CCI RCIS Review Exam Questions With Verified Answers

1. Bradycardia, Temp Pacer. - AnswerThe use of ANGIOJET for a thrombectomy in the CX can cause __________ and ___________ would be required. 1. Bradycardia, Temp Pacer. 2. Hypotension, Dopamine. 3. SVT, Adenosine. 4. SVT, Cardioversion. 2. OTW. - AnswerAll of the following dilation balloon catheter descriptions are synonymous, EXCEPT: 1. Monorail. 2. OTW. 3. Single operator. 4. RX. - Normal LCA: JL3.5/4. - Dilated root: JL5/6. - Superior origin: AL3. - Short LM: JL4 short tip. - Enlarged root: XB/EBU. - Inferior takeoff: MP. - AnswerMatch the adequate guider with the specific LCA anatomy: a) Normal LCA. b) JL3.5/4. c) Dilated root. d) JL5/JL6. e) Superior origin. f) AL3. g) Short LM. h) JL4 short tip. i) Enlarged root. j) XB/EBU. k) Inferior takeoff. l) MP. - Normal RCA: JR4. - Shepherd's crook: Arani75. - Anterior origin: MPA. - Inferior origin: AR MOD. - Superior origin: HS. - Dilated root: AL2. - AnswerMatch the adequate guider with the specific RCA anatomy: a) Normal RCA. b) JR4. c) Shepherd's crook. d) Arani 75. e) Anterior origin. f) MPA. g) Inferior origin. h) AR MOD. i) Superior origin. j) HS. k) Dilated root. l) AL2. 2. bifurcation lesions/shifting of plaque. - AnswerThe "kissing balloon technique" is used in _______ to prevent _______. 1. bifurcation lesions/vessel remodeling. 2. bifurcation lesions/shifting of plaque. 3. CTOs/vessel remodeling. 4. CTOs/"snow plowing" of thrombus. 2. Stent placement. - AnswerWith history of brain bleed, which of the following is LEAST likely to be used: 1. IAB insertion. 2. Stent placement. 3. Temp. PM. 4. Anti-arrhythmic medications. 2. Coronary spasm. - AnswerMechanisms of RESTENOSIS pot-PTCA include all the following EXCEPT: 1. Elastic recoil. 2. Coronary spasm. 3. Vascular remodeling. 4. Intimal hyperplasia - Answer70 y/o with Inferior MI arrives 3hrs. from initial CP. HR: 110 bpm, BP: 70/40, H/O hemorrhagic stroke and anterior MI. After PTCA of the RCA ventricular arrhythmias result. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used? 1. IAB insertion. 2. Stent placement. 3. Temporary PM. 4. Anti-arrhythmic medications. 1. Troponin test. 2. Temperature. 3. 12-lead ECG. - AnswerThe patient's ventilation and blood pressure have responded to treatment. What other lab or diagnostic tests would be appropriate to consider at this time for reversible causes? - Norepinephrine: 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min. - Dopamine: 5-20 mcg/kg/min. - Epinephrine: 2-10 mcg/min. - NS or Lactated Ringer's: 1-2 L. - AnswerMatch the treatment for HYPOTENSION to proper INITIAL dosage for an adult on the AHA guidelines: a) Norepinephrine IV. b) 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg per minute. c) Dopamine. d) 5-20 mcg/kg per minute. e) Epinephrine. f) 2-10 mcg/kg per minute. g) NS or Lactated Ringer's. h) 1-2 L a) Maintaining a Target PaCO2 of 35-45 mmHg. b) Maintaining SpO2 at 92-98%. c) Ventilating the patient with 10 breaths per minute. - AnswerThe patient has a palpable pulse, HR of 65/min, SPO2 of 94%, ETCO2 of 38 mmHg, and BP of 82/55 mmHg. What are your highest priority? Administer AMIODARONE 300 mg IV. - AnswerAt the next pulse check, compressors are switched, and rhythm continues to be refractory V-fib/ V-tach. A shock is delivered, and CPR is resumed. What is your next intervention? 1. Begin the STROKE PATHWAY. 2. Support ABCs. 3. Admit to ICU. - AnswerA stroke patient is NO longer a candidate for FIBRINOLYTIC THERAPY because its neurologic function is rapidly improving, what your next steps for him? True - AnswerWithin minutes, the CT scan suggests an Acute Ischemic Infraction (ACI) with NO signs of hemorrhage or mass lesions. This patient a potential candidate for Fibrinolytic Therapy: T/F Neurologic Assessment. - AnswerWhat needs to be completed for a stroke patient within 20 minutes after the hospital arrival? 1. Complete Neurologic Screening. 2. Check Glucose. 3. Activate the Stroke Team. 4. Order an emergent CT scan or MRI of the brain and review patient history. 