or drink. c. I will use a salt substitute when making and eating my meals. d. I will not drink liquids after 6 PM so I wont have to get up at night. - Correct answer B" "A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits angiotensin I from converting into angiotensin II (angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitor). For which expected therapeutic effect should the nurse assess? a. Blood pressure decrease from 180/72 mm Hg to 144/50 mm Hg b. Daily weight increase from 55 kg to 57 kg c. Heart rate decrease from 100 beats/min to 82 beats/mind. d. Respiratory rate increase from 12 breaths/min to 15 breaths/min - Correct answer A" "A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which adult client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for insensible water loss? a. Client taking furosemide (Lasix) b. Anxious client who has tachypnea c. Client who is on fluid restrictions d. Client who is constipated with abdominal pain - Correct answer B" "A nurse is evaluating a client who is being treated for dehydration. Which assessment result should the nurse correlate with a therapeutic response to the treatment plan? a. Increased respiratory rate from 12 breaths/min to 22 breaths/min b. Decreased skin turgor on the clients posterior hand and forehead c. Increased urine specific gravity from 1.012 to 1.030 g/mL d. Decreased orthostatic light-headedness and dizziness - Correct answer D" "After teaching a client who is prescribed a restricted sodium diet, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which food choice for lunch indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Slices of smoked ham with potato salad b. Bowl of tomato soup with a grilled cheese sandwich c. Salami and cheese on whole wheat crackers d. Grilled chicken breast with glazed carrots - Correct answer D" "A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia? a. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W b. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic c. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin) d. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) - Correct answer A" "A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for mild hypernatremia. Which statement sh