Essentials of Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Scanlon Sanders -Test Bank

Chapter 3 (MC): Cells MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of these is NOT true of the cell membrane? a. It selectively allows materials to enter the cell. b. It forms the outer boundary of the cell. c. It enables cells to respond to hormones. d. It is made of protein, glucose, and cholesterol. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 2. The organic molecule in cell membranes that forms channels is: a. protein c. phospholipids b. cholesterol d. oligosaccharides ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 3. The organic molecule in cell membranes that provides stability is: a. protein c. phospholipids b. cholesterol d. oligosaccharides ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 4. The organic molecule in cell membranes that permits the diffusion of lipid-soluble materials is: a. protein c. phospholipids b. cholesterol d. oligosaccharides ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 5. The organic molecule in cell membranes that forms self antigens attached to proteins is: a. glucose c. phospholipids b. cholesterol d. oligosaccharides ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 6. The organic molecule in cell membranes that forms receptor sites for hormones is: a. pentose sugar c. phospholipids b. protein d. cholesterol ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 7. The function of proteins in cell membranes is to: a. form channels for transport b. form receptor sites for hormones c. both A and B d. both A and B, and to be carrier enzymes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 8. Which statement is NOT true of the organic molecules of cell membranes? a. Cholesterol forms carrier molecules. b. Proteins form receptors. c. Phospholipids make up the bilayer of the membrane. d. Oligosaccharides are self antigens. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 9. The cell organelles that are the site of protein synthesis are the: a. ribosomes c. lysosomes b. mitochondria d. Golgi apparatus ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 10. The cell organelle that synthesizes carbohydrates and secretes cell products is the: a. mitochondria c. ribosomes b. Golgi apparatus d. endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 11. The cell organelles that are the site of ATP production are the: a. ribosomes c. mitochondria b. proteasomes d. endoplasmic reticulum ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 12. The cell organelles that sweep materials across a surface are the: a. flagella c. microvilli b. lysosomes d. cilia ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 13. The cell organelles that permit sperm cells to move are the: a. flagella c. cilia b. lysosomes d. microvilli ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 14. The cell organelle that transports materials within a cell is the: a. Golgi apparatus c. mitochondrion b. endoplasmic reticulum d. ribosome ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 15. The cell organelles that contain enzymes to digest ingested pathogens are the: a. ribosomes c. lysosomes b. mitochondria d. endoplasmic reticulum ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 16. The cell organelles that break down damaged or misfolded proteins are the: a. lysosomes c. ribosomes b. proteasomes d. mitochondria ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 17. The ribosomes are cell organelles that: a. are the site of cell respiration c. transport materials within the cell b. are the site of protein synthesis d. are the site of lipid synthesis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 18. The proteasomes are cell organelles that: a. synthesize cellular proteins c. contain enzymes to destroy pathogens b. destroy damaged proteins d. secrete cell products ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 19. The mitochondria are cell organelles that: a. are the site of protein synthesis b. are the site of cell respiration c. synthesize carbohydrates for energy storage d. have enzymes to destroy pathogens ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 20. Some human cells have cilia, which: a. sweep materials across the cell surface b. produce lipids for the cell membrane c. increase the surface area of the membrane d. produce proteins for the cell membrane ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 21. The endoplasmic reticulum is a cell organelle that: a. is a series of membrane tunnels b. transports material within a cell c. both A and B d. both A and B, and may have ribosomes on its surface ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 22. The lysosomes are cell organelles that contain enzymes for: a. protein synthesis b. cell respiration c. synthesis of lipids for the cell membrane d. digesting pathogens that enter the cell ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 23. Which statement is NOT true of the cell organelles? a. Intracellular transport channels are formed by the endoplasmic reticulum. b. Lysosomes secrete cellular products. c. Ribosomes are found on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum. d. Cilia sweep materials over the surface of a cell. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 24. Which statement is NOT true of the cell organelles? a. The Golgi apparatus synthesizes carbohydrates. b. The endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids. c. The mitochondria synthesize ATP. d. The proteasomes synthesize new ribosomes. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 25. The nucleus is the control center of the cell because it contains: a. all of the enzymes of the cell b. DNA in the chromosomes c. RNA to synthesize the DNA of the cell d. RNA in the chromosomes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 26. Chromosomes are made of ___ and are found in the ___ of cells. a. DNA/nucleus c. proteins/cytoplasm b. RNA/nucleus d. DNA/cytoplasm ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 27. The genetic instructions for a cell’s functions are contained in the: a. RNA in the chromosomes in the nucleus b. RNA in the enzymes in the cytoplasm c. DNA in the enzymes in the cytoplasm d. DNA in the chromosomes in the nucleus ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 28. The transport of materials through a membrane with the help of carrier enzymes is called: a. facilitated diffusion c. active transport b. diffusion d. osmosis ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 29. Facilitated diffusion depends on: a. the cholesterol in the cell membrane b. transporters that are part of the cell membrane c. the Golgi apparatus within the cell d. the endoplasmic