Test Bank For Work in the 21st Century An Introduction to Industrial and Organizational Psychology 4th Edition by Frank J. Landy

Chapter 03: Individual Differences and Assessment Multiple Choice 1. Early individual differences tests focused on measuring a. interests. b. opinions. c. beliefs. d. intelligence. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.1 2. “g” is an abbreviation for a. goal setting. b. general mental ability. c. growth capacity. d. giftedness. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.1 3. Dr. Hendry was asked to develop a selection system for hiring firefighters. She will most likely use a cognitive ability test to assess a. to what extent each applicant can learn new procedures. b. to what extent each applicant possesses any given personality trait. c. applicants’ ability to maintain a particular level of physical activity. d. the overall character of the applicant. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.1 4. For selection purposes, I-O psychologists assume that a person’s intelligence and personality a. can increase given the proper training. b. remain relatively stable over time. c. will decrease without proper training. d. remain stable in work settings but decrease in settings outside of the work environment. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.1 5. Mental ability refers to a person’s a. ability to control one’s emotions. b. capacity to reason, plan, and solve problems. c. ability to notice changes in his/her body position. d. ability to be motivated by a supervisor. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.1 6. Understanding and predicting worker behavior by simply measuring “g” describes the a. g-ocentric model. b. intelligence quotient. c. triarchic approach to intelligence. d. general mechanical ability. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.1 7. According to the text, the ___________ is person-centered and looks for qualities or characteristics within a person that will help us understand that persons’ behavior. The __________ sets about measuring such characteristics. a. psychometrician; human factors b. psychometrician; differential psychologist c. differential psychologist; psychometrician d. differential psychologist; human factors Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.1 8. Perceptual-motor abilities are a. mental abilities that combine memory and recall. b. physical abilities that combine strength and stamina. c. physical attributes that combine the senses and motion. d. mental abilities that combine a persons IQ and “g.” Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 9. _______________ often refers to specific abilities such as memory and reasoning, whereas _______________refers to a more general ability to adapt to an environment. a. Cognitive ability; intelligence b. Intelligence; cognitive ability c. Cognitive ability; determination d. Intelligence; personality Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 10. I-O psychologists have recently defined intelligence as a. the ability to recall important dates and events. b. the ability to learn and adapt to an environment. c. the speed and accuracy of memory. d. the ability to store large amounts of information in working memory. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 11. Defining intelligence can be problematic because a. personality characteristics account for more variance in job outcomes. b. intelligence is very unstable over time. c. different cultures have different views about who an “intelligent person” is. d. the formula for calculating intelligence is complex. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 12. Measures of general mental ability do not always guarantee success on the job because a. some jobs also require physical strength and interpersonal skills. b. many general mental ability tests are not reliable. c. some general mental ability tests are biased against certain protected groups. d. some jobs may ask people to take on too much work, resulting in burnout. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 13. The phenomenon in which new generations seem to be smarter than their parents is referred to as: a. the Intelligence Quotient. b. the Flynn effect. c. “g.” d. the taxonomic approach. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 14. An I-O psychologist is screening firefighter recruits to examine strength, flexibility, and stamina. These traits would best be tested by a. physical ability tests. b. IQ tests. c. differential psychology. d. general mental ability tests. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 15. Another term that describes aerobic endurance is a. strength. b. flexibility. c. stamina. d. agility. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 16. Vision, hearing, touch, and smell are types of a. sensory abilities. b. sensorimotor abilities. c. motor abilities. d. psychomotor abilities. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 17. A test is designed to measure coordination, dexterity, and reaction time. These are classified as a. psychosocial abilities. b. perceptual-motor abilities. c. sensory abilities. d. psychomotor abilities. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.2 18. Psychomotor abilities include all of the following except a. reaction time. b. kinesthetic feedback. c. dexterity. d. coordination. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 19. To qualify for a job, an applicant is asked to lift a 100-pound sack over his head once. This requirement is most likely used to assess the applicant’s a. psychomotor abilities. b. stamina. c. muscular power. d. reaction time. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 20. The physical functions of movement, associated with coordination, dexterity, and reaction time, are referred to as a. psychomotor abilities. b. cognitive abilities. c. mental abilities. d. muscular endurance. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 21. The Five Factor Model of personality includes the following personality dimensions: a. conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, openness to experience. b. conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, introversion. c. conscientiousness, integrity, emotional stability, extraversion, openness to experience. d. conscientiousness, agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, intelligence. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 22. Which one of the following statements is true? a. The Five Factor Model is a taxonomy for work-related physical attributes. b. Personality tests can predict behavior with 100% accuracy. c. Personality is often defined as the typical way that an individual has of responding. d. Agreeableness is positively related to success in all aspects of work for all occupations. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 23. Joe has recently taken a personality test. The test reveals that Joe is high in conscientiousness, agreeableness, and emotional stability. Based on the notion of a functional personality at work, Joe is also likely to have high a. integrity. b. extraversion. c. introversion. d. intelligence. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 24. Achievement and dependability are facets of which Big Five personality dimension? a. conscientiousness b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. extraversion Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 25. Personality factors are most predictive when the employee has a. a great amount of control on the job. b. a moderate amount of control on the job. c. a little amount of control on the job. d. no control on the job. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.2 26. The Big 5 personality dimension that best predicts the success of expatriates is a. conscientiousness. b. extraversion. c. openness. d. agreeableness. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 27. Tacit knowledge is formally called a. academic knowledge. b. procedural knowledge. c. declarative knowledge. d. material knowledge. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 28. John has read several books about how to repair a car engine, even though he has never seen one up close. Joy, on the other hand, grew up in her parents’ auto shop and repairs car engines on a daily basis. When it comes to car repair, it is appropriate to say that John has _____________ knowledge, whereas Joy has _____________ knowledge. a. procedural; tacit b. tacit; procedural c. declarative; procedural d. procedural; declarative Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.2 29. Melanie takes a test in his Industrial-Organizational Psychology class. Her score will most reflect her: a. emotional knowledge. b. declarative knowledge. c. procedural knowledge. d. life knowledge. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 30. “Street smarts” is a non-scientific term for a. academic knowledge. b. procedural knowledge. c. declarative knowledge. d. material knowledge. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 31. A concern with the construct of emotional intelligence (EI) is a. a person’s emotional intelligence is often a reflection of his/her socio-economic status. b. few studies have failed to show that EI predicts job performance above and beyond “g” and the Big 5 personality dimensions. c. just as a person’s intelligence changes over time, so does a person’s emotional intelligence. d. emotional intelligence has high construct validity but low face validity. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.2 32. The term ___________ was given to psychological tests by Cattell in 1890. a. general test b. mental test c. quotient test d. intelligence test Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.3 33. The use of personality tests in organizations decreased in the late 1960’s and early 1970’s because a. there was no need for selection because there were more jobs than people. b. personality tests were used only for training purposes. c. of questions about invasion of privacy and the possible discriminatory effects of tests. d. employers were skeptical of the value of testing their potential employees. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.3 34. The term used to describe an objective and standardized procedure for measuring a psychological construct using a sample of behavior is a. task. b. criterion. c. norm. d. test. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.3 35. Jill received a 77% on a test, and her professor decides to curve the test. The professor compares Jill’s score to other students’ scores in her class. The professor decides to assign Jill a B+ because her score was high relative to everyone else’s. When assigning the B+, the professor used a process called a. storming. b. grouping. c. norming. d. performing. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.3 36. The acronym “KSAO” stands for a. knowledge, skills, agreeableness, and organization. b. knowledge, skills, abilities, and organization. c. knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics. d. knowledge, skills, agreeableness, and openness. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.3 37. Jack received a 75% on his statistics quiz. Jack’s score reflects that a. he is an average test taker. b. he is a C student in statistics. c. he is intelligent but lacks motivation to work hard in this class. d. without reference to a norm group, little is known about what the score means. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.3 38. Norming refers to the practice of a. comparing given scores to other relevant scores. b. transforming scores from many different tests into standard scores. c. selecting people who fall within a normal range. d. collecting data in a valid and reliable manner. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.3 39. Pauline is in the process of completing a management training program for her job. During her training program, she completed intelligence tests, personality tests, and a physical abilities test. Which term best describes these assessments? a. mental tests b. test battery c. speed tests d. group tests Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.3 40. When many ability and personality attributes are assessed with a collection of tests, this is known as a a. test battery. b. speed test. c. group test. d. performance test. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.3 41. A notable difference between speed tests and power tests is that a. speed tests measure reaction time, whereas power tests measure muscular strength. b. speed tests are quantifiable, whereas power tests are not quantifiable. c. speed tests often provide greater variability between candidates than do power tests. d. speed tests require logical thinking, whereas power tests rely upon instinct. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.3 42. Tests that have no rigid time limit are a. speed tests. b. power tests. c. group tests. d. individual tests. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.3 43. Which of the following tests would most likely be of concern to advocates of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? a. speed test b. power test c. group test d. performance test Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.3 44. A timed (15 minutes) intelligence test is created. There are 50 questions, and most test takers do not finish answering all of the questions. The test score is calculated by how many items each test taker is able to complete correctly in the time allowed. This test is an example of a a. speed test. b. power test. c. test battery. d. performance test. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.3 45. An intelligence test consisting of 20 difficult questions is created. There is enough time given so that most of test takers have enough time to finish answering all of the questions. This test is an example of a a. speed test. b. power test. c. test battery. d. performance test. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.3 46. The well-known Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a(n) a. speed test. b. power test. c. group test. d. individual test. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.3 47. A veterinary technician is taking a test in which she must conduct x-rays and vaccination administrations. This test would be an example of a(n) a. speed test. b. power test. c. individual test. d. performance test. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.3 48. Tests that have the advantage of saving time and money are called a. speed tests. b. power tests. c. group tests. d. performance tests. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.3 49. If a test underpredicts criterion scores for one group as compared to another, then the test is likely a. biased. b. unbiased. c. incorrectly developed. d. fair. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.3 50. ____________ is a value judgment about actions or decisions based on test scores. a. Graphology b. Bias c. Culture d. Fairness Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.3 51. A cognitive ability test that uses 50 items to assess verbal, numerical, and spatial abilities is known as the a. Wonderlic Personnel Test. b. Bennett Test of Mechanical Comprehension. c. Primary Mental Abilities Test. d. Differential Aptitude Test. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 52. Tests that are tailored to course or training material are a. knowledge tests. b. cognitive ability tests. c. agility tests. d. personality tests. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 53. The exams in this course are examples of a. individual tests. b. knowledge tests. c. cognitive ability tests. d. psychomotor tests. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 54. In a police hiring test, candidates must fire a weapon at a target. This is a test of a. psychomotor ability. b. knowledge. c. personality. d. mental ability. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 55. As part of their military training, soldiers are required to practice until they can hit a target 75% of the time using an AK47 attack rifle. In this example, the test would be best characterized as a(n) a. cognitive test battery. b. knowledge test. c. psychomotor abilities test. d. temporal-spatial test. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.4 56. Which of the following tests cannot be administered until after an offer of employment has been made? a. psychomotor test b. general mental ability test c. screen in personality test d. screen out personality test Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.4 57. Tests used to eliminate candidates who are clearly unsuitable for employment are referred to as a. screen out tests. b. screen in tests. c. differential diagnosis tests. d. conventional practice tests. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 58. Tests that can predict outstanding performance by discovering positive attributes a candidate may possess are referred to as: a. screen out tests. b. screen in tests. c. differential diagnosis tests. d. conventional practice tests. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 59. The textbook offers all the of following criticisms of individual assessments except a. they are often unreliable across assessors. b. they often invade the privacy of the candidate by asking information that is unrelated to the work associated with the job. c. individual assessment is not validated as rigorously as other forms of assessment. d. individual assessment consistently leads to discrimination against protected groups. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.4 60. Cameron is asked during an interview to explain how she would handle a particular situation while on the job. Cameron is most likely taking part in a(n) a. unstructured interview. b. situational interview. c. categorical interview. d. situational judgment test. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 61. During an interview, an applicant for a customer service representative position is asked how she would deal with an upset customer over the phone. This is called a(n) _____ interview question. a. cognitive b. situational c. structured d. independent Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 62. In seeking to hire several new employees, an interviewer asks the same questions to each applicant, and each applicant is assigned a score based on his or her answers. This is an example of a(n) __________ interview. a. group b. unstructured c. situational d. structured Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.4 63. When interviewees are asked specific questions about how they would respond to hypothetical scenarios, a(n) __________ interview is being conducted. a. group b. unstructured c. situational d. structured Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.4 64. In a job interview, the interviewer asks different questions of each candidate and there is no formal scoring method. This is an example of a(n) ____________. a. group interview b. unstructured interview c. situational interview d. structural interview Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 65. An interview consisting of specific questions and detailed outlines is called a(n) _____ interview. a. structured b. unstructured c. situational d. cognitive Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 66. Which of the following best describes the existing data on interviews? a. Structured interviews and unstructured interviews are equally reliable. b. Structured interviews are less reliable than unstructured. c. Structured and unstructured interviews are both less valid than personality tests. d. Structured interviews are more reliable and valid than unstructured interviews. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.4 67. A collection of procedures that is used for evaluation and that is administered to groups of individuals is called a(n) a. group test. b. assessment center. c. cluster test. d. en masse center. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 68. The “in-basket” technique is a type of a. assessment center method. b. intelligence assessment. c. group test. d. projective test. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 69. Caroline is applying for a job as an airline pilot. As one of her requirements, she is asked to complete several maneuvers in a flight simulator. This type of test can be best characterized as a(n) a. work sample test. b. achievement test. c. cluster test. d. situational judgment test. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 70. The ___________ model proposes that the events that make up a person’s history are not accidental or random but instead represent choices made by the individual. a. Predisposition b. History c. Life choices d. Ecology Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.4 71. A paper and pencil test that presents the candidate with a written scenario and then asks the candidate to choose a response from a series of alternatives is a(n) a. work sample test. b. situational judgment test. c. situational interview. d. contingencies test. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 72. Biodata refers to a selection technique that collects information a. about applicants’ previous jobs, education, training, and personal history. b. obtained by measuring the applicant’s physiological responses to particular questions. c. about applicants’ medical ailments. d. about a candidate’s emotional intelligence. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 73. When Dr. Duran uses information about an applicant’s background and experiences to make inferences about their abilities, interests, and personality characteristics, she is using a. a test battery. b. a work sample test. c. the ecology model. d. the developmental model. Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.4 74. Personality-based integrity tests a. ask direct questions about a person’s past honesty behavior. b. infer integrity from broad constructs. c. examine a person’s actual behavior in situations in which they are tempted to be dishonest. d. contact references that a candidate provides on the job application, specifically looking for discrepancies. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 75. Tests that ask questions directly about the candidate’s past honesty behavior as well as attitudes toward various behaviors, such as employee theft, can be best described as a. personality-based integrity tests. b. overt integrity tests. c. polygraph tests. d. situational judgment tests. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 76. When a test asks direct questions about past honesty behavior, such as stealing, it is called a(n) __________ test. a. overt integrity b. personality-based integrity c. biodata d. graphology Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.4 77. When a test asks indirect questions about honesty and social responsibility, it is called a(n) __________ test. a. overt integrity b. personality-based integrity c. biodata d. graphology Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.4 78. When two methods of assessment show little relationship to each other, but when taken together increase a test’s relationship with job performance, it can be said that together they have a. incremental validity. b. content validity. c. construct validity. d. face validity. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.5 79. Handwriting analysis is also called a. polygraph. b. graphology. c. lithograph. d. lie detection. Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.5 80. Which of the following industries/organizations cannot use a “lie detector” test as part of the employment screening process? a. nuclear weapons labs b. FBI c. CIA d. computer assembly plants Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.5 81. Assessment practices that are poor predictors of future job performance are a. biodata and personality. b. graphology and polygraph c. assessment centers and performance appraisals d. cognitive ability and situational judgment tests Ans: b Section Ref: Module 3.5 82. Routing tests are used at the _____ of computer adaptive tests (CATs). a. beginning b. middle c. end d. beginning and end Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.5 83. A major benefit of computer adaptive testing (CAT) is a. the ability to identify a test taker’s level of ability and refine the test taker’s position within that ability level. b. the test offers a comprehensive assessment of the test takers ability to use complicated technology. c. the test provides candidates with immediate results. d. the ability for the test to adapt to different people to limit any biased results. Ans: a Section Ref: Module 3.5 84. Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT) presents the candidate with _____ questions than a paper-pencil test, so the test takes _____ time to complete. a. more; less b. more; more c. fewer; less d. fewer; more Ans: c Section Ref: Module 3.5 85. All of the following are advantages of Computer Adaptive Testing except a. every candidate doesn’t need to answer every item. b. it provides for finer discrimination at the extreme ends of the ability scale. c. testing can be completed more quickly since fewer items are used. d. it is an affordable assessment tool for any organization. Ans: d Section Ref: Module 3.5