5. Establish IV access. - AnswerThe patient's vital signs show HR: 92/min., RR: 14/min., BP: 130/86, SpO2: 97%, and A-fib on the monitor. What additional assessment and stabilization activities should be completed within the first 10 min. after the patient's arrival? Nitroglycerin sublingual or translingual every 3-5 minutes. - AnswerYour patient continues to say that he has chest pain discomfort. What treatment can you repeat as long as it is not contraindicated by vital signs? Start O2 at 4L/min. via nasal cannula. - AnswerThe patient initial vital signs are HR: 120/min., BP: 135/88 mmHg, RR: 23/min., SpO2: 87%, and temperature: 37.3 C. When considering O2 sats, what is your course of action? 1. Wilkins. - AnswerPercutaneous balloon MITRAL VALVULOPLASTY (also called valvotomy or commissurotomy) is performed in patients with severe mitral stenosis most commonly secondary to rheumatic heart disease. What is the scoring system based on the echocardiographic characteristics of the valve used to decide whether the mitral valvuloplasty will likely work? 1. Wilkins. 2. Judkins. 3. Aldrete. 4. TIMI. a) 160-180 seconds. b) 150 seconds - AnswerBefore inserting Impella, administer heparin to achieve goal ACT 250 seconds. Once the system is started, the ACT should be maintained at _________. Once the ACT is _______, the device can be removed through the sheath. False. (Impella 5.0 requires surgical cut down due to its large diameter, and thus cannot be percutaneously inserted) - AnswerImpella comes in three catheter diameter sizes that provide variable levels of flow: a) Impella 2.5 (12F). b) Impella CP (14F). c) Impella 5.0 (21F). They all can be inserted by percutaneous approach: T/F 1. Left main disease. 2. Multi-vessel disease. 3. Bifurcation disease. 4. Last patent conduit to the heart. 5. Severely calcified vessels requiring atherectomy (laser, rotational, orbital). - AnswerLV and coronary ANGIOGRAPHIC characteristics that will be considered INDICATIONS for Impella: 1. Severe left ventricular dysfunction. 2. Advanced age. 3. Chronic kidney disease. 4.Diabetes. - AnswerCLINICAL characteristics that will be considered INDICATIONS for Impella: 1. Acute myocardial infarction. 2. Cardiogenic shock. 3. Acute cardiogenic shock. 4. Persistent severe ventricular dysfunction despite reperfusion. (The device has sometimes been used for LV unloading following placement of veno-arterial extracorporeal membranous oxygenation (VA-ECMO) system. This is an off-label indication) - AnswerClinical PRESENTATION that will be considered INDICATIONS for Impella: 1. Left ventricular thrombus. 2. Left ventricular rupture and/or cardiac tamponade. 3. Ventricular septal rupture. 4. Severe right-sided heart failure. - AnswerVENTRICULAR complications that would be considered CONTRAINDICATIONS for Impella: 1. Mechanical aortic valve. 2. Critical aortic valve stenosis (≤ 0.6 cm²). 3. Moderate to severe aortic valve regurgitation. - AnswerAORTIC VALVE dysfunctions that would be considered CONTRAINDICATIONS for Impella: 1. Ventricular complications. 2. Aortic valve dysfunction. 3. Severe peripheral arterial disease (delivery complications). - AnswerThree general CONTRAINDICATIONS to Impella® placement: c) 50%. - AnswerWhen talking about MVV final result, acute procedural success is defined by a decrease in the mean gradient by ______, mitral valve area greater than 1.5 cm2, reduced left atrial pressure, and less than moderate mitral regurgitation. a) 90%. b) 70%. c) 50%. d) 30%. 1. High mobility: 1/4; Minimal: 4/4 2. Normal thickness: 1/4; Severe thickness: 4/4. 3. Minimal chordal thickness: 1/4; Complete thickness: 4/4. 4. Minimal calcification: 1/4; throughout calcification: 4/4. Worst score: 16 = unlikely successful intervention. Score ≤8 = high success rate intervention. - AnswerThe Wilkins Score is divided into 4 categories: 1. Leaflet mobility. 2. Valve thickness. 3. Subvalvular thickness. 