Dental Terminology, 3rd Edition by Charline M. Dofka - Test Bank

Chapter 3: Tooth Origin and Formation TRUE/FALSE 1. Deciduous teeth also are known as baby teeth or primary teeth. ANS: T Deciduous means揻alling off,? and the baby or primary teeth are lost to make way for the permanent, or succedaneous, teeth PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Classification of the Human Dentition 2. The permanent teeth also are known as secondary or succedaneous teeth. ANS: T The permanent teeth are the second set of teeth and come after the primary or deciduous teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Classification of the Human Dentition 3. Anodontia is the term meaning extra teeth. ANS: F Anodontia refers to a partial or total lack of teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4. Dens in dente is an abnormally large tooth. ANS: F Dens in dente means a tooth within a tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 5. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder resulting in poorly formed dentin. ANS: T Dentinogenesis imperfecta does result in poorly formed dentin but is sometimes confused with amelogenesis imperfecta, which results in defective enamel. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Abnormalities 6. Amelogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder that results in poorly formed dentin. ANS: F Amelogenesis imperfecta results in poorly formed enamel. Poorly formed dentin may be the result of dentinogenesis imperfecta. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Abnormalities 1 Tooth Abnormalities Tooth Abnormalities 7. Fusion is where tooth buds unite, resulting in microdontia. ANS: F Fusion is the result of tooth buds uniting, but the result is macrodontia, abnormally large teeth. Microdontia is unusually small teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Abnormalities 8. Germination is where a single tooth germ separates to form two crowns on a single root. ANS: T Germination is where a germ splits to form two crowns but is sometimes confused with fusion, which is where tooth buds unite. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Abnormalities 9. Peg-shaped teeth usually occur in the mandibular lateral incisors. ANS: F Peg-shaped teeth usually occur in the maxillary lateral incisors. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Abnormalities 10. Enamel is the hard outer covering of the crown of the tooth. ANS: T Enamel covers the crown of the tooth. Cementum covers the root. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth 11. Dentin makes up the bulk of the tooth and is harder than enamel. ANS: F Dentin does make up the bulk of the tooth but is not as hard as enamel. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth 12. Pulp is found in the center of the tooth and registers sensations from the tooth. ANS: T Pulp is in the center of the tooth and functions to provide sensations from the tooth, as well as nourishment, defense, and dentin protection. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth 13. Cementum covers the root of the tooth and provides anchorage for the periodontal ligament. ANS: T Cementum covers just the root of the tooth and provides attachment for Sharpey抯 fibers, as well as protection for the root. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth 2 14. The purpose of the periodontium is to anchor, support, and protect the teeth. ANS: T The various tissues of the periodontium function to anchor, support, and protect the teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Composition of the Periodontium 15. Gingiva is also known as gum tissue. ANS: T Gingiva is commonly known as gum tissue, but gingiva is a more professional term. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Composition of the Periodontium 16. The mucogingival border is the area where the marginal and papillary gingiva unite. ANS: F The mucogingival border is the area where the gingiva and mucous membrane unite. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Gingiva 17. Marginal gingiva is firm, dense, and bound to underlying periosteum. ANS: F Marginal gingiva is unattached to underlying tissues and helps form the sulcus. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Gingiva 18. A mesial surface is also a proximal surface. ANS: T Mesial is a side surface and proximal surface is the side wall of a tooth, so they are the same. Mesial is more specific in that it is a proximal surface closer to the midline. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Anatomy 19. Dens in dente is a genetic disorder that results in formation of defective enamel. ANS: F Amelogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder that results in formation of defective enamel. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Abnormalities 20. There is no predictable pattern for tooth eruption. ANS: F Tooth eruption follows a general schedule or pattern. PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: Tooth Eruption 3 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The anterior of the mouth contains which teeth? a. incisors only c. incisors, canines, and premolars b. incisors and canines d. incisors, canines, and bicuspids ANS: B The anterior is the front of the mouth and contains the teeth from canine to canine: canines, lateral incisors and central incisors. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Odontology/Morphology 2. The posterior of the mouth contains which teeth? a. incisors, premolars, and molars c. premolars and molars b. molars only d. canines, premolars, and molars ANS: C The posterior of the mouth includes the premolars and the molars. The incisors and canines are considered anterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate 3. The clinical crown is a. covered with enamel b. covered with cementum REF: c. d. Odontology/Morphology visible in the oral cavity the bottom part of the tooth sometimes is confused with the anatomical Tooth Anatomy dentology periodontology ANS: C The clinical crown is visible in the oral cavity but crown, which is covered with enamel. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate 4. The study of tooth form and shape is called a. morphology b. odontology REF: c. d. ANS: A 5. A patient would have mixed dentition between what ages? REF: Odontology/Morphology a. 3 and 6 b. 6 and 16 ANS: B REF: Classification of the Human Dentition NUMERIC RESPONSE PTS: 1 DIF: easy c. 16 and 26 d. after age 70 DIF: easy 1. How many teeth are in the permanent dentition? ANS: 32 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Classification of the Human Dentition 4 2. How many teeth are in the primary dentition? ANS: 20 PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 3. The mouth is divided into how many arches? ANS: 2 PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 4. The mouth is divided into how many quadrants? Classification of the Human Dentition Odontology/Morphology ANS: 4 PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Odontology/Morphology COMPLETION Complete the following questions related to the stages of histological development of teeth based upon this figure. 1. The stage labeled A is ____________________. ANS: initiation PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development 2. The stage labeled C is ______________________________. ANS: histodifferentiation PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development 5 3. The stage labeled D is _________________________. ANS: morphodifferentiation PTS: 1 4. The stage labeled E ANS: apposition PTS: 1 5. The stage labeled F ANS: calcification PTS: 1 6. The stage labeled G ANS: eruption PTS: 1 7. The stage labeled H ANS: attrition PTS: 1 8. The stage labeled B ANS: proliferation PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: is ____________________. DIF: moderate REF: is ____________________. DIF: moderate REF: is ____________________. DIF: moderate REF: is ____________________ DIF: moderate REF: is ____________________. Histological Stages of Tooth Development Histological Stages of Tooth Development Histological Stages of Tooth Development Histological Stages of Tooth Development Histological Stages of Tooth Development DIF: moderate REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development 6 Complete the following questions by identifying the structures on the diagram related to the tissue structure of the tooth. 9. The structure labeled ANS: pulp PTS: 1 10. The structure labeled ANS: pulp canal PTS: 1 11. The structure labeled ANS: cementum PTS: 1 12. The structure labeled ANS: enamel PTS: 1 13. The structure labeled A is the _________________________. DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth B is the _________________________. DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth C is the _________________________. DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth D is the _________________________. DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth E is the _________________________. ANS: dentin PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tissue Structure of the Teeth 7 Complete the following questions by identifying the structure labeled in the diagram related to tooth anatomy. 14. The structure labeled A is the _________________________. ANS: contactpoint PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 15. The structure labeled B is the _________________________. ANS: embrasure PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 16. The structure labeled C consists of the _________________________. ANS: gingivalfibers PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 17. The structure labeled D is the _________________________. ANS: apicalforamen PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 18. The structure labeled E is the _________________________. ANS: apex PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 8 19. The structure labeled F is the _________________________. ANS: furcation PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 20. The structure labeled G is the _________________________. ANS: gingivalsulcus PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 21. The structure labeled H is the _________________________. ANS: fissure PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 22. The structure labeled I is termed the _________________________. ANS: proximalsurfaces PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 23. The structure labeled J is the _________________________. ANS: groove PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 24. The structure labeled K is the _________________________. ANS: pit PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 25. The structure labeled L is the _________________________. ANS: cusp PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Tooth Terms 26. The four parts of the periodontium are the ______________________________, the alveolar bone, the gingiva, and the cementum. ANS: periodontalmembrane PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Tissue Composition of the Periodontium 27. CEJ is the abbreviation for the _______________________________________. ANS: cementoenameljunction PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: Tooth Anatomy 9 MATCHING Match the stage of tooth development with its correct definition. a. eruption b. attrition c. apposition d. morphodifferentiation e. histodifferentiation f. calcification g. initiation h. proliferation 1. development of the dental lamina 2. small buds appear until all deciduous teeth are apparent 3. branches into different tissues 4. changes into another shape 5. mineral salts and organic matter are set in place 6. tooth tissues harden and set 7. tooth moves toward the oral cavity and enters through the tissues 8. surfaces wear away 1. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development G PTS: 1 DIF: easy 2. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development H PTS: 1 DIF: easy 3. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development E PTS: 1 DIF: easy 4. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development D PTS: 1 DIF: easy 5. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development C PTS: 1 DIF: easy 6. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development F PTS: 1 DIF: easy A PTS: 1 DIF: easy B PTS: 1 DIF: easy Stages of Tooth Development Match the tooth anatomy with the correct definition. 7. ANS: REF: Histological Stages of Tooth Development 8. ANS: REF: Histological a. embrasure b. antagonist c. apex d. midline e. axial surfaces f. line angle g. point angle h. proximal surface i. contact area 9. the tip end of a tooth 10. surface where two teeth meet side by side 11. V-shaped area between the contact point and the gingival crest 12. side wall of tooth that meets/touches the side wall of another tooth 13. long-length surface of the tooth 14. junction of two surfaces 15. junction of three surfaces 16. imaginary vertical line bisecting the head at the middle of the face 17. tooth that occludes with another tooth in the opposing arch 9. ANS: 10. ANS: 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 I PTS: 1 A PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: DIF: easy REF: DIF: easy REF: Tooth Anatomy Tooth Anatomy Tooth Anatomy 10 12. ANS: H 13. ANS: E 14. ANS: F 15. ANS: G 16. ANS: D 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy REF: Tooth Anatomy REF: Tooth Anatomy REF: Tooth Anatomy REF: Tooth Anatomy REF: Tooth Anatomy REF: Tooth Anatomy Match the tooth surface with its correct definition. a. labial b. buccal c. distal d. lingual e. incisal f. facial g. mesial h. apical i. occlusal 18. tooth surface toward the cheek and lips 19. posterior tooth surface toward the cheeks 20. anterior tooth surface toward the lips 21. tooth surface toward the tongue 22. side surface of the tooth closest to the midline 23. side surface of the tooth farthest from the midline 24. cutting edge of anterior teeth 25. grinding surface of posterior teeth 26. relative to the root tip end of the tooth 18. ANS: F 19. ANS: B 20. ANS: A 21. ANS: D 22. ANS: G 23. ANS: C 24. ANS: E 25. ANS: I 26. ANS: H PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces REF: Tooth Surfaces Match the tooth landmark with its correct definition. a. cingulum b. cusp c. furcation d. fossa e. pit f. ridge g. groove h. sulcus i. lobe j. furrow k. eminence l. fissure m. mamelon 27. a bump on the lingual surface near the cervical line on anterior teeth 28. a linear elevation 29. a groove or natural depression 30. a shallow depression found on the lingual surface of anterior teeth 31. a pinpoint depression 32. a long depression 33. a rut, furrow, or channel 34. a point of the crown of the tooth 35. a well-defined part of an organ that develops into tooth formation 36. a shallow, concave groove 11 37. a high place 38. where tooth roots branch apart 39. bumps on the incisal edge of newly erupted anterior teeth 27. ANS: A 28. ANS: F 29. ANS: L 30. ANS: D 31. ANS: E 32. ANS: H 33. ANS: G 34. ANS: B 35. ANS: I 36. ANS: J 37. ANS: K 38. ANS: C 39. ANS: M PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks REF: Tooth Landmarks 12 Chapter 6: Emergency Care TRUE/FALSE 1. The best treatment for medical emergencies consists of properly trained personnel and a properly stocked emergency cart. ANS: F The best treatment for medical emergencies is prevention. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Emergency Prevention Techniques 2. The diaphragm of the stethoscope intensifies the sound of the pulse. ANS: T The stethoscope is used to intensify body sounds, and the diaphragm is the specific part that intensifies the sound of the pulse when taking the blood pressure. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Blood Pressure 3. A sphygmomanometer is the instrument used to determine arterial blood pressure. ANS: T A sphygmomanometer is the name of the cuff used in the determination of blood pressure. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Blood Pressure 4. One type of arrhythmia is bradycardia. ANS: T Bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is one example of arrhythmia. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Pulse 5. Tachycardia is a rapid pulse rate. ANS: T Tachycardia denotes a pulse rate higher than 100 bpm in adults. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Pulse 6. An example of hypothermia is a body temperature of 39.3癈 (102.7癋 ). ANS: F Hypothermia is a lowered body temperature, below 35癈 (95癋 ). PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Temperature 7. An example of hyperthermia is a body temperature higher than 40癈 (104癋 ). ANS: T Hyperthermia is an elevated body temperature, higher than 40癈 (104癋 ). PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Temperature 1 8. A blood pressure reading of 80/50 for a 10-year-old girl would be considered normal. ANS: F A blood pressure of 80/50 would be considered low for children 6 to 12 years old. At that age, the systolic reading should fall between 84 and 120 and the diastolic reading should fall between 54 and 80. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 9. A blood pressure reading of 125/70 is in the normal range for both a 21-year-old girl and a 65- year-old man. ANS: T The normal range for blood pressure for adults aged 19 to 70 is 90 to 140 for the systolic and 60 to 90 for the diastolic. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 10. The normal rate of respiration for a 45-year-old female is 18 respirations per minute. ANS: T The normal rate of respiration for adults 19 to 70 is 15 to 20 respirations per minute. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Respiration 11. The normal rate of respiration for a 5-year-old boy is 16 respirations per minute. ANS: F The normal rate of respiration for a 5-year-old boy is between 22 and 35 respirations per minute, so 16 is too low. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Respiration 12. A normal pulse rate for a 13-year-old girl is 60 beats per minute. ANS: T A normal pulse rate for a 13-year-old girl is in the range of 60 to 90 beats per minute. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Pulse 13. A normal pulse rate for a 52-year-old man is 60 beats per minute. ANS: T A normal pulse rate for a 52-year-old man is in the range of 60 to 100 beats per minute. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Pulse 14. Cyanosis can be the result of hypoxia. ANS: T Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by hypoxia, a lack of oxygen. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Airway Obstruction and CPR Protocol 2 15. In the Heimlich maneuver, the feet are placed higher than the head. ANS: F The Heimlich maneuver is used to expel a blockage in the airway. The Trendelenburg position is the one in which the feet are placed higher than the head. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Airway Obstruction and CPR Protocol 16. In the Trendelenburg position, the patient is placed in an upright position to avoid an airway obstruction. ANS: F In the Trendelenburg position, the patient is placed in a subsupine position with the feet higher than the head. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Airway Obstruction and CPR Protocol 17. A finger sweep is used with a conscious person to establish that the airway is obstructed. ANS: F A finger sweep is used with an unconscious person to locate and remove a foreign object that is causing an airway obstruction. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult 18. Syncope is another term for fainting. ANS: T Syncope is another term for fainting. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate 19. Urticaria is also known as hives. REF: Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation REF: Classification of Shock ANS: T Urticaria is commonly called hives or wheals. PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: Common Medical Emergencies 20. Alveolitis is defined as a tooth that has been knocked out. ANS: F Alveolitis is inflammation of the alveolar area or a dry socket. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Common Dental Emergencies 21. An avulsed tooth is a tooth that has been knocked out. ANS: T Avulsed refers to something that has been knocked out or torn away. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Common Dental Emergencies 3 22. The AHA recommends immediately providing 30 chest compressions followed by two breaths when performing CPR. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Vital signs include a. height, weight, pain, and medications b. health concerns, pain, chief complaint, and blood pressure c. blood pressure, pulse, and weight d. blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and temperature ANS: D Appropriate vital signs include blood pressure, pulse, respiration, temperature, and pain. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Emergency Prevention Techniques 2. The diastolic reading of the blood pressure is recorded a. first, can be an even or odd number, and represents pressure in vessels under the pulse push b. after the systolic reading, as an even number, and represents pressure in blood vessels at rest c. after the systolic reading, is an even number, and represents pressure in vessels under the pulse push d. first, can be an even or odd number, and represents pressure in blood vessels at rest ANS: B The diastolic reading of the blood pressure is an indication of blood pressure when the blood vessels are at rest and is recorded as an even number after the systolic reading. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 3. The systolic reading of the blood pressure represents the pressure of vessels a. at rest and is recorded first b. at rest and is recorded second c. under the pulse push and is recorded first d. at rest and is recorded second ANS: C The systolic reading of the blood pressure represents the pressure of vessels under the pulse push and is recorded first. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Blood Pressure 4 4. For sound determination of blood pressure: a. a stethoscope is placed in the antecubital fossa b. a sphygmomanometer is placed in the antecubital fossa c. a stethoscope is placed on the diaphragm d. none of the above ANS: A The diaphragm of the stethoscope is placed in the antecubital fossa of the arm and the sphygmomanometer is placed above the antecubital fossa to determine blood pressure sounds. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 5. A febrile pulse is a. a normal pulse rate that becomes weak with illness b. a pulse with skipped heartbeats c. a pulse that varies in force d. a hard-to-locate pulse ANS: A A febrile pulse is a normal pulse rate that becomes weak and feeble with illness or prostration PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Pulse 6. A thready pulse a. is a normal pulse that becomes weak with illness b. is a pulse with skipped heartbeats c. is a pulse with a variation in force d. is a hard-to-locate pulse ANS: D A thready pulse is a hard-to-locate, barely perceivable pulse. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate 7. Dyspnea refers to a. temporary cessation of breathing b. strong inhalations and exhalations REF: Pulse c. rapid breathing, especially in children d. difficult or labored breathing ANS: D Dyspnea refers to out-of-breath, difficult, or labored breathing. PTS: 1 8. Rales are heard a. on exhalation b. during snoring DIF: moderate REF: Respiration c. on inhalation d. all of the above ANS: C Rales are noisy sounds from lung mucus heard on inhalation. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Respiration 5 9. Stertorous breathing is a. a breathing pattern observed shortly before death b. rapid breathing in children c. snoring d. sounds from lung mucus ANS: C Stertorous breathing is another name for snoring. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Respiration 10. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a. short inhalations with a small chest rise b. strong inhalations, then holding the exhalation c. rattling or bubbling sounds d. a breathing pattern observed shortly before death ANS: D Cheyne-Stokes respirations are respirations that gradually increase, then subside and cease for a short period, then repeat the cycle. This breathing pattern can be noted in the dying. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Respiration 11. A blood pressure within normal range for an 11-year-old boy is a. 70/50 c. 100/70 b. 82/52 d. 125/88 ANS: C For children 6 to 12 years old, the systolic reading should fall between 84 and 120 and the diastolic reading should fall between 54 and 80. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 12. A blood pressure reading of 100/80 is considered in the normal range for a. children 6 to 12 years old c. adults b. children 13 to 18 years old d. all of the above ANS: D A blood pressure reading of 100/80 falls within normal ranges for anyone older than age 6. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 13. A blood pressure reading of 135/90 is considered high in a. children 6 to 12 years old c. adults b. children 6 to 18 years old d. geriatric patients ANS: B A blood pressure reading of 135/90 is considered high in anyone younger than 19 years of age. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Blood Pressure 6 14. A blood pressure within normal ranges for a 35-year-old woman is a. 70/50 c. 130/80 b. 100/55 d. 145/75 ANS: C Normal blood pressure ranges for adults between 19 and 70 years of age are 90 to 140 for the systolic pressure and 60 to 90 for the diastolic pressure. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult 15. A pulse rate of 90 is considered normal for a. infants b. children 2 to 18 years old REF: Blood Pressure c. adults d. all of the above ANS: D A pulse rate of 90 is within normal limits for all age groups. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Pulse 16. A pulse rate of 95 is considered normal in all age groups EXCEPT a. infants c. children 13 to 18 years old b. children 6 to 12 years old d. geriatrics ANS: C A pulse rate of 95 is outside the normal range for children 1 to 18 years of age. The normal pulse rate for this age group is between 60 and 90 beats per minute. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Pulse 17. The normal pulse rate for a 17-year-old male is a. 120 c. 75 b. 100 d. 50 ANS: C For a 17-year-old male the normal pulse rate is between 60 and 90 beats per minute. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Pulse 18. The normal respiration rate for a 37-year-old female is a. 45 c. 25 b. 30 d. 15 ANS: D For a 37-year-old female the normal respiration rate is between 15 and 20 respirations per minute. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Respiration 19. A respiration rate of 12 breaths per minute would a. infants c. adults b. children 6 to 12 years of age d. none of the above ANS: D A respiration rate of 12 breaths per minute would rate of 12 falls below the normal for all ages. be normal for none of the above. A respiration PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Respiration 7 be normal for 20. Oxygen tanks are always which color? a. white b. green ANS: B Oxygen tanks are always green. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate Materials c. blue d. silver REF: Emergency Prevention Equipment and 21. Symptoms of syncope include a. slow pulse, dry skin, and cyanotic lips b. rapid pulse, increased blood pressure, and dry skin c. irregular pulse, erythema of the skin, and decreased blood pressure d. weak pulse, pale skin, and sweating ANS: D Symptoms of syncope include weak, fast or irregular pulse; a drop in blood pressure; an increase in respiration rate; pale, moist skin; and possibly vomiting. PTS: 1 22. Edema is a. redness b. itching ANS: C Edema is a tissue swelling. PTS: 1 DIF: DIF: difficult REF: c. d. moderate REF: Classification of Shock swelling watery blisters Common Medical Emergencies brain functioning is disturbed lung function is compromised 23. A diabetic coma can result when a. the patient is hypoglycemic c. b. the patient is hyperglycemic d. ANS: B A diabetic coma can result when the patient is hyperglycemic, a condition in which the blood sugar level is increased. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult 24. Insulin shock can result when the patient a. is hyperglycemic b. is choking c. is fainting d. has received too much insulin REF: Diabetes Mellitus ANS: D Insulin shock can result when the patient has received too much insulin, and it results in hypoglycemia. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Diabetes Mellitus 8 25. The myocardium of the heart is the a. sac of the heart c. middle muscular layer b. lining of the chambers d. outer serous layer ANS: C The myocardium of the heart is the middle muscular layer. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate 26. The endocardium of the heart is the a. upper chamber b. muscular layer REF: Heart Conditions c. inner layer d. sac of the heart ANS: C The endocardium is the inner layer of the heart, lining the four chambers. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate 27. The structure of the left side of the heart is a. ventricle, pulmonary valve, atrium b. ventricle, tricuspid valve, atrium REF: Heart Conditions c. atrium, mitral valve, ventricle d. atrium, tricuspid valve, ventricle ANS: C The structure of the left side of the heart is the atrium, the mitral or bicuspid valve, and the ventricle. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Heart Conditions 28. The structure of the right side of the heart is the a. ventricle, mitral valve, atrium c. b. ventricle, tricuspid valve, atrium d. ventricle, bicuspid valve, atrium atrium, pulmonary valve, ventricle ANS: D The structure of the right side of the heart is the atrium, pulmonary or tricuspid valve, and ventricle. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult 29. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve the pain of a. angina pectoris b. a murmur REF: Heart Conditions c. arteriosclerosis d. atherosclerosis ANS: A Nitroglycerin is used to relieve the pain of angina pectoris. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Heart Conditions 30. A stroke is defined as a. insufficient blood to the brain b. wheezing and coughing c. an attack of disturbed brain functioning that recurs d. necrosis of the myocardium ANS: A A stroke is defined as insufficient blood supply to the brain because of a rupture or blockage. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Stroke 9 31. An embolism is defined as a. a rupture in an artery b. a floating clot or air bubble c. a clot forming in a blood vessel d. a balloon-like enlargement of a blood vessel ANS: B An embolism is defined as a floating clot or an air bubble that may lodge in a blood vessel. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Stroke 32. A hemorrhage is defined as a. a balloon-like enlargement of a blood vessel b. a localized temporary anemia c. a decreased blood supply d. a rupture in a brain artery ANS: D A hemorrhage is a rupture in a brain artery. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Stroke 33. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is defined as a. necrosis of the myocardium b. a rupture in a brain artery c. a localized temporary anemia d. a balloon-like enlargement of a blood vessel ANS: C A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a localized temporary anemia. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: Stroke 34. Myocardial infarction (MI) is defined as a. a balloon-like enlargement of a blood vessel b. insufficient blood to the brain c. localized temporary anemia d. necrosis of the myocardium ANS: D Myocardial infarction (MI) is defined as necrosis of the myocardium. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult REF: 35. Epistaxis refers to bleeding a. from the nose c. b. in the brain d. ANS: A Epistaxis refers to bleeding from the nose. PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Heart Conditions in the heart all of the above Common Dental Emergencies 10 36. Postural hypotension refers to a. decreased blood pressure as a result of sitting up too quickly b. increased blood pressure as a result of standing for a long time c. recurrent attacks of disturbed brain functioning d. difficultly breathing as a result of lying flat ANS: A Postural hypotension refers to decreased blood pressure that results from sitting up too quickly, especially after being in the supine position of dental treatment for a long time. PTS: 1 DIF: difficult 37. Where would you find the brachial artery? a. on the side of the neck b. on the inside of the upper arm ANS: B PTS: 1 38. What type of stroke is characterized by a blood vessel in the brain that weakens and bursts? a. ischemic b. embolic ANS: D 39. The acronym used to remind people of a the symptoms of a stroke is a. metabolic b. neurogenic ANS: C MATCHING PTS: 1 c. septic d. postural DIF: moderate REF: f. postural g. psychogenic h. respiratory i. septic Match the type of shock with its definition. a. anaphylactic b. cardiogenic c. hemorrhage d. metabolic e. neurogenic 1. arising from diseases such as diabetes 2. arising from nervous impulses 3. arising from a reaction to a body allergen 4. arising from mental origins 5. arising from insufficient breathing 6. arising from a sudden change in body position 7. arising from a microbial infection 8. arising from improper heart action 9. arising from excessive blood loss PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: Stroke Stroke Classification of Shock a. ABCD b. FAST ANS: B 40. The type of shock resulting from an widespread infection is called PTS: 1 DIF: moderate REF: 1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: easy REF: 11 Classification of Shock REF: Common Dental Emergencies c. on the wrist d. at the groin area DIF: moderate REF: Blood Pressure c. thrombotic d. hemorrhagic c. LOL d. CAB 2. ANS: E 3. ANS: A 4. ANS: G 5. ANS: H 6. ANS: F 7. ANS: I 8. ANS: B 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy e. aura f. clonic g. tonic REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock REF: Classification of Shock Match the term with its correct definition. a. epilepsy b. petit mal c. grand mal d. status epilepticus 10. a subtle sensation of oncoming physical or mental disorder 11. significant epileptic attack 12. succession of epileptic attacks without regaining consciousness between attacks 13. momentary unconsciousness episodes with mild body movements 14. the jerking movements of an epileptic attack 15. continuous muscular tension of an epileptic attack 16. characterized by recurrent attacks of disturbed brain functioning 10. ANS: E 11. ANS: C 12. ANS: D 13. ANS: B 14. ANS: F 15. ANS: G 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1 DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy DIF: easy REF: Epilepsy REF: Epilepsy REF: Epilepsy REF: Epilepsy REF: Epilepsy REF: Epilepsy REF: Epilepsy 12