Test Bank For Core Concepts in Pharmacology 3rd ed By Holland Adams

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Prior to administering a medication to a client the nurse needs to understand which of the 1) following? Select all that apply. A) The manufacturer of the medication B) Name (generic and trade) and drug classification C) What drug is ordered D) Contraindications for this medication 2) After administering a medication, the nurse notes that the client has itching and a runny nose. The 2) nurseʹs next action is to: A) Notify the charge nurse. B) Monitor the client closely. C) Assess vital signs. D) Document the findings. 3) Following administration of a drug to a client the person who is most responsible for monitoring 3) the client for adverse reactions is: A) The family of the client. C) The nurse. B) The physical therapist. D) The nursing assistant. 4) The six rights of drug administration are: A) Right client, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, right time of preparation, and right documentation. B) Right client, right medication, right dose, right type of medication, right time of preparation and right documentation. C) Right client, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, right time of delivery, and right documentation. D) Right client, right dose, right route of administration, right time of delivery and right documentation. 4) 5) Which of the following is not one of the three checks of drug administration? 5) A) Checking the drug with the medication administration record (MAR) or medication information system when removing it from the medication drawer, refrigerator, or controlled substance locker. B) Checking the drug when preparing it, pouring it, taking it out of the unit dose container, or connecting the IV tubing to the bag C) Checking the drug after administering it to the patient D) Checking the drug before administering it to the patient 6) The nurse is speaking with a client regarding current medications. The client states she does not 6) always take the medications as prescribed. Which of the following are potential reasons for noncompliance? Select all that apply. A) Adverse effects such as headache, dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, or impotence often cause noncompliance. B) The client always takes medications as prescribed. C) Patients sometimes forget doses of medications. D) The drug may be too expensive or may not be approved by the patientʹs health insurance plan. 1 7) A medication order that should be given immediately and only once is known as: 7) A) A single order. B) An ASAP order. C) A prn order. D) A STAT order. 8) A medication has been ordered to be given PO. The nurse understands the route of administration 8) to be: A) Intramuscular. B) Vaginal. C) Oral. D) Rectal. 9) The physician ordered amlodipine (Norvasc) 5mg tab PO bid. The nurse understands the 9) amlodipine (Norvasc) should be administered to the client: A) One tablet orally once per day. B) One tablet orally three times per day. C) One tablet orally twice per day. D) One tablet orally four times per day. 10) The physician writes an order for a medication to be given SL tid. The nurse understands this 10) means the medication should be given: A) Subcutaneous four times per day. B) Sublingual four times per day. C) Sublingual three times per day. D) Subcutaneous three times per day. 11) Which of the following drug administration abbreviations are matched correctly with their 11) definition? Select all that apply. A) hs- hour of sleep/bedtime B) qid- three times per day C) prn- when needed/necessary D) ac- after meals; after eating 12) Which of the following drug administration abbreviations are matched correctly with their 12) definition? Select all that apply. A) PO- pills only B) gtt- drop C) no- number D) qh- every hour 13) A standing order is: A) Usually carried out within 2 hours of the time the order is written by the physician, but the exact timing is defined by each facility. B) Is administered as required by the patientʹs condition. C) To be given only once and at a specific time. D) Written in advance of a situation, and should be carried out under specific circumstances. 13) 14) The medication is ordered as follows: Give 5 ml by mouth four times per day. The nurse instructs 14) the client that this dose is equivalent to: A) Three teaspoons. B) One teaspoon. C) One tablespoon. D) Five teaspoons. 15) The nurse is recording intake for a client. The nurse knows that one cup equals: 15) A) 8 fluid drams or 30 ml. C) 500mlor1pint. 16) One kilogram equals: A) 2.2 pounds. B) 4 fluid drams or 15 ml. D) 240mlor8ounces. C) 1.2 pounds. D) 0.45 pounds. 16) B) 3.2 pounds. 2 17) A client has been prescribed a liquid medication to be taken 15 ml tid. The nurse instructs the client 17) to: A) Carefully measure the medication using any teaspoon and take one teaspoon three times per day. B) Carefully measure using a medical dosing device and take 15 ml which equals one tablespoon three times per day. C) Carefully measure using a medical dosing device and take 15 ml which equals one teaspoon three times per day. D) Carefully measure the medication using any tablespoon available and take one tablespoon 3 times per day. 18) A client is being discharged with an order to drink 2400 ml of fluid per day. The client asks the 18) nurse how many cups this equals. The nurse replies: A) You should drink five 8 ounce glasses of fluid per day. B) You should drink 1 pint of fluid per day. C) You should drink ten 8 ounce glasses of fluid per day. D) You should drink 2 pints of fluid per day. 19) Enteral medication administration includes which of the following routes? Select all that apply. 