4. Valvular calcification. How is the score assigned? c) RAO 30. - AnswerIn a Mitral Valvuloplasty Intervention, which is the best fluoroscopic view to potion the the Inoue Balloon across the Mitral Valve? a) LAO 30. b) AP cranial. c) RAO 30. d) AP caudal. 1. symptomatic with severe mitral stenosis by echocardiography. 2. asymptomatic patients w/ very severe mitral stenosis, new onset atrial fibrillation. 3. patients with elevated pulmonary artery (PA) pressures. - AnswerWhen is Mitral Valve Intervention appropriate? 1. symptomatic with severe mitral stenosis by echocardiography. 2. asymptomatic patients severe mitral stenosis, new onset atrial fibrillation. 3. patients with elevated pulmonary artery (PA) pressures. 4. Presence of a LAA thrombus. 5. More than moderate MR. True (Ultrasonic Infusion Catheter ) - AnswerUltrasonic Pharmacomechanical Infusion Thrombolysis Catheter is a minimally invasive system for dissolving thrombus that is designed for controlled ultrasonic infusion therapy of tPA along with US waves. It increases the effects of tPA by thinning the fibrin and increasing porosity. T/F 1. LAO caudal ("spider"). 2. RAO caudal or AP caudal. 3. RAO cranial or AP cranial. 4. LAO cranial. - AnswerFor left-sided lesions, the __________ view can help differentiate the ostium of the LAD/LCX and allow precise steering of the guidewire initially. After the wire is in the appropriate vessel, switch to the most typical helpful views: - for LCX lesions: _________. - for LAD lesions ________. - for RCA lesions: _________. True. - AnswerVessel-specific complications: 1. Air embolism . 2. Coronary artery dissection or perforation. 3. Acute vessel closure. 4. No reflow phenomenon. 5. Acute stent thrombosis. T/F 175-200 - AnswerIf manual compression is desired, the sheath can be removed once the ACT is less than anywhere between __________ seconds, depending on local practices. True - AnswerFor anticoagulation, the most commonly used agents include unfractionated heparin and Bivalirudin (Angiomax). For antiplatelet therapies, oral agents include the oral P2Y12 inhibitors (Clopidogrel/Plavix, Prasugrel/Effient, Ticagrelor/Brilinta), intravenous P2Y12 inhibitor (Cangrelor), and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors (Abciximab/ReoPro, Tirofiban/Aggrastat, Eptifibatide/Integrilin). T/F True. - AnswerMonorails is also called RX for rapid exchange or single operator exchange (SOE). T/F 1. thinner. 2. stiffer. - AnswerGuide catheters have ________ walls and are ________ than diagnostic catheters and are constructed to provide a larger lumen as well as additional support for the PCI procedure. True (Stent material) - AnswerThe most common stents used today are made of steel, Cobalt-Chromium, or Platinum-Chromium. T/F 1. endothelialize (heal). 2. in-stent restenosis. - AnswerThe advantage of bare-metal stents is that they ___________ quickly, which limits the amount of time the patient needs to be on dual antiplatelet therapy (typically Aspirin and another medication like Clopidogrel/Plavix). The disadvantage is that the healing response can be pronounced, leading to higher rates of ______________. LAO - AnswerFor review, the SVG to right coronary artery (RCA) is best engaged in the ______ projection. a) 5,000u. - AnswerOn a PTCA/stent case, 200lb patient, 10,000u of Heparin were administered. What is the recommended dose of Heparin when the ACT is 250-279 sec.? a) 5,000u. b) 10,000u. c) 1,000u. d) 500u. 1. Valsalva maneuver. Hold your nose, close your mouth, and try to blow the air out. This creates pressure in your chest that may activate the vagus nerve. Sitting or squatting may help. Try it for 10 seconds. 2. Cough. You need to cough hard to generate pressure in your chest and stimulate the vagus nerve. Children with tachycardia may not be able to cough hard enough to get a response from the vagus nerve. 3. Gag. You can try it with a finger. Your doctor might use a tongue depressor. 4. Hold your knees against your chest: Do it for a minute. This may work best for babies and children. 