reticulum within the cell ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 30. The process of facilitated diffusion is important to: a. permit exchange of gases in the lungs b. enable cells to take in water c. enable most body cells to take in glucose d. permit cells to secrete their products ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 31. Most cells take in glucose by the process of: a. diffusion c. osmosis b. facilitated diffusion d. pinocytosis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 32. The movement of water and dissolved materials through a membrane from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure is called: a. diffusion c. active transport b. osmosis d. filtration ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 33. The energy for the process of filtration is provided by: a. the ATP within cells b. the free energy of molecules c. blood pressure in capillaries d. a concentration gradient of dissolved materials ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 34. Blood pressure provides the energy for the transport process of: a. osmosis c. active transport b. filtration d. facilitated diffusion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 35. The process of filtration is important to: a. permit exchange of gases in body tissues b. form tissue fluid and bring nutrients to tissues c. enable cells to excrete water d. none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 36. The process of filtration is important to: a. form urine in the kidneys c. enable cells to take in small proteins b. enable cells to take in glucose d. none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 37. Tissue fluid is formed by the process of: a. diffusion c. osmosis b. facilitated diffusion d. filtration ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 38. The first step in the formation of urine by the kidneys is the process of: a. filtration c. facilitated diffusion b. osmosis d. diffusion ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 39. The movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration is called: a. active transport c. pinocytosis b. diffusion d. filtration ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 40. The energy for diffusion is provided by: a. blood pressure in capillaries b. ATP within cells c. the free energy, or natural movement of molecules d. carrier enzymes in cell membranes ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 41. The process of diffusion is important to: a. form tissue fluid b. enable WBCs to ingest pathogens c. permit cells to take in glucose and amino acids d. permit gas exchange in the lungs ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 42. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in tissues by the process of: a. diffusion c. osmosis b. facilitated diffusion d. filtration ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 43. The movement of molecules from an area of lesser concentration to an area of greater concentration is called: a. diffusion c. active transport b. filtration d. facilitated diffusion ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 44. The energy for active transport is provided by: a. blood pressure in capillaries b. the natural movement of molecules, or free energy c. carrier enzymes in cell membranes d. ATP produced in the cell ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 45. ATP provides the energy for the cellular transport process of: a. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion b. filtration d. active transport ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 46. The process of active transport is important to: a. enable cells of the small intestine to absorb glucose and amino acids b. permit exchange of gases in body tissues c. enable cells of the kidneys to reabsorb small proteins d. enable WBCs to ingest pathogens ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 47. The cells of the small intestine absorb glucose and amino acids by the process of: a. active transport c. pinocytosis b. diffusion d. phagocytosis ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 48. The sodium pumps of nerve cells rely on the process of: a. diffusion c. active transport b. facilitated diffusion d. filtration ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 49. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called: a. filtration c. pinocytosis b. osmosis d. active transport ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 50. The process of osmosis involves: a. the movement of glucose through a membrane b. the movement of water to an area of lower salt concentration c. the diffusion of water through a membrane d. the movement of salts to an area of more water ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 51. The process of osmosis is important to: a. bring oxygen to cells c. form tissue fluid b. permit the lungs to excrete water d. permit the kidneys to reabsorb water ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 52. The small intestine absorbs water by the process of: a. facilitated diffusion c. osmosis b. active transport d. filtration ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 53. Which statement is NOT true of cellular transport processes? a. Active transport requires ATP. b. Diffusion depends upon the natural movement of molecules. c. Osmosis is the diffusion of water. d. Pinocytosis depends upon carrier enzymes. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 54. Which statement is NOT true of cellular transport processes? a. Tissue fluid is formed by osmosis. b. The kidneys reabsorb water by osmosis. c. Phagocytosis is a process used by WBCs. d. The small intestine absorbs amino acids by active transport. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 55. The cells of the small intestine receive oxygen by ___, absorb glucose by ___, and absorb water by ___. a. osmosis/active transport/filtration c. diffusion/pinocytosis/filtration b. diffusion/active transport/osmosis d. osmosis/facilitated diffusion/diffusion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 56. The cells of the kidney release carbon dioxide by the process of ___, reabsorb water by ___, and reabsorb small proteins by ___. a. osmosis/filtration/pinocytosis c. diffusion/osmosis/pinocytosis b. osmosis/diffusion/active transport d. diffusion/filtration/active transport ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 57. If human cells are placed in a hypertonic solution, they will: a. shrivel c. remain the same b. swell and burst d. none of these ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 58. If human cells are placed in a hypotonic solution, they will: a. shrivel c. remain the same b. swell and burst d. none of these ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 59. If human cells are placed in an isotonic solution, they will: a. shrivel c. remain the same b. swell and burst d. none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 60. Human cells will lose water and shrivel if they are placed in a ___ solution. a. neutral c. hypotonic b. isotonic d. hypertonic ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 61. Human cells will absorb water and swell and burst if they are placed in a ___ solution. a. neutral c. hypotonic b. isotonic d. hypertonic ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 62. The water of blood plasma and the water inside RBCs are solutions that are ___ to each other. a. neutral c. hypotonic b. isotonic d. hypertonic ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 63. A solution with a greater salt concentration than cells is said to be: a. hypertonic c. isotonic b. hypotonic d. ginantonic ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 64. A solution with a lesser salt concentration than cells is said to be: a. hypertonic c. isotonic b. hypotonic d. ginantonic ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 65. A solution with the same salt concentration as cells is said to be: a. hypertonic c. isotonic b. hypotonic d. ginantonic ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 66. Which statement is NOT true of human cells and solutions? a. An isotonic solution has the same salt concentration as cells. b. A hypotonic solution has a lower salt concentration than cells. c. Human cells in a hypertonic solution will shrivel. d. Human cells in a hypotonic solution will lose water. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 67. The absorption of small particles by stationary cells is called: a. phagocytosis c. active transport b. pinocytosis d. filtration ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 68. The process of pinocytosis is important to: a. enable the kidneys to reabsorb small proteins b. permit absorption of glucose by cells c. permit gas exchange in tissues d. bring nutrients to cells in tissue fluid ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 69. Cells of the kidney tubules are able to reabsorb small proteins by the process of: a. facilitated diffusion c. active transport b. phagocytosis d. pinocytosis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 70. The engulfing of something by a moving cell is called: a. pinocytosis c. phagocytosis b. active transport d. facilitated diffusion ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 71. The process of phagocytosis is important to: a. enable the kidneys to reabsorb water b. enable WBCs to ingest pathogens c. enable the kidneys to reabsorb small proteins d. enable cells to take in glucose ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 72. White blood cells are able to ingest or engulf pathogens by the process of: a. phagocytosis c. pinocytosis b. active transport d. diffusion ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 73. White blood cells digest pathogens by the process of ___, and the pathogens are digested by the ___ in the cell. a. pinocytosis/mitochondria c. pinocytosis/Golgi apparatus b. phagocytosis/ribosomes d. phagocytosis/lysosomes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 74. Most human cells have ___ chromosomes, which contain ___, the hereditary material. a. 23/DNA c. 23/protein b. 46/RNA d. 46/DNA ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 75. The human diploid number of chromosomes is: a. 50 c. 23 b. 46 d. 25 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 76. Most human cells have ___ chromosomes, which is the ___ number. a. 46/diploid c. 46/haploid b. 23/haploid d. 23/diploid ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 77. The human cells that have no chromosomes are: a. white blood cells c. mature red blood cells b. immature egg and sperm cells d. mature nerve cells ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 78. The human haploid number of chromosomes is: a. 50 c. 23 b. 46 d. 25 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 79. Which statement is NOT true of human chromosomes? a. They are made of DNA and protein. b. The DNA makes up the genes. c. Mature RBCs have no chromosomes. d. The diploid number is 43. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 80. In mitosis, the pairs of chromatids line up on the equator of the cell during: a. prophase c. anaphase b. metaphase d. telophase ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 81. In mitosis, the nuclear membrane re-forms around each new set of chromosomes during: a. prophase c. anaphase b. metaphase d. telophase ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 82. In mitosis, the spindle fibers pull the sets of chromosomes toward the opposite poles of the cell during: a. prophase c. anaphase b. metaphase d. telophase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 83. In mitosis, the chromosomes become visible as short rods during: a. prophase c. anaphase b. metaphase d. telophase ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 84. The time between mitotic divisions, when the chromosomes duplicate themselves, is called: a. cytokinesis c. copyphase b. interphase d. cytogenesis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 85. In mitosis, the division of the cytoplasm follows ___ and is called ___. a. anaphase/lysis c. anaphase/cytokinesis b. telophase/lysis d. telophase/cytokinesis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 86. Before mitosis can take place, what must happen? a. The cytoplasm must begin to divide. b. RNA must copy DNA to make new chromosomes. c. DNA replication must create two sets of chromosomes. d. Protein synthesis must make another set of chromosomes. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 87. Which statement is NOT true of the stages of mitosis? a. The chromosomes duplicate themselves during prophase. b. During telophase, two nuclei re-form. c. During anaphase, the chromosomes are pulled toward the poles of the cell. d. The chromosomes line up on the cell equator during metaphase. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 88. Frequent mitosis is important to the body for all of these except: a. production of new muscle cells c. replacing the stomach lining b. production of new RBCs d. replacing the outer layer of skin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 89. Human cells that seem to be unable to undergo extensive mitosis are: a. muscle cells c. both of these b. nerve cells d. neither of these ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 90. Cells that have the potential to divide and become any of several kinds of cells are known as: a. uncommitted cells c. plain cells b. stem cells d. branch cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 91. Stem cells have the capability to: a. become any one of several kinds of cells b. produce more ATP than other cells c. synthesize DNA from RNA d. synthesize protein directly from DNA ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 92. Meiosis is important to the body for: a. production of RBCs b. production of egg and sperm cells with the diploid number of chromosomes c. production of new skin cells d. production of egg and sperm cells with the haploid number of chromosomes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 93. Meiosis takes place in the: a. ovaries or testes b. red bone marrow c. outer layer of skin d. throughout the body in all cells capable of dividing ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 94. Spermatogenesis is the name for ___ that takes place in the ___. a. mitosis/testes c. meiosis/testes b. mitosis/ovaries d. meiosis/ovaries ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 95. Oogenesis is the name for ___ that takes place in the ___. a. mitosis/testes c. meiosis/testes b. mitosis/ovaries d. meiosis/ovaries ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 96. Which statement is NOT true of meiosis? a. Egg and sperm cells are produced. b. Spermatogenesis is meiosis in the testes. c. The cells produced are haploid. d. Oogenesis is meiosis in the uterus. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 97. The process of mitosis produces ___ cells, each with the ___ number of chromosomes. a. 2/diploid c. 4/diploid b. 2/haploid d. 4/haploid ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 98. Mitosis involves ___ division(s) to produce ___ cells. a. two/two c. two/four b. one/two d. one/four ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 99. In the cell cycle, a cell may undergo apoptosis, which means: a. the cell will divide very rapidly b. the cell will divide more slowly c. the cell will merge with a neighboring cell d. the cell will destroy itself and die ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 100. The process of meiosis produces ___ cells, each with the ___ number of chromosomes. a. 2/diploid c. 4/diploid b. 2/haploid d. 4/haploid ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 101. Meiosis involves ___ division(s) to produce ___ cells. a. two/two c. two/four b. one/two d. one/four ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 102. Which statement is NOT true of mitosis and meiosis? a. Mitosis involves one division producing two cells. b. Meiosis produces haploid cells. c. Mitosis produces diploid cells. d. Meiosis involves two divisions producing two cells. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 103. Which statement is NOT true of protein synthesis? a. The sites of protein synthesis are the mitochondria of cells. b. Three bases on the DNA are the code for one amino acid. c. The genetic code of DNA is copied by mRNA. d. tRNA molecules carry the amino acids to their proper places on the mRNA. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 104. Which statement is NOT true of protein synthesis? a. Transcription is the copying of DNA by mRNA. b. The sites of protein synthesis are the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. c. A codon is a three-base code for an amino acid. d. Translation is the copying of mRNA by tRNA. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 105. In protein synthesis, the original genetic code is found in the: a. mRNA c. ribosomes b. DNA d. tRNA ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 106. In protein synthesis, the genetic code of DNA is copied by: a. mRNA c. amino acids b. tRNA d. ribosomes ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 107. In protein synthesis, the amino acids are brought to the mRNA by: a. enzymes c. DNA b. ribosomes d. tRNA ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 108. The cell organelles on which protein synthesis takes place are the: a. mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus b. ribosomes d. lysosomes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 109. The genetic code is a triplet code, which means that: a. three bases on the DNA are the code for one amino acid b. three pieces of DNA are the code for one protein c. three bases on the DNA are the code for one protein d. three chromosomes are the code for each protein ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 110. The term codon refers to the: a. three pieces of DNA that are the code for a protein b. three amino acids that make up a protein c. three bases on the DNA that are the code for one amino acid d. three bases on the tRNA that complement those on the mRNA ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 111. The term anticodon refers to the: a. three pieces of DNA that are the code for a protein b. three amino acids that make up a protein c. three bases on the DNA that are the code for one amino acid d. three bases on the tRNA that complement those on the mRNA ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 112. The cell organelles that form peptide bonds between amino acids are the: a. mitochondria c. endoplasmic reticulum b. lysosomes d. ribosomes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 113. In protein synthesis, a function of ribosomes is to: a. copy the gene from DNA b. form peptide bonds between amino acids c. copy the gene from mRNA d. attach amino acids to tRNA ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 114. In protein synthesis, the copying of a DNA gene by mRNA is called: a. transduction c. transfusion b. transcription d. translation ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 115. In protein synthesis, the lining up of amino acids according to the codons on the mRNA is called: a. transduction c. transfusion b. transcription d. translation ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 116. If a DNA triplet is GAC, the corresponding mRNA triplet will be: a. GAC c. GUG b. ATG d. CUG ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 117. If a DNA triplet is TTC, the corresponding mRNA triplet will be: a. UUG c. AAG b. AAC d. UUC ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 118. If a DNA triplet is ATG, the corresponding mRNA triplet will be ___, and the corresponding tRNA triplet will be ___. a. TAC/TAC c. UAG/ATC b. UUC/AAG d. UAC/AUG ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 Chapter 6 (MC): The Skeletal System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement is true of compact bone? a. It is made of osteons (haversian systems) and found within flat and irregular bones. b. It is made of osteons and found in the diaphysis of a long bone. c. It is not made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone. d. It is not made of osteons and is found within flat and irregular bones. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 2. Which statement is true of spongy bone? a. It is made of osteons (haversian systems) and found within flat and irregular bones. b. It is made of osteons and found in the diaphysis of a long bone. c. It is not made of osteons and is found in the diaphysis of a long bone. d. It is not made of osteons and is found within flat and irregular bones. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 3. Which statement is NOT true of long bones? a. The diaphysis is the shaft, made of compact bone. b. An epiphysis is an end, made mostly of spongy bone. c. Blood vessels are found in compact bone. d. The marrow cavity contains yellow bone marrow, and is in the center of each epiphysis. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 4. Which statement is NOT true of osteons (haversian systems)? a. They are found in compact bone. b. They are found in spongy bone. c. They contain osteocytes in rings of bone matrix. d. They have a good blood supply. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 5. The regulation of the calcium content of adult bones is a function of the: a. osteocytes c. osteoclasts b. osteoblasts d. fibroblasts ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 6. The production of new bone matrix for growth or repair is a function of the: a. osteocytes c. osteoclasts b. osteoblasts d. fibroblasts ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 7. The reabsorption of bone matrix is a function of the: a. osteocytes c. osteoclasts b. osteoblasts d. fibroblasts ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 8. Which statement is true of the cells of bone? a. Osteocytes regulate the calcium metabolism of adult bones. b. Osteoblasts blast away old bone when repair is needed. c. Both A and B. d. Both A and B, and osteoclasts produce new bone matrix. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1 9. The type of bone tissue that contains red bone marrow is: a. spongy bone in the diaphysis of a long bone b. compact bone in the diaphysis of a long bone c. compact bone in flat and irregular bones d. spongy bone in flat and irregular bones ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 10. The spongy bone of flat and irregular bones contains: a. osteons to produce new bone b. adipose tissue to store energy c. fibrous connective tissue for added strength d. red bone marrow to produce blood cells ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 11. Red bone marrow produces these cells: a. WBCs, RBCs, and osteocytes c. RBCs, osteocytes, and platelets b. platelets, RBCs, and WBCs d. platelets, osteocytes, and WBCs ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 12. All of the types of blood cells are produced by: a. red bone marrow c. yellow bone marrow b. bone tissue d. all of these ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 13. Which statement is NOT true of adult bone marrow? a. Red bone marrow is found in flat bones. b. A long bone has red bone marrow in the diaphysis. c. Yellow bone marrow is mostly adipose tissue. d. All RBCs are produced by red bone marrow. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2 14. In the embryo, the bones of the skull are first made of: a. bone c. fibrous connective tissue b. cartilage d. elastic connective tissue ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 15. In the embryo, the bones that are first made of fibrous connective tissue are the bones of the: a. rib cage c. backbone b. arms and legs d. skull ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 16. In the embryo, bone matrix is produced by cells called: a. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts b. osteocytes d. fibroblasts ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 17. In the embryo frontal bone: a. the first osteoblasts come from fibroblasts b. the first osteoblasts begin a center of ossification c. both A and B d. both A and B, and the osteoblasts secrete calcium salts ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 18. Which statement is NOT true of the development of the skull before birth? a. The cranial bones are first formed as cartilage. b. Calcification begins in the third month of gestation. c. Osteoblasts differentiate from fibroblasts. d. Ossification is not complete at birth. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 3 19. An infant’s skull may be compressed slightly during birth without harming the brain because of the presence of: a. thin cranial bones c. hinge joints b. sutures d. fontanels ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 20. The fontanels in an infant’s skull are made of: a. fibrous connective tissue c. cartilage b. bone d. elastic connective tissue ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 21. The purpose of fontanels in the fetal skull is to: a. permit compression of the skull during birth b. allow for growth of the brain after birth c. both A and B d. both A and B, and to contain red bone marrow ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 4 22. In the embryo, the bones of the arms and legs are first made of: a. cartilage c. fibrous connective tissue b. bone d. elastic connective tissue ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 23. In an embryonic long bone, centers of ossification are found in the: a. diaphysis only b. diaphysis and each epiphysis c. diaphysis and distal epiphysis only d. none of these, because the pattern depends on the particular bone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 24. In the long bones of children, growth occurs at the: a. center of the diaphysis c. ends of the epiphyses b. entire length of the diaphysis d. epiphyseal discs ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 25. Which statement is NOT true of the epiphyseal discs of long bones? a. They are first made of cartilage. b. Growth occurs when cartilage replaces bone on the diaphysis side. c. Cartilage production on the epiphysis side makes the bone grow in length. d. Growth stops when all the cartilage has been replaced by bone. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 26. In an embryonic femur, the marrow cavity is formed by the: a. osteoclasts c. osteocytes b. osteoblasts d. chondrocytes ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 27. In an embryonic femur, the osteoclasts form: a. the primary center of ossification in the diaphysis b. the secondary center of ossification in the distal epiphysis c. the marrow cavity in the diaphysis d. all of the centers of ossification ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 5 28. The term genetic potential for height means: a. how tall a child will be by age 10 c. how tall a person will become b. the minimum height a person will become d. how tall a person may become ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 29. In the phrase “genes for height,” the word genes means: a. proteins that become part of bone b. parts of the RNA needed for the synthesis of calcium ions c. parts of the DNA needed for the synthesis of calcium ions d. parts of the DNA that code for enzymes for bone matrix synthesis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 30. Which nutrient is NOT paired with its correct function with respect to bone growth? a. calcium—becomes part of bone matrix b. phosphorus—becomes part of bone matrix c. vitamin D—becomes part of bone matrix d. vitamin C—needed for the formation of bone matrix ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 31. The nutrient that is needed for the efficient absorption of calcium by the small intestine is: a. vitamin D c. vitamin A b. vitamin C d. vitamin B ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 32. Two nutrients that are needed to become part of bone matrix are: a. calcium and vitamin D c. phosphorus and vitamin C b. calcium and phosphorus d. phosphorus and vitamin D ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 33. Three nutrients that are needed to become part of bone matrix are: a. protein, calcium, and vitamin D c. calcium, phosphorus, and protein b. phosphorus, calcium, and vitamin C d. protein, vitamin C, and calcium ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 34. Two vitamins that are needed for the calcification process to synthesize bone matrix are: a. vitamins A and E c. vitamins B and D b. vitamins E and B d. vitamins C and A ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 35. The nutrient needed for bone growth that can be synthesized by the body is: a. vitamin D c. vitamin A b. vitamin C d. calcium ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 36. The protein that is part of bone matrix is: a. collagen c. keratin b. elastin d. bonetin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 6 37. The hormone that increases the reabsorption of calcium from bones is: a. thyroxine c. parathyroid hormone b. calcitonin d. growth hormone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 38. The hormone that decreases the reabsorption of calcium from bones is: a. thyroxine c. parathyroid hormone b. calcitonin d. growth hormone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 39. The hormones that regulate the amount of calcium in the bones and the blood are: a. PTH and calcitonin c. PTH and GH b. thyroxine and calcitonin d. GH and thyroxine ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 40. The hormone that increases the absorption of calcium from food in the small intestine is: a. PTH c. GH b. calcitonin d. thyroxine ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 41. In the body, the ___ are storage sites for calcium, which is needed in the blood for ___. a. muscles/digestion c. cartilage/clotting b. bones/clotting d. bones/digestion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 42. Which statement is NOT true of PTH and calcitonin? a. Calcitonin contributes to the maintenance of a strong bone matrix. b. PTH increases the reabsorption of calcium from bones. c. PTH increases the absorption of calcium by the small intestine. d. Calcitonin is secreted by the pituitary gland. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 7 43. The hormone in women that promotes closure of the epiphyseal discs is: a. calcitonin c. progesterone b. testosterone d. estrogen ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 44. The hormone in men that promotes closure of the epiphyseal discs is: a. calcitonin c. estrogen b. progesterone d. testosterone ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 45. The hormones that promote closure of the epiphyseal discs are: a. insulin and thyroxine c. GH and insulin b. thyroxine and GH d. estrogen and testosterone ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 46. The phrase “closure of the epiphyseal discs” means that: a. all cartilage is replaced by bone b. cartilage production stops unless there is need for repair c. calcium can no longer be taken in by osteocytes in these areas d. the blood supply to these areas has been closed off ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 8 47. The hormone that increases energy production from glucose only is: a. insulin c. GH b. thyroxine d. PTH ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 48. The hormone that increases energy production from all food types is: a. insulin c. GH b. thyroxine d. PTH ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 49. The hormones that contribute to bone growth by increasing the production of energy are: a. insulin and thyroxine c. calcitonin and GH b. thyroxine and calcitonin d. GH and PTH ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 50. Thyroxine contributes to the growth of bones by: a. increasing energy production b. increasing protein synthesis c. both A and B d. both A and B, and by increasing calcium absorption ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 51. The hormone that increases cell division in growing bones is: a. insulin c. GH b. thyroxine d. PTH ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 52. Growth hormone contributes to the growth of bones by: a. increasing protein synthesis b. increasing the rate of mitosis c. both A and B d. both A and B, and by increasing the use of glucose for energy ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 53. The hormones that contribute to bone growth by increasing the rate of protein synthesis are: a. thyroxine and GH c. PTH and insulin b. GH and PTH d. insulin and calcitonin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 54. Which statement is NOT true of hormones and bone growth? a. Thyroxine increases energy production from all foods. b. Growth hormone increases mitosis. c. Calcitonin helps keep calcium in bones. d. Insulin increases protein synthesis and mitosis. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 9 55. Which pair of bones directly helps to protect the brain? a. maxilla and frontal c. parietal and mandible b. zygomatic and temporal d. sphenoid and occipital ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 56. Which of these bones does NOT directly help protect the brain? a. temporal c. frontal b. zygomatic d. occipital ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 57. The temporal bone helps protect the sense organs for: a. sight c. hearing b. smell d. taste ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 58. Which bone does NOT help form the orbit? a. parietal c. sphenoid b. frontal d. lacrimal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 59. The sphenoid and ethmoid bones are among the bones of the: a. arm c. vertebral column b. leg d. skull ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 60. The ethmoid bone helps protect the sensory receptors and nerves for: a. smell c. taste b. hearing d. touch ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 61. The cranial bone that encloses the pituitary gland is the: a. sphenoid c. ethmoid b. frontal d. temporal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 62. The cranial bone that attaches the anterior meninges and forms part of the nasal septum is the: a. sphenoid c. ethmoid b. frontal d. none of these ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 10 63. Paranasal sinuses are found in all of these bones except the: a. mandible c. sphenoid b. maxillae d. frontal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 64. Paranasal sinuses are found in all of these bones except the: a. ethmoid c. frontal b. zygomatic d. sphenoid ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 65. The paranasal sinuses open into the: a. middle ear c. brain b. nasal cavities d. mouth ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 66. The paranasal sinuses may become “stuffed up” because: a. they are microscopic cavities b. the mucus produced by their epithelium may block their outlets c. their only outlets are to the cranial cavity d. they have no outlets ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 67. Which statement is NOT true of the paranasal sinuses? a. They contain air. c. They provide resonance for the voice. b. They are lined with ciliated epithelium. d. They make the skull heavier in weight. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 11 68. Which of these organs is NOT protected by the rib cage? a. small intestine c. liver b. lungs d. heart ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 69. The rib cage protects the: a. lungs c. both A and B b. heart d. both A and B, and the spleen ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 70. The seven pairs of ribs that articulate directly with the sternum are called: a. true ribs c. floating ribs b. false ribs d. spare ribs ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 71. The three pairs of ribs that articulate indirectly with the sternum are called: a. true ribs c. floating ribs b. false ribs d. spare ribs ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 72. The two pairs of ribs that do not articulate with the sternum are called: a. true ribs c. floating ribs b. false ribs d. spare ribs ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 73. The number of pairs of each type of rib—true, false, and floating—in order, is: a. 5, 3, 2 c. 8, 2, 2 b. 7, 5, 3 d. 7, 3, 2 ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 74. Which of these is NOT a part of the sternum? a. coracoid process c. body b. xiphoid process d. manubrium ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 75. Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles? a. coracoid process c. body b. xiphoid process d. manubrium ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 76. The manubrium of the ___ articulates with the ___. a. sternum/clavicles c. clavicle/ribs b. clavicle/sternum d. ribs/sternum ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 77. The rib cage is directly involved in the functioning of which organ system? a. respiratory c. circulatory b. digestive d. endocrine ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 78. Which statement is NOT true of the rib cage? a. There are two pairs of floating ribs. b. The manubrium of the sternum articulates with the false ribs. c. The rib cage is pulled up and out during inhalation. d. The xiphoid process is the most inferior part of the sternum. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 12 79. The seven vertebrae in the neck are called: a. cervical c. lumbar b. thoracic d. sacral ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 80. The vertebrae in the neck are called ___ and there are ___ of them. a. cervical/seven c. sacral/seven b. lumbar/eight d. cervical/eight ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 81. The 12 vertebrae with which the ribs articulate are called: a. cervical c. lumbar b. thoracic d. sacral ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 82. The thoracic vertebrae articulate with the: a. true ribs only c. all of the ribs except the floating ribs b. true and false ribs only d. all of the ribs ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 83. The five vertebrae in the lower back are called: a. cervical c. lumbar b. thoracic d. sacral ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 84. Between adjacent thoracic vertebrae are ___ joints. a. hinge c. pivot b. symphysis d. gliding ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 85. Between adjacent lumbar vertebrae are ___ joints that are characterized by ___. a. hinge/elastic connective tissue c. hinge/discs of cartilage b. symphysis/discs of cartilage d. symphysis/elastic connective tissue ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 86. The five fused vertebrae with which the hip bones articulate are called: a. cervical c. lumbar b. thoracic d. sacral ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 87. Which of these is NOT a function of the vertebral column? a. It provides direct attachment for the arms. b. It provides direct attachment for the hip bones. c. It supports the trunk and head. d. It protects the spinal cord from mechanical injury. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 88. Which statement is NOT true of the vertebral column? a. The backbone is flexible because many joints are present. b. The ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae. c. Cartilage discs separate adjacent vertebrae. d. The atlas and axis form a hinge joint to permit nodding of the head. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 13 89. Which statement is NOT true of the shoulder and hip joints? a. The scapula has a deeper socket than does the hip bone. b. Both are ball-and-socket joints. c. The hip joint is a weight-bearing joint, but the shoulder is not. d. Both involve a long bone and a flat bone with a depression. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 90. Which statement is NOT true of the shoulder and hip joints? a. Both have a long bone that has a socket for a short bone. b. Both permit movement in all planes. c. The shoulder joint has a shallower socket. d. The hip joint is considered weight bearing. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 14 91. The femur and hip bone form this type of joint: a. symphysis c. hinge b. ball and socket d. gliding ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 92. The frontal and parietal bones form this type of joint: a. symphysis c. suture b. gliding d. pivot ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 93. The two pubic bones form this type of joint: a. gliding c. suture b. pivot d. symphysis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 94. The radius and ulna form this type of joint: a. pivot c. saddle b. ball and socket d. hinge ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 95. The humerus and ulna form this type of joint: a. pivot c. saddle b. hinge d. ball and socket ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 96. The carpal and metacarpal of the thumb form this type of joint: a. hinge c. saddle b. gliding d. ball and socket ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 97. Two adjacent vertebrae form this type of joint: a. suture c. hinge b. pivot d. symphysis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 98. An example of a ball-and-socket joint is the: a. humerus and scapula c. tibia and fibula b. ulna and humerus d. radius and ulna ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 99. An example of a suture joint is the: a. mandible and temporal bone c. clavicle and scapula b. occipital and parietal bones d. two pubic bones ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 100. Which of the following is NOT an example of a suture joint? a. temporal and occipital c. frontal and ethmoid b. temporal and mandible d. zygomatic and temporal ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 101. An example of a symphysis joint is: a. scapula and humerus c. two vertebrae b. frontal and parietal bones d. two carpals ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 102. An example of a hinge joint is the: a. femur and hip bone c. tibia and fibula b. radius and ulna d. femur and tibia ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 103. Which of the following is NOT an example of a hinge joint? a. two phalanges c. tibia and femur b. ulna and humerus d. femur and fibula ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 104. An example of a pivot joint is the: a. atlas and axis c. mandible and temporal bone b. humerus and ulna d. carpal and metacarpal of the thumb ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 105. An example of a pivot joint is the: a. axis and atlas c. both A and B b. ulna and radius d. both A and B, and the tibia and fibula ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 106. An example of a saddle joint is the: a. two phalanges c. tibia and fibula b. carpal and metacarpal of the thumb d. tarsal and metatarsal of the big toe ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 107. An example of a condyloid joint is the: a. mandible and maxilla c. mandible and temporal bone b. atlas and axis d. radius and ulna ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 108. An example of a gliding joint is the joint between two: a. vertebrae c. ribs b. phalanges d. carpals ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 15 109. The part of a synovial joint that lines the joint capsule is the: a. synovial membrane c. serous membrane b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 110. The part of a synovial joint that provides a smooth surface on bones is the: a. synovial membrane c. joint capsule b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 111. The part of a synovial joint that encloses the joint in a strong sheath is the: a. synovial membrane c. joint capsule b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 112. The part of a synovial joint that prevents friction within the joint cavity is the: a. synovial membrane c. joint capsule b. articular cartilage d. synovial fluid ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 113. In a synovial joint, the synovial membrane: a. lines the joint capsule c. both A and B b. covers the articular cartilage d. both A and B, and prevents friction ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 114. In a synovial joint, the articular cartilage: a. covers the joint surfaces of bones c. both A and B b. lines the synovial membrane d. both A and B, and anchors tendons ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 115. In a synovial joint, the joint capsule: a. encloses the entire joint c. both A and B b. covers the articular cartilage d. both A and B, and anchors ligaments ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 116. In a synovial joint, the synovial fluid prevents friction: a. within the joint cavity b. between the articular cartilages c. both A and B d. both A and B, and outside the joint capsule ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 117. All of the following are synovial joints except: a. hinge joints c. saddle joints b. sutures d. ball-and-socket joints ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 118. Which tissue is NOT an important part of synovial joints? a. elastic connective tissue c. fibrous connective tissue b. cartilage d. synovial membrane ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 119. Bones are connected to adjacent bones by: a. tendons, made of fibrous connective tissue b. tendons, made of elastic connective tissue c. ligaments, made of elastic connective tissue d. ligaments, made of fibrous connective tissue ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 120. The structures that connect bone to bone are: a. tendons c. ligaments b. periosteum d. bursae ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 121. The fibers of ligaments merge with the ___ of a bone. a. periosteum c. diaphysis b. epiphysis d. meriosteum ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 122. Which statement is NOT true of the periosteum of a bone? a. It covers a bone. c. It anchors tendons. b. It lines a bone. d. It anchors ligaments. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 123. The structures that permit tendons to slide easily across a moving joint are: a. ligaments c. bursae b. tendons d. the bones themselves ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 124. Which statement is NOT true of synovial joints? a. Synovial fluid prevents friction. b. The joint capsule is made of elastic connective tissue. c. Bursae permit tendons to slide across a joint. d. Hinge joints are synovial joints. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16 125. Which statement is NOT true of synovial joints? a. Articular cartilages provide smooth surfaces. b. The joint capsule is made of fibrous connective tissue. c. The synovial membrane covers the joint capsule. d. Pivot joints are synovial joints. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 16