19) A) Medications given orally B) Medications given subcutaneously C) Medications given via nasogastric tube D) Medications given via gastrostomy tubes 20) Which type of medication should not be given via nasogastric (NG) tube? 20) A) Tablets B) Sustained-release medications C) Liquid medications D) All medications can be given via NG tube 21) The physician orders a medication to be given via the buccal route. The nurse gives which of the 21) following instructions to the client prior to taking this medication? A) The tablet is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly. B) This drug should be applied directly to the skin. C) The tablet is placed in the oral cavity between the gum and the cheek. D) The tablet should be crushed and given in either pudding or applesauce. 22) Parenteral medication administration includes which of the following routes? Select all that apply. 22) A) Vaginal C) Intramuscular injection 23) IM injections cannot be administered in which site? A) Vastus lateralis site C) Subscapular areas of the upper back B) Oral D) Intravenous infusion B) Deltoid site D) Ventrogluteal site 23) 24) The nurse is preparing a syringe for an intramuscular injection. The nurse is to administer the 24) injection in the deltoid muscle and knows the maximum amount of medication for this site is: A) 3ml. B)2ml. C) 1ml. D) 4ml. 3 25) Which of the following is a disadvantage of administering medication via the subcutaneous or 25) intramuscular route? A) This route allows medications to avoid digestive enzymes. B) This route allows medications to avoid the first-pass effect in the liver. C) This route allows only small volumes can be administered. D) This route can be used in clients who are unable to take medications orally. 26) Topical drugs given to deliver local effects produce the desired reaction of: 26) A) Absorption of the medication into the circulation. B) Fewer side effects. C) A specified rate of delivery. D) Systemic absorption through the skin. 4 Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED3 1) B,C,D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) A,C,D 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) A, C 12) B, C, D 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A, C, D 20) B 21) C 22) C, D 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) B 5 Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The nurse knows one way to decrease the chance of addiction to a prescription drug is to take the: 1) A) Highest dose possible for the shortest time necessary. B) Highest dose possible for the longest time necessary. C) Lowest effective dose for the longest time necessary. D) Lowest effective dose for the shortest time necessary. 2) Addiction can be caused by: 2) A) Only prescription drugs B) Only illegal drugs. C) Any medication to treat pain. D) A need for prescription pain medications. 3) The progressive and chronic abuse of a substance caused by an overwhelming feeling that drives 3) someone to use a drug repeatedly despite serious consequences is known as: A) Psychological dependence. B) Addiction. C) Withdrawal. D) Physical dependence. 4) ________ dependence causes no apparent signs of physical discomfort after the agent is stopped, 4) whereas ________ dependence causes uncomfortable symptoms when the drug is stopped. A) Psychological; physical B) Substance; physical C) Physical; psychological D) Psychological; substance 5) A client plans to enter a treatment facility for alcohol abuse. The client asks the nurse if there are 5) medications that can decrease the severity of withdrawal symptoms. The nurse knows which of the following drugs is used for this purpose? A) Bupropion (Wellbutrin) B) Methadone (Dolphine) C) Marijuana D) Diazepam (Valium) 6) A client asks the nurse why withdrawal syndrome occurs when some drugs are stopped. The best 6) response by the nurse would be: A) ʺOver time, the bodyʹs cells are tricked into believing it is normal for that substance to always be present, and when it is no longer present, the body experiences withdrawal syndrome.ʺ B) ʺA substance must be abused for at least a year to cause withdrawal syndrome.ʺ C) ʺOnly illegal substances cause withdrawal syndrome.ʺ D) ʺThis is a misconception. All abused substances cause withdrawal syndrome.ʺ 7) ________ is a biological condition that occurs when the body adapts to a substance after it is 7) repeatedly administered, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the initial response. A) Tolerance C) Cross-tolerance B) Addiction D) Dependence 1 8) A designer drug is: 8) A) Made from a naturally occurring substance. B) Alcohol. C) Created in an illegal laboratory solely for illegal drug trafficking. D) Less addictive than prescription medications. 