5. Cold water treatment. You might hear this called the diving reflex. You may need to put a plastic bag of ice on your face for 15 seconds. Or you can immerse your face in icy cold water for several seconds. It might also work to step into a cold shower or a cold bath. 6. Carotid sinus massage (only a doctor should perform this one): Lie down and stick out your chin. The doctor will put pressure on your carotid sinus, a bundle of nerves surrounding the carotid artery in your neck just below your jaw. You'll be monitored during the procedure. - AnswerGive a description of the following types of VAGAL MANEUVERS: 1. Valsalva maneuver. 2. Cough. 3. Gag. 4. Hold your knees against your chest. 5. Cold water treatment. 6. Carotid sinus massage. 4. maintenance of continuous ANTEGRADE blood flow. - AnswerThe benefit of utilizing the FILTER DEVICE TECHNIQUE over the Balloon Occlusion Devices is: 1. protection against distal embolization AFTER the lesion is crossed with a guidewire by occluding the vessel. 2. protection against distal embolization BEFORE the lesion is crossed with a guidewire by occluding the vessel. 3. maintenance of continuous RETROGRADE blood flow. 4. maintenance of continuous ANTEGRADE blood flow. 1. Inflate the device while simultaneously withdrawing the arterial sheath. 3. The final pressure should be 10-20 mmHg above systolic. 4. Allow for slight bleeding at the site is preferred. - AnswerWhat are the instructions when inflating FEMOSTOP? (Select 3) 1. Inflate the device while simultaneously withdrawing the arterial sheath. 2. The final pressure should be the same during inflation. 3. The final pressure should be 10-20 mmHg above systolic. 4. Allow for slight bleeding at the site is preferred. 5. Do not allow for bleeding. 6. Do not remove the sheath until the device is inflated. 1. Heparin. - AnswerWhat is the best anticoagulation for a CTO procedure? 1. Heparin. 2. Antiplatelet therapy. 3. Plavix. 4. Aspirin. 1. Retrograde. - AnswerWhat is the best and newer approach for CTO treatment? 1. Retrograde. 2. Distal. 3. Anterograde. 4. Lateral. 3. Coronary artery aneurysms. - AnswerKAWASAKI disease causes: 1. Mitral valve stenosis. 2. Aortic stenosis. 3. Coronary artery aneurysms. 4. Pulmonary stenosis. 1. Bridge-to-Transplantation. 2. Bridge-to-the-Decision. 3. Bridge-to-Recovery. - AnswerSelect the following indications for an LVAD: (Select 3) 1. Bridge-to-Transplantation. 2. Bridge-to-the-Decision. 3. Bridge-to-Recovery. 4. Acute Cardiogenic Shock. Ostium Primum Defect: Is part of ATRIOVENTRICULAR canal defects and is associated with a split (CLEFT) in one of the leaflets of the mitral valve. Sinus Venosus Defect: his defect occurs at the SVC/RA junction in the area where the right PVs enter the heart. Ostium Secundum Defect: An opening in the center of the wall separating the two atria. Coronary Sinus Defect: This defect is located within the wall of the coronary sinus, where it passes behind the left atrium. - AnswerMatch the ASD type with its correct description: 1. Ostium Primum Defect 2. his defect occurs at the superior vena cava and right atrium junction in the area where the right pulmonary veins enter the heart. 3. Sinus Venosus Defect 4. An opening in the center of the wall separating the two atria. 5. Ostium Secundum Defect 6. Is part of atrioventricular canal defects and is associated with a split (cleft) in one of the leaflets of the mitral valve. 7. Coronary Sinus Defect: 8. This defect is located within the wall of the coronary sinus, where it passes behind the left atrium 1. reverse controlled antegrade and retrograde tracking (CART). - AnswerThe most commonly used Retrograde Crossing Technique is the: 1. reverse controlled antegrade and retrograde tracking (CART). 2. reverse forward antegrade and retrograde tracking (FART). 3. reverse system hybrid antegrade and retrograde tracking (SHART). 1. Acute Cardiogenic Shock with neurological compromise. 2. RV Dysfunction. (Contraindications) - AnswerWhich of the following are CONTRAINDICATIONS for an LVAD (LV Assist Devise: implantable mechanical pump)? (Select 2) 1. Acute cardiogenic shock with neurological compromise 2. RV Dysfunction 3. Bridge-to-Transplantation 4. Bridge-to-the-Decision 2. Ligamentum Arteriosus and Aortic Arch. - AnswerCOARCTATION of the Aorta is classified relative to its association with the: 1. Ligamentum Arteriosus and IVC. 2. Ligamentum Arteriosus and Aortic Arch. 3. Ligamentum Arteriosus and SVC. 4. Fossa Ovalis and Aortic Arch. - Brilinta: Ticagrelor. - Effient: Prasugrel. - Plavix: Clodidogrel. - Reopro: Abciximab. - Aggrastat: Tirofiban - AnswerMatch the brand name of the medications below with their generic names: 1. Brilinta 2. Prasugrel 3. Plavix 4. Ticagrelor 5. Effient 6. Clopidrogel 7. Reopro 8. Abciximab 9. Aggrastat 10. Tirofiban 4. LVAD's (Left Ventricular Assist Device: implantable mechanical pump) - AnswerHeartMate II, HeartMate III, and Heartware HVAD are examples of: 1. IABP. 2. Impella. 3. RVAD's. 4. LVAD's. 2. Low-risk, multivessel coronary artery disease, De-novo lesion 25 mm in length (NOT a contraindication) - AnswerWhich of the following is NOT a contraindication for Rotational Atherectomy? 1. Angiographic evidence of significant dissection Type C or greater at the treatment site. 2. Low-risk, multivessel coronary artery disease, De novo lesion 25 mm in length. 3. Saphenous vein graft PCI. 4. Occlusions where a guidewire cannot be passed. True - AnswerCyanotic heart disease is a R-L shunt with increased PVR: T/F 1. Heart block. 2. Blood clots. 3. Infection. 4. Chamber puncture. - AnswerWhat are the RISKS of Alcohol Septal Ablation? (Select all that apply) 1. Heart block. 2. Blood clots. 3. Infection. 4. Chamber puncture. 5. Edema. 2. IJ. - AnswerWhat is the most common access for a Cardiac Biopsy? 1. Brachial. 2. IJ. 3. Femoral. 4. Radial. 2. Angioseal. - AnswerWhich closure device can be utilized in fully anticoagulated patients? 1. Vascade. 2. Angioseal. 3. Perclose. 4. Mynx. 1. Chest pain. 2. Heart palpitations. 4. Swelling of the legs or abdomen. 5. Confusion. 6. Decreased urine output. - AnswerSelect the SYMPTOMS of cardiac TAMPONADE: (select 5) 1. Chest pain. 2. Heart palpitations. 3. Rapid breathing. 4. Swelling of the legs or abdomen. 5. Confusion. 6. Decreased urine output. 7. Headache. 2. Coronary artery spasm 3. Blood clots 4. Bleeding - AnswerWhat are the possible complications after a coronary angioplasty STENT? (Select 3) 1. Arrhythmias 2. Coronary artery spasm 3. Blood clots 4. Bleeding V3, V4, V5. - AnswerA patient arrives at the emergency room showing acute anterior wall MI. Which leads show the MI? a) V4 b) aVR c) V1 d) Lead I e) V5 d) V3 e)Lead II 50 mg PO (or IM or IV, if patient cannot take PO), one hour prior to the procedure. - AnswerFor Contrast allergy, the patient can be pre-medicated with Diphenhydramine (Benadryl). What is the standard dose for adults? A) Administer NIFEDIPINE 10 mg orally or NITROGLYCERIN 400 mcg sublingually. B) Give VERAPAMIL (Isoptin) 2.5 mg intra-arterial or DILTIAZEM (Cardizem) can also be used. D) Administer NITROGLYCERIN 200 mcg IA; repeat if necessary. E) Place warm compresses over the forearm to relax the spastic artery. F) Administer more ANALGESIA and sedation. - AnswerDuring removal, if spasm is severe and the sheath (or catheter) is stuck, the following actions can be undertaken: (Choose 5) A) Administer nifedipine 10 mg orally or nitroglycerin 400 mcg sublingually. B) Give verapamil 2.5 mg intra-arterial or diltiazem. C) Administer atenolol 50 mg. D) Administer nitroglycerin 200 mcg IA; repeat if necessary. E) Place warm compresses over the forearm to relax the spastic artery. F) Administer more analgesia and sedation. 2. Bradycardia. - AnswerWhat type of arrhythmia is most often seen in RCA occlusions? 1. V-tach. 2. Bradycardia. 3. SVT. 4. Tachycardia. Remove transient flora. Minimize resident flora. - AnswerWhat is the purpose of a surgical scrub? Appropriately match the concepts below: 1. Resident Flora. 2. Remove. 3. Transient flora. 4. Minimize. 3. DOB and hospital ID. - AnswerWhich two identifiers can you use to verify a patient's identity? 1. DOB and picture ID. 2. Attending surgeon and hospital ID. 3. DOB and hospital ID. 4. Room number and patient's name. 1. Shoe covers. 