9) A client asks the nurse what the two most commonly abused drugs are. The nurse replies: 9) A) ʺLSD and marijuana.ʺ B) ʺAlcohol and marijuana.ʺ C) ʺMarijuana and nicotine.ʺ D) ʺAlcohol and nicotine.ʺ 10) Drugs that were once used therapeutically and are now illegal because of a high potential for 10) abuse include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Barbiturates B) LSD C) Opioids D) Cocaine 11) A client is admitted for alcohol intoxication. The nurse knows the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal 11) are: A) Tremors, fatigue, anxiety, abdominal cramping, hallucinations, confusion, seizures, and delirium. B) Rarely observed. C) Mental depression, anxiety, extreme fatigue, and hunger. D) Excessive sweating, restlessness, dilated pupils, agitation, goose bumps, tremor, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal cramps. 12) A client states that the physician prescribed a tranquilizer for a sleep disorder. The nurse knows 12) that another name for tranquilizers is: A) Hallucinogens. B) Cannabinoids. C) Sedatives. D) Alcohol. 13) Barbiturates cause which of the following when used for long periods of time at high doses? Select 13) all that apply. A) Tolerance B) Tremors C) Physical dependence D) Psychological dependence 14) A client arrives in the Emergency Department with a barbiturate overdose. The nurse knows that 14) which of the following are possible? Select all that apply. A) Coma B) Increased respirations C) Death D) Decreased respirations 15) A client arrives in the Emergency Department with an overdose from benzodiazepines. The nurse 15) knows death is very likely if the client: A) Combined benzodiazepines with a CNS stimulant. B) Has never taken a benzodiazepine before. C) Has taken a benzodiazepine with a CNS depressant. D) Took a high dose of benzodiazepines. 16) A client is receiving treatment for opioid addiction. The nurse expects which medication to be 16) prescribed to help treat this addiction? A) Methadone (Dolphine) C) Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) B) Fentanyl (Druagesic) D) Propoxyphene (Darvon) 2 17) Effects of alcohol overdose include: 17) A) Nausea, severe hypotension, and increased respirations. B) Vomiting, severe hypotension, respiratory failure, coma, and death. C) Severe hypertension, stroke, coma, and death. D) Vomiting, severe hypertension, respiratory failure, coma, and death. 18) Which of the following statements made by a client who smokes marijuana is not true? 18) A) ʺMarijuana makes me hungry.ʺ B) ʺMarijuana makes me thirsty.ʺ C) ʺMarijuana does not increase the risk for lung cancer.ʺ D) ʺMarijuana makes me paranoid.ʺ 19) A client presents in the Emergency Department with hallucinations, anxiety, and confusion. The 19) client denies taking any illegal drugs in the past 48 hours. The nurse knows these symptoms can occur as flashbacks from which type of drug? A) Cannabinoids B) Hallucinogens C) Barbiturates D) Opioids 20) A client reports restlessness, nervousness, irritability, and insomnia. The client denies caffeine 20) intake, but has been taking an OTC pain reliever for a headache. The nurse explains that: A) These symptoms are normal side effects of OTC pain relievers. B) Caffeine is added to some OTC pain relievers. C) These symptoms indicate that the client is allergic to the OTC pain reliever. D) These symptoms are normal side effects of a headache. 21) The nurse explains to the client why she should not smoke while taking oral contraceptives. Which 21) of the following statements by the client shows understanding? A) ʺI should stop smoking if I get pregnant.ʺ B) ʺSmoking increases the risk of cardiovascular problems.ʺ C) ʺI can only smoke half a pack per day.ʺ D) ʺThere is no problem with smoking.ʺ 22) The client exhibits symptoms of dilated pupils, sweating, and tremors. Nursing assessment will 22) most likely indicate that the client has ingested what category of drug? A) CNS depressant B) Opioid C) Alcohol D) CNS stimulant 23) The client has chronic alcoholism. Which lab test is most important for the nurse to evaluate? 23) A) Stool for occult blood B) Liver function test C) Complete blood count D) White blood count 24) The client receives disulfiram (Antabuse) and asks the nurse what will happen if alcohol is 24) consumed while taking this drug. What is the best response by the nurse? A) ʺThere is a good chance you will become very euphoric.ʺ B) ʺHeadache and nausea or vomiting are the most common effects.ʺ C) ʺMost people experience severe depression and suicidal thoughts.ʺ D) ʺIt really depends on how much alcohol you drink.ʺ 3 25) The client will be receiving disulfiram (Antabuse) for 3 months. What is priority teaching at the 25) time of discharge? A) ʺIt is very important to take this drug with food.ʺ B) ʺDo not drink any alcohol for 2 weeks after you stop this drug.ʺ C) ʺIt is very important to take this drug on an empty stomach.ʺ D) ʺDo not operate heavy machinery while taking this drug.ʺ 4 Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7 1) D 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) B, D 11) A 12) C 13) A, C, D 14) A, C, D 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) B 5