2. Headcover. 3. Eyewear. 4. Scrub. 5. Gown. 6. Gloves. - AnswerWhat is the right sequence for donning surgical PPE, not including the mask? 1. Pour 1 pump of the solution onto the palm. 2. Soak opposite hand's fingertips into the solution in a circular motion. 3. Apply the rest of the solution onto the opposite hand up to 2" above the wrist. 4. Repeat on second hand. 5. Pour 1 pump of the solution and apply on both hands and arms up to 2' above the elbow. 6. Air dry. - AnswerWhat are the steps to apply alcohol-based hand scrub solution to scrub a case? a) 4th intercostal space. d) Mid-clavicular line. - AnswerWhat are the landmarks to place V4? (Select all that apply) a) 4th intercostal space. b) 5th intercostal space. c) Mid-axillary line. d) Mid-clavicular line. 1. Contrast media pressure injector. 2. Transvenous pacemakers. 5. Digital imaging interfaces. 6. Defibrillator. 7. IABPs. - AnswerTo set up the Cath Lab for a PCI, which of the following pieces equipment must be tested BEFORE the procedure by the tech? (Select all that apply) 1. Contrast media pressure injector. 2. Transvenous pacemakers. 3. Medication. 4. Cardiac output thermodilution computer. 5. Digital imaging interfaces. 6. Defibrillator. 7. IABPs. 8. Blood gas and oxygen content and saturation analyzer. 1. Heart valve problems. - AnswerPatients who report a history of Rheumatic Fever often have _____________ later in life. 1. Heart valve problems. 2. Hypotension. 3. Hypervolemia. 4. Hypovolemia. 2. Membranous VSD. 3. Conoventricular (Outlet) type VSD. 5. Atrioventricular canal (inlet) type VSD. 6. Muscular VSD. - AnswerWhich of the following are types of VSD's? 1. PFO. 2. Membranous VSD. 3. Conoventricular (Outlete) type VSD. 4. Ostium Primum. 5. Atrioventricular canal (inlet) type VSD. 6. Muscular VSD. Type A: involves the Ascending Aorta. Type B: does NOT involve the Ascending Aorta. - Type A dissections may require surgery (DeBakey types I and II). - Type B dissections may require medically management (DeBakey type III). - AnswerThe STANFORD classification divides Aortic Dissections into 2 types: Type A and Type B. Match with correct definitions: 1. Does NOT involve the Ascending Aorta. 2. Involves the Ascending Aorta. 1) Type I: involves the ASCENDING AORTA + AORTIC ARCH + DESCENDING AORTA. 2) Type II: is confined to the ASCENDING AORTA only. 3) Type III: is confined to the DESCENDING AORTA only, distal to the Left Subclavian Artery. - Type IIIa: refers to dissections that originate Distal to the Left Subclavian Artery and extend Proximally + Distally, mostly ABOVE the Diaphragm. - Type IIIb refers to dissections that originate Distal to the Left Subclavian Artery and extend only Distally, and may extend BELOW the Diaphragm. - AnswerThe DEBAKEY classification divides dissections into 3 types. Define each type: 1. PERIPHERAL Mechanical Thrombectomy devices. - AnswerCleaner XT, AngioJet AVX Thrombectomy Catheter, Penumbra Indigo System are examples of: 1. Peripheral Mechanical Thrombectomy devices. 2. Coronary Mechanical Thrombectomy devices. 3. SVG Only Mechanical Thrombectomy devices. False - AnswerIf an IABP patient goes into SVT, you can change settings to 2:1 and trigger from arterial pressure. T/F 1. Non-surgical procedure. 2. It is used to treat cardiomyopathies. 3. The toxicity of the alcohol causes myocardial cells to die. 4. Improves blood flow. - AnswerSelect the correct statements about ALCOHOL SEPTAL ABLATION: 1. Non-surgical procedure. 2. It is used to treat cardiomyopathies. 3. The toxicity of the alcohol causes myocardial cells to die. 4. Improves blood flow. 5. It is only needed pre-pregnancy. 1. Post-procedure CEREBRAL EDEMA. 2. Post-procedure INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRAGE. 3. Vessel REOCCLUSION Post procedure. - AnswerCOMPLICATIONS of MECHALICAL THROMBECTOMY in Acute Ischemic Stroke include: (Choose 3) 1. Post-procedure Cerebral Edema. 2. Post-procedure Intracerebral Hemorrhage. 3. Vessel Reocclusion Post procedure. 4. Post-procedure pericardial effusion. 1. Diabetes. 2. Cannulation above the inguinal fold. 3. PVD. - AnswerWhat are the contraindications for closure devices? (Select all that apply) 1. Diabetes. 2. Cannulation above the inguinal fold. 3. PVD. 4. None of the above. - PercuSurge: Medtronic. - FilterWire EX: Boston Scientific. - Proxis: St. Jude's/Abbott. - AnswerMatch the following Distal Occlusion/Filter Devices with their manufacturer. 1. PercuSurge. 2. Medtronic. 3. FilterWire EX. 4. Boston Scientific. 5. Proxis. 6. St. Jude's/Abbott. 1. Mural thrombus in the left ventricle. 2. Presence of a mechanical aortic valve or heart constrictive device. 3. Aortic valve stenosis/calcification. - AnswerWhich of the following are contraindications for Impella? (Select 3) 1. Mural thrombus in the left ventricle. 2. Presence of a mechanical aortic valve or heart constrictive device. 3. Aortic valve stenosis/calcification. 4. Mild Aortic Regurgitation. 2. Preventing intima cell reproduction. - AnswerGamma brachytherapy is known to reduce in-stent restenosis by which mean? 1. Converting the stent radioactive. 2. Preventing intima cell reproduction. 3. Burning cell proliferation. 4. Activating the eluting properties of the stent. Boston Scientific: Mechanical. Volcano: Phased Array. - AnswerMatch the type of IVUS transducers with its brand name: 1. Mechanical. 2. Boston Scientific. 3. Phased array. 4. Volcano. 2. Fenestration. - AnswerWhat is the name of the opening for the surgical site in a sterile drape? 1. Square. 2. Fenestration. 3. Orifice. 4. Aperture. Infection (The normal White Blood Cell count: 4,5-11 x10⁹L) - AnswerWhat a reading of WBC equal to 20 would suggest? 2. The portion of the femoral artery below the lowest margin of the inferior epigastric artery and above the bifurcation of the superficial and profunda branches of the femoral artery. (AA →CI → EI → CF) - AnswerThe Common Femoral Artery (CFA) is defined as: 1. The portion of the femoral artery below the lowest margin of the inferior circumflex artery and above the bifurcation of the posterior and profunda branches of the femoral artery. 2. The portion of the femoral artery below the lowest margin of the inferior epigastric artery and above the bifurcation of the superficial and profunda branches of the femoral artery. 3. The portion of the femoral artery below the lowest margin of the anterior circumflex artery and above the bifurcation of the superficial and profunda branches of the femoral artery. 4. The portion of the femoral artery below the lowest margin of the anterior circumflex artery and above the bifurcation of the posterior and profunda branches of the femoral artery. d) Amiodarone 300 mg. - AnswerA patient is in pulseless V-tach. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be given next? a) Adenosine 6 mg. b) Lidocaine .5 mg/kg. c) Epinephrine 3 mg. d) Amiodarone 300 mg. - Able to breathe deeply and cough: Score of 2/2 - Limited respiratory effort (dyspnea): 1/2 - No spontaneous respiratory effort: 0/2 - AnswerMatch Aldrete's scoring system to its effects of sedation on the patient's respiratory system: 1. Limited respiratory effort (dyspnea). 2. Able to breathe deeply and cough. 3. No spontaneous respiratory effort. b) 1,000 units/mL (10,000 USP units/10mL vial) - AnswerYour nurse circulator needs to prepare 1000 ml of heparinized saline for the next case. She draws 1cc of heparin from this vial. What is the amount of heparin in 1000 mL of saline after is mixed? a) 1 unit. b) 1,000 units. c) 100 units. d) 10,000 units. - Functional Capacity Class IV. - Objective Assessment Class A. Class IV: "Unable to carry on any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of heart failure at rest. If any physical activity is undertaken, discomfort increases." Class A: "No objective evidence of cardiovascular disease. No symptoms and no limitation in ordinary physical activity." - AnswerAccording to the NYHA, a patient with "severe anginal syndrome" but "angiographically normal coronary arteries" is classified as: