NCE Pre-Assessment Exam 200 Questions from Actual Exam 2023 update

NCE Pre-Assessment Exam 200 Questions from Actual Exam 2023 update • QUESNCE / • Exams / • NCE Pre-Assessment Exam NCE Pre-Assessment Exam 200 Questions from Actual Exam 2023 update Part 1 of 10 1. In his book, A Mind That Found Itself this author drew attention to not only the concept of mental illness but also the methods for helping those afflicted: a. Clifford Beers b. Frank Parsons c. Jesse Davis d. Earl Brewer ________________________________________ 2. Developmental tasks refer to: a. a series of steps in completing a task. b. automatic releases of adrenaline. c. a series of pragmatic unfolding of individual needs. d. tasks, which arise at about the same period in life for each individual. ________________________________________ 3. A theory is: a. a collection of facts organized into a framework. b. a model, which blends reality of experiences with ideas about plausible explanations. c. an approach or implicit assumption of reality. d. a tested set of principles. ________________________________________ 4. Clinical psychologists tend to perform which function that other mental health professionals do not? a. psychoanalysis b. research c. administering intelligence tests d. career counseling ________________________________________ 5. The first classification system for the insane entitled "Statistical Manual for the Use of Institutions" for the Insame in 1917 and subsequent manuals such the DSM, DSMI, DSM-II, DSM-III, DSM-IIIR, DSM-IV, DSM-TR, and DSM-5 was due to the influence of which person? a. Emil Kraepelin. b. Wilhelm Wundt. c. Francis Galton. d. Sigmund Freud. ________________________________________ 6. When the counselor does not tell a client about the known risks in counseling he/she is not using: a. informed consent. b. duty to warn. c. competence. d. malpractice. ________________________________________ 7. A major difficulty with a standard of care in establishing a malpractice claim is that: a. new symptoms appear after the initial ones have been remediated. b. there are a large number of treatment options which allow for wide latitude in acceptable care. c. it is difficult to determine when informed consent procedures were initiated. d. the statements are not very clear in the standard of care. ________________________________________ 8. According to ACA an ethical response by a professional regarding competence would be: a. to attain the highest degree possible which provides the cognitive learning of your specialty. b. to gather data on your effectiveness. c. to recognize the need for continuing education. d. to achieve the skills to become a supervisor. e. to join a local counseling organization. ________________________________________ 9. All of the following are considered association member behaviors reflecting professionalism except: a. behaviors considered unethical are policed by the legal network for each state. b. developing a personal standard of excellence. c. exhibiting pride in the profession. d. striving for quality and ideals. ________________________________________ 10. The basis for most legal and ethical grievances in the practice of mental health is: a. inappropriate interactions with clients. b. inappropriate decision-making skills. c. unforeseen dilemmas. d. a dilemma between the client's ability to pay and the established fee structure. ________________________________________ 11. All of the following are reasons a profession needs a code of ethics except: a. to protect the public by setting minimum standards of service b. to help the client decide what is right and get him/her to do the right thing c. to provide a set of guidelines for decision-making in difficult situations d. to guard the profession against external regulations ________________________________________ 12. Which one of the following is a protected right granted to a client and extended to the therapist that allows the therapist to not reveal information shared in a session? a. privacy b. privilege c. confidentiality d. habeas corpus ________________________________________ 13. All of the following are exceptions to privilege except: a. child abuse b. malpractice c. confidentiality d. subpoena issued by a judge ________________________________________ 14. An example of a good record system regarding a client's treatment is when the record (file) a. is purged after client termination. b. enables the counselor to reconstruct the course of therapy. c. contains all the activities including fees, payments, missed appointments, session notes, etc. d. adheres to the general record-retention rules. ________________________________________ 15. In retaining information in a record after the client has terminated, which one of the following may be considered the least important? a. summary sheets b. diagnoses and treatment c. canceled appointments d. follow-up effectiveness ________________________________________ 16. You have been counseling a 32-year-old male who was experiencing a repressive environment in his work. He exhibits passive work behaviors toward fellow workers and expressed he does not deserve any sort of praise or rewards. This client has been coming to see you for nine months and has not improved. Clients who tend not to improve generally are: a. experiencing some other problem than the reported one. b. in need of a different type of therapy. c. fostering dependency. d. refusing to rebel against the repressive environment. ________________________________________ 17. A client welfare principle which defines the client's right as an independent person to make decisions and act on them is: a. fidelity. b. justice. c. beneficence. d. autonomy. ________________________________________ 18. A counselor in a large city counsels in two different clinical centers. Each of these counseling centers has a different director, clinical supervisor, and fee structure. The counselor has been counseling a 37-year-old female at Center 1. Two months later at Center 2 the counselor discovers, after four sessions, that a 39-year-old female client is the sister of the 37-year-old client in Center 1. This was discovered when conducting a genogram. The counselor should: a. terminate the second relationship (39-year-old) and do not tell her the reason for the termination. b. terminate the second relationship (39-year-old) and tell her why you are not able to continue the counseling. Attempt to refer her to another counselor within or outside the practice. c. through informed consent, inform the 39-year-old client that there may be a conflict of interest because the counselor has a counseling relationship with her sister. If client (37) approves of the counselor relationship with client (39) resume the counseling. d. continue with both relationships. ________________________________________ 19. Which of the following legal mandates allows students 18 or older and their parents the right to inspect relevant records? a. Article 7 of Civil and Political Rights b. Public Law 94-142 c. HIPAA d. FERPA ________________________________________ 20. Countertransference includes attitudes or feelings a counselor has toward the client. Hurtful transference may take place when the counselor's unresolved issues interfere and it is possible that the counselor may do all of the following except: a. be blinded to an important area for exploration. b. derive personal gratification or vicarious reinforcement. c. focus on an issue of the counselors more than a client issue. d. follow the client's leads. 21. During the course of intern training appropriate behaviors of a supervisor are all of the following except to: a. become aware of limitations of interns that may impede performance of that supervisee. b. recommend dismissal from training when the intern is unable to provide competent services to clients. c. endorse supervisees for certification, licensure, employment, or completion of an academic training program. d. counsel with interns when it is apparent that interpersonal and/or intrapersonal issues of the intern become a part of the counseling relationship. ________________________________________ 22. In conducting research with human subjects, the participants: a. must leave the experiment (study) unharmed, psychologically or physically. b. under certain conditions have their personal privacy invaded. c. under certain conditions may not be able to decline participation. d. are not obligated to openness and honesty as a condition of the experiment. ________________________________________ 23. A counselor has contracted with a mental health agency to conduct group counseling. This group will be for anyone who has undergone a trauma. Which one of the following should the counselor consider as the most essential step in the formation of this therapeutic group? a. to screen the prospective clients before they are admitted to the group b. to have a referral source for members once the group has terminated c. to provide everyone the opportunity to share and to help one another once the group has begun d. to allow for departure from the group if the group is not helping any one member ________________________________________ 24. All of the following are considered a dual relationship except when the: a. counselor has an administrative relationship with the client b. counselor has a supervisory relationship with the client c. counselor has an evaluative relationship with the client d. client refers to a close friend of his/hers during a counseling session ________________________________________ 25. An example of a triage is when a. a client is placed ahead of others on a waiting list because he/she is suicidal. b. three different agencies or service providers are involved in the treatment of a client. c. three different treatment approaches are dovetailed to address all facets of the problem. d. a team approach is utilized rather than individual psychotherapy. ________________________________________ 26. Clinical vs. actuarial prediction research is concerned with: a. which type of therapy is best evaluated with either method. b. the best evaluative procedure for career assessment. c. the best way to interpret information. d. parametric vs. non-parametric analysis. ________________________________________ 27. Efficacy studies for treatment effectiveness and client change require: a. randomization b. a minimum of 10 individuals with the same diagnosis and of the same age c. a psychologist conduct the therapy d. all participants have the same severity rating ________________________________________ 28. Measuring change effectively in psychotherapy while conducting an efficacy outcome study is best accomplished by: a. relationship between the log of the number of sessions and the normalized probability of client improvement. b. insight. c. matched pair assignments of individuals. d. a quasi-experimental design. ________________________________________ 29. Early research by Eysenck (1952) and later by Bergin (1971) regarding effectiveness of psychotherapy emphasized what? a. all therapy is effective b. Eysenck said no effect with psychotherapy was evident, while Bergin said psychotherapy was more effective than no treatment c. Eysenck said psychotherapy was more effective than no treatment, while Bergin said there was no difference with psychotherapy d. both said psychotherapy was not effective ________________________________________ 30. Research by several investigators suggested that success in treatment is more likely with which type of client? a. borderline b. phobic c. alcoholics d. low self-esteem ________________________________________ 31. A "placebo" is designed to serve: a. as a treatment. b. as a control. c. in lieu of a drug. d. as a non-effective change agent. ________________________________________ 32. Which therapy has been known to be effective with depressives? a. Lowen's bioenergy b. Loevinger's ego therapy c. Implosive therapy (Stampfl) d. Beck's cognitive therapy ________________________________________ 33. Anxiety problems appear to be best remediated with which type of therapy? a. cognitive-behavioral b. rational-emotive c. existential d. eclectic ________________________________________ 34. In conducting therapy with a phobic problem, the best way to measure change would be to use a: a. subjective evaluation. b. physiological changes. c. self-report. d. behavior rating. ________________________________________ 35. A control group is: a. the dependent variable. b. the group that receives the "halo effect" but not the treatment. c. a group of individuals who are not exposed to the treatment. d. a double-blind group of which the researcher does not know who is in the control group. ________________________________________ 36. What type of research is an attempt to scale down therapy to a few workable variables and can be studied in the laboratory? a. analogue b. comparative c. experimental d. historical ________________________________________ 37. When utilizing inferential statistics, the central tendency considered the most helpful is the: a. mean. b. median. c. mode. d. standard deviation. ________________________________________ 38. If you calculated the score on a math test for 15 sophomores and they all had the same score, then you could determine that the variance would be: a. the score itself. b. zero. c. one. d. lacking data as the actual math score is needed to determine the variance of a set of scores. ________________________________________ 39. If the appropriate variance for a set of test scores were the interquartile range, then the appropriate measure of central tendency would be the? a. mean b. median c. mode d. mean, median, mode ________________________________________ 40. When a two-tailed test of significance is being utilized one can safely say: a. one is rejecting both ends of a sampling distribution. b. one is rejecting one end of a sampling distribution. c. one is rejecting the middle of the sampling distribution and accepting the two ends of the distribution. d. the test fails to reject the hypothesis because the two tails are not in the distribution free sampling. 41. Which type of validity measure typically utilizes a factor-analyzed statistical technique? a. content b. construct c. concurrent d. predictive ________________________________________ 42. An investigator is conducting a survey of classical reading and has listed 10 of the most-often-read classics. He administers the survey to 30 eighth-grade students. How many degrees of freedom are there? a. 9 b. 10 c. 30 d. 29 ________________________________________ 43. The null hypothesis is not rejected when: a. a Type I error is made. b. a Type II error is not made. c. the difference between the sample mean and population mean is due to chance. d. the difference between the sample mean and population mean is zero. ________________________________________ 44. A research comparison between dogsled drivers and wind variability was planned for the Greater Alaska Dogsled Race. The drivers were compared on height, weight, and body surface with three different wind speeds. This type of comparison is: a. posteriori. b. post hoc. c. priori. d. multiple comparisons. ________________________________________ 45. A 2 x 2 x 3 factorial design is described as which one of the following? a. 2 independent variables for Factors A and B and 3 independent variables for C b. 2 independent variables for 3 levels of Factors A, B, and C c. 3 independent variables with two levels for A and B and 3 levels for C d. 3 dependent variables with 2 levels for Factors A and B and 3 levels for Factor C ________________________________________ 46. A correlation is reported at -.40 for snowfall and sunshine. What percent of the variance in snowfall is associated with less sunshine? a. 40 b. 60 c. 16 d. 84 ________________________________________ 47. What must be true in order to utilize a two-way analysis of variance? a. The data must be discrete and ordinal. b. The data must be interval or ratio, and subjects must be randomly assigned. c. The data must be both discrete and continuous, and the subjects need not meet randomization. d. The dependent variable must be discrete and students must be randomly assigned. ________________________________________ 48. You are interested in establishing the relationship between dogs and cats. One of the variables under study is continuous data, and the other is dichotomous data. What correlation would be most appropriate? a. Spearman rank b. Point biserial c. Phi coefficient d. Pearson product ________________________________________ 49. A school counselor is of the opinion that vitamin C is effective in improving reading comprehension one hour after taking the vitamin. She conducts the experiment and administers the standardized portion of the Albright Reading Comprehension Test on a pre-post basis. What is the dependent variable in this study? a. Vitamin C b. Albright Reading Comprehension Test scores c. one hour d. students in the experimental group ________________________________________ 50. Two tests measuring the same variable have been correlated and yield a correlation of .80. The first test has a separate correlation of .70 and the second of .60. What is the coefficient of determination? a. .64 b. .49 c. .36 d. .20 ________________________________________ 51. An aptitude test would be selected to measure which one of the following characteristics? a. learning difficulty b. social desirability c. success of satisfaction d. talents ________________________________________ 52. The classification system for the sophistication of various tests as set forth by the American Psychological Association is based upon: a. the level and type of training as well as skill required to administer and interpret the test. b. the level of acceptable research that went into the test development. c. the range of age and ability of subjects for whom the test is intended. d. a system which was first designed for the field of sociology. ________________________________________ 53. All of the following are methods to control for response set except: a. having more positive than negative statements b. using a forced-choice format c. providing for a random scale d. using motivational distortion scales ________________________________________ 54. Which validity is considered appropriate when a new test is correlated with an older established test? a. content b. construct c. concurrent d. predictive ________________________________________ 55. Validity is: a. the degree of constancy of the reported score. b. the degree to which we can generalize scores on one test to scores on another test. c. how much measurement error is accounted for through the establishment of a correlation coefficient. d. the standard error of estimate for each person's score. ________________________________________ 56. Which variable measure is best to use when the mean is reported? a. semi-interquartile range b. standard deviation c. range d. correlation ________________________________________ 57. Which one of the following suggests that as test scores increase the grade point average decreases? a. 0.0 b. -0.7 c. 1.0 d. +0.7 ________________________________________ 58. The most accepted way to begin the process of performing a statistical analysis of test scores is to begin with: a. frequency distribution. b. central tendency. c. variability. d. correlation. ________________________________________ 59. Who developed taxonomy for the Psychomotor Domain? a. Anita Harrow b. Bloom and Krathwohl c. Gerlack and Sullivan d. Kratwohl and Bloom ________________________________________ 60. Tests which correct for wild guessing tend to have a correction formula in place. These formulas are most helpful for what type of test question? a. true/false b. multiple choice (three or more) c. essay d. completion of a sentence 61. A correlation for determining the validity of an item for predicting a particular external criterion between scores on an item and scores on the criterion is: a. phi correlation. b. rho. c. Pearson-product. d. point-biserial. ________________________________________ 62. Speeded tests tend to: a. have no effect on reliability. b. be more reliable. c. be less reliable. d. affect validity more than reliability. ________________________________________ 63. Standard scores represent measurement on: a. ratio scores. b. interval scales. c. nominal scales. d. ordinal scales. ________________________________________ 64. The standard score which most nearly resembles the normal curve is a: a. percentile. b. z score. c. T score. d. decile. ________________________________________ 65. Grace obtained a raw score of 56 on a counseling theory test. This score was 8 points below the mean. The standard error of measurement was 4. If Grace were to take the examination a second time, we could expect that her score would fall in what range? a. 57-63 b. 61-67 c. 52-60 d. 60-68 ________________________________________ 66. Hiring an individual based on his/her pass score but who is not able to behaviorally do the job is an example of what type of error? a. gamma b. theta c. beta d. alpha ________________________________________ 67. Formative evaluations are designed to: a. help focus on what is to be learned or mastered. b. include clep scores. c. group students into ability levels. d. provide for accountability in teaching. ________________________________________ 68. A teacher is selecting a particular achievement test for basic math. The best source to assist in this selection is the: a. Mental Measurement Yearbooks. b. Reading Tests and Review. c. Clinical Guide to Test Selection. d. National Education Association Test Catalog. ________________________________________ 69. Cattell developed an intelligence theory, which was further refined by John Horn. This theory identified two types of intelligence, crystallized and fluid. Fluid intelligence is associated with what part of the brain? a. right hemisphere b. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe d. left hemisphere ________________________________________ 70. An example of a typical performance test is: a. intelligence. b. aptitude. c. achievement. d. value. ________________________________________ 71. The term that best describes non-verbal communication through body movement is: a. kinesics b. proxemics c. paralanguage d. prolixin ________________________________________ 72. The Semantic Differential is an example of what type of scale? a. seven-point continuum scale b. agreeing with one statement indicates agreement with milder statements c. sorting statements into two piles or constructs d. five-point rating scale based on agree/disagree ________________________________________ 73. A teacher was called upon to rate his students. It was determined that he tended to rate the students higher on positive characteristics and less severely on negative characteristics. This is known as: a. rater bias b. halo effect c. leniency error d. central tendency error ________________________________________ 74. Certain tests are administered by a computer in which a pool of test items is divided into subsets according to difficulty level. A correct answer will lead to a more difficult question. This type of computer testing is called: a. computer-based interpretation b. computer-based adaptive c. computer-analogue d. computer-assisted ________________________________________ 75. In establishing a norm group for a particular test, the developer is interested in accounting for a target population that includes variables representative of a population ratio. The variables are age, sex, race, social class, and educational level. The test developer would use what type of sampling? a. random b. expectancy tables c. stratified random d. normalized standard ________________________________________ 76. In counseling a 29 year-old male who has had 14 different jobs over the last 12 years, the counselor notes the client lacks knowledge of work content, the realities and demands of the work environment, and any depth to his personal strengths and weaknesses. The counselor would be best advised to focus on: a. rejection of work. b. resistance to components of the workplace. c. providing world-of-work information. d. counseling on personal development. ________________________________________ 77. The Father of Vocational Guidance is: a. Donald Super. b. Jessie Davis. c. E. G. Williamson. d. Frank Parsons. ________________________________________ 78. Results from the Career Pattern Study indicate that: a. junior-high-school-age students were not vocationally mature enough to make career decisions. b. critical life events had to be resolved before students were able to progress through each of the stages and vocational maturity. c. there were differences in career determinants for boys and girls which influenced his/her choice of careers. d. family influence determined an individuals' (students') attraction to specific job fields. ________________________________________ 79. During counseling, Sharon told the counselor that she had always been good with things and that she really wanted to work with machines. According to Anne Roe's theory, Sharon was probably: a. raised in a large family. b. reared by cold, rejecting parents. c. reared by warm, accepting parents. d. raised in a small family. ________________________________________ 80. Which of the following has as one of its major tenets to make job vacancies known to the general public? a. Affirmative Action in employment b. Public Law 94-142 c. Vital Information and Education and Work (VIEW) d. JOB-FLO 81. In career counseling, utilizing stages and tasks with an individual who has experienced a traumatic disability, some authors suggest that the individual needs to: a. regress to the interest and capacity phase of the growth stage. b. regress to the tentative and realistic phase of the exploratory stage. c. progress to the trial phase of the exploratory stage. d. progress to the trial phase of the establishment stage. ________________________________________ 82. A career theorist(s) who believes that one has to create an ego identity for work is: a. Bordin, Nachman, and Siegal. b. Erik Erikson. c. Eli Ginzberg. d. David Tiedeman. ________________________________________ 83. John Holland developed a hexagonal model to describe a person's primary and secondary personality-work environment orientation. How would Holland explain a primary and secondary stereotype that was adjacent? a. as a consistent orientation, which would indicate stability of occupational preference b. as a self-expressed congruence with the primary and secondary choices c. as a well-differentiated preference for primary and secondary choices yielding a stable stereotype d. that satisfaction would more than likely occur because the personality stereotype and work environment stereotype are similar and next to each other on the hexagon ________________________________________ 84. The validity of aptitude tests for career guidance has been shown to be: a. quite high for predicting success in an occupation. b. more accurate in predicting success in training for a job than predicting success in the job. c. a low predictor of satisfaction in training and job success. d. better when viewed on an actuarial or statistical table. ________________________________________ 85. The most common means of assessing interest is through which type of interest? a. expressed b. manifested c. tested d. inventoried ________________________________________ 86. A professional counselor has been hired by an industrial firm to counsel with two mid-level managers. Both managers have worked for this firm for approximately 20 years and informed the human relations director that they are burned out. How might the counselor treat these managers? a. conducting an assessment to determine if burnout is the issue b. work with the firm to reduce the work load for both of these managers c. provide the managers a number of resource books in order to become acquainted with the characteristics of burn out d. determine if each manager is experiencing a mid-life crisis ________________________________________ 87. Identity models are available for several minority groups to better understand cultural development. A fairly recent model for all oppressed people called OPAID is similar to these early models. All models tend to suggest that: a. initially, the minority prefers the cultural values of the majority to their own. b. the minority member thinks in terms of the minority group dogma throughout the model, until adaptation takes place. c. social engineering increases the opportunities for minority members and is encouraged. d. without acculturation, minority models adaptation will not take place. ________________________________________ 88. Considered an advantage of career guidance systems is: a. the cost of hardware and software. b. to allow for a mechanistic approach to career counseling. c. that clients can eliminate discussions which often surface in one-to-one counseling, thus a time saver. d. that clients become motivated to use other career information and planning sources. ________________________________________ 89. Individuals who make good vocational choices, which are similar to assessment data, are: a. good decision-makers because they are well integrated and are developmentally mature. b. those who have primarily dispositions compatible with what is being tested on assessment inventories. c. understanding their personality types and expectations for work. d. in a mentor relationship with someone who provides proper guidance in understanding oneself in relationship to the world of work. ________________________________________ 90. Whose vocational theory focuses on the idea that an interaction between stages and tasks is an orderly progression for vocational maturity? a. Eli Ginzberg b. E. G. Williamson c. Donald Super d. David Tiedeman ________________________________________ 91. A number of criticisms exist for many career development theories. These criticisms have tended to place emphasis upon the fact that these theories: a. have very little empirical support. They have been conducted, for the most part, on white males. b. place an emphasis on satisfaction and status rather than productiveness. c. too much emphasis on aptitude rather than motivation to do the work. d. too little emphasis on the younger ages when these interests are kindled. ________________________________________ 92. Ginzberg's life planning has given emphasis to which of the following factors? a. environmental b. individual development c. value d. decision-making ________________________________________ 93. A specific occupation has a D.O.T. classification in the form of a number. This number reveals a relationship to data, people, and things. Which of the D.O.T. numbers would suggest a high relationship to data and people and a low relationship to things? a. 234.017 b. 234.771 c. 234.077 d. 234.990 ________________________________________ 94. A type of consultation whereby the consultant and consultee have shared responsibilities in problem identification and intervention is: a. Mental Health Consultation. b. Behavioral Consultation c. Striver Consultation. d. Collaborative Consultation. ________________________________________ 95. Several sources of information for locating career information programs are available for career counselors. Many of these can be found in what major Counseling and Personnel Services Information Center? a. VIEW b. SOS c. Atlanta Occupational Information Center d. ERIC ________________________________________ 96. One (several) of the first vocational developmentalist(s) who theorized that the selection of a lifetime work role came about in stages was (were): a. Ginzberg, Ginsburg, Axelrad, and Herma. b. E. G. Williamson. c. Donald Super. d. Anne Roe. ________________________________________ 97. Which one of the following is not accurate regarding the use of tests in career assessment and interpretation? a. computer-based narrative reports tend to be better than standard profiles b. evidence exists that counselors should be careful when interpreting test results to women, minorities, handicapped, and older workers c. acceptance of test results is better in individual sessions as opposed to group sessions d. those who have a good picture of themselves before interpretation tend to get the most out of analysis ________________________________________ 98. Special characteristics of men in evaluating the roles, beliefs, and values in their lifestyle have been pointed out as a significant advancement in career counseling. All of the following are considered special characteristics except: a. achievement and success in perspective b. fear of femininity c. learning to relax d. unrestricted emotionality ________________________________________ 99. Erikson would suggest adolescents in development would feel a threat when making a career choice. Which one of the following would be threatened? a. future financial status b. peer recognition c. identity d. maturity ________________________________________ 100. The O*Net replaced which occupational resource? a. CareerInfoNet b. Dictionary of Occupational Titles c. National Career Development competencies d. Occupational Outlook Handbook 101. Psychoanalytic theory views abnormal behavior resulting from: a. an inappropriate childhood learning. b. a predisposed client's perceiving and reacting toward a situation. c. fixed perceptions. d. learned avoidance. ________________________________________ 102. Counter transference is: a. a change in perception of a client in therapy. b. the process of counseling incorporating dimensions for improvement. c. a counselor's feelings toward a client based on past events. d. surrendering affect to the client for emotional dependence. ________________________________________ 103. During the analysis stage, what two techniques did Adler believe were important? a. free association and dream analysis b. early memories and persona c. depersonalization and immunization d. empathy and encouragement ________________________________________ 104. Which one of the following theories would view man as striving for perfection? a. transactional analysis b. client-centered c. Gestalt d. Adlerian ________________________________________ 105. Which one of the following theories would view anxiety as a gap between the now and then (unfinished business)? a. Adlerian b. Gestalt c. ego counseling d. self-theory ________________________________________ 106. It has been suggested that lower-class clients respond favorably to: a. long-term, crisis-oriented counseling. b. attitudinal counseling. c. insight-oriented therapy. d. increased counselor activity. ________________________________________ 107. Flight into health is a term associated with: a. termination. b. decision-making regarding a deeper commitment. c. diagnosis. d. treatment. ________________________________________ 108. While in therapy a client insists he does not have a drinking problem while his spouse indicates he drinks every day and remains drunk throughout the weekend. According to psychoanalytic theory this man would be employing which defense mechanism? a. repression b. depression c. sublimation d. denial ________________________________________ 109. All of the following are considered to be a description, definition, or behavior of transference except: a. an unconscious effort to distort one's feelings in therapy b. feelings and reactions of one's childhood towards his/her parents c. placing feelings, habits, and behavior from an old relationship onto a new relationship d. putting hostile feelings on the therapist ________________________________________ 110. Change process in psychoanalysis is: a. insight, emotional reliving, working through. b. maintaining contact and awareness. c. problem identification and alliance. d. bonding and resistance. ________________________________________ 111. In psychoanalysis, neurotic disorders result from: a. fixation at a psychosexual stage. b. regression. c. inappropriate distribution of energy to ego, id, superego. d. failure of defense mechanism. ________________________________________ 112. In Gestalt therapy, unfinished business is: a. an incomplete Gestalt. b. intrapsychic conflict. c. interpersonal conflict. d. paradoxical intention. ________________________________________ 113. One of the partners in a husband-wife relationship has noticed that the spouse will sometimes say he/she loves him/her two or three times in one day but then will go a month without saying it. This is considered what type of reinforcement? a. variable interval b. variable ratio c. fixed ratio d. fixed interval ________________________________________ 114. A "mustubatory" tendency is: a. a tendency to complete what you started b. an emotional reaction to a cognitive statement c. an existential fear d. an irrational thought ________________________________________ 115. Mark is afraid to approach Margaret for a date to Friday's football game. During a session, the counselor enquires why he is reluctant to ask Margaret. Mark tells the counselor he was with his friend, Jack, who had asked Caroline for a date and she turned Jack down. This kind of learning is: a. imitation b. triangular misinterpretation c. cognitive triad d. vicarious learning ________________________________________ 116. Paradoxical intention is one of the major psychotherapeutic techniques of: a. cognitive restructuring. b. existential therapy. c. teleoanalytical therapy. d. logotherapy. ________________________________________ 117. Dereflection in logotherapy is: a. when a client is encouraged to stop focusing on his/her personal system and to focus on someone or something else. b. exploring, uncovering, and interpreting. c. faulty learning in combining behavior, affect, cognition, and sensations. d. the outer layer, a less-than-genuine self-investment. ________________________________________ 118. An injunction in transactional analysis is: a. a message from the child ego state of the parents. b. a life script, which reflects complementary messages. c. an ulterior message. d. a collection of bad feelings for someone. ________________________________________ 119. A barrier to effective communication especially in the phase of self-exploration is: a. explaining the communication model b. a fear of change c. client dependence d. catharsis ________________________________________ 120. The core condition of bringing your immediate feelings into the present is: a. congruence b. concreteness c. respect d. immediacy 121. The study of paralanguage, which includes voice quality and voice set regarding communication, usually signifies: a. general emotional state of the person b. the degree of exactness signifying the dimension of rigid-flexible c. general level of resistance in the communication d. how the language and body space are coordinated with the message ________________________________________ 122. Who developed a communication model with a framework for inferring what nonverbal communication means? a. Allen Ivey b. Norman Kagan c. Bernard Guerney d. Eugene Gendlin ________________________________________ 123. The primary task in an initial counseling interview is to: a. assess the nature of the problem. b. establish a good relationship. c. outline a treatment procedure. d. reduce first-session anxiety and assure the client that something can be done about his/her concern. ________________________________________ 124. In behavioral counseling, the term "shaping" is when the: a. counselor modifies behavior through reinforcement with a series of approximations to the desired behavior. b. counselor decreases the frequency of an undesirable behavior. c. counselor presents a model which demonstrates the desired behavior so the client can observe and practice. d. client recognizes the consequences of one's action and changes behavior toward the desired goal. ________________________________________ 125. A counselor has been counseling with a 32-year-old male who claims to have interpersonal difficulties in maintaining a relationship with either males or females. The counselor has interpreted that the client plays a series of games with others with whom he interacts. The client plays the victim role in many of these interactions. The counselor goes on to explain this game-playing through which one of the following? a. Johari Window b. Approach-Avoidance Conflict c. Premack Principle d. Karpman Triangle ________________________________________ 126. Which of the following would be considered poor judgment for a group leader (ethically)? a. allowing a group member to be verbally abused by others b. allowing oneself (leader) to share his/her problem c. recruiting members who had previous group experiences d. screening who is selected for a personal growth group ________________________________________ 127. Which individual should not be allowed to join a group? A person who has an (a): a. impaired sense of reality. b. crisis situation at the time. c. history of emotional liability. d. history of joining groups. ________________________________________ 128. The founder of logotherapy is: a. Soren Kierkegaard b. Victor Frankl c. Frederick Perls d. Donald Meichenbaum ________________________________________ 129. The exploratory phase of a group in process usually finds which of the following emerging? a. one or more members beginning to self-disclose at a deep level for feelings of involvement b. modeling self-disclosure at a level as deep as the most advanced group member c. group participants recognizing that change will not occur unless they take some action d. the assigning of power and influence to various members in the group ________________________________________ 130. The greatest difference between counseling groups and self-help groups is: a. counseling groups are more inner-focused. b. the leadership pattern(s). c. counseling groups emphasize emotional expression and catharsis, while self-help groups do not. d. counseling groups promote implementing behavior change, while self-help groups develop the ideas. ________________________________________ 131. This is the second session of a personal growth group. All members went through a screening interview. One member, Carol, has been excessively talkative, often off the topic. The group listens attentively to her. The group leader should: a. recognize Carol serves a group need and allow her to continue. b. recognize this as a form of control and attempt to regain structure in the group. c. process this in the group but keep the interpretation on the content level. d. nonverbally close off some of Carol's talk and assume more leadership by shifting the topic and using the technique of circular sharing. ________________________________________ 132. When a group leader formulates a counseling group, he/she should be sure that: a. a sufficient number of group roles are in the group. b. the group will be a cohesive unit and can work into more than a task group. c. a pre-group interview takes place. d. the group composition is adequate in size and has a variety of experiences by the members. ________________________________________ 133. All of the following are techniques of psychodrama except: a. Karpman Triangle b. Magic Shop c. Mirror Technique d. Alternate Ego ________________________________________ 134. A psychoanalytic leader would: a. exert energy toward creating a climate for group work. b. see resistance as very important and analyze it. c. model assertive behaviors. d. amplify the normalizing process. ________________________________________ 135. A technique used to get members to focus on an issue or topic is: a. use of rounds. b. universality. c. cutting off. d. focusing. ________________________________________ 136. Screening group members is most appropriate for which type of group? a. task b. therapy c. discussion d. education ________________________________________ 137. Which statement would be a good warm-up to start a session for a therapy group that did not last on a good note the last session? a. "We are going to talk about (topic) last week". b. "Is there anything from our last session the group would like to talk about?" d. "Does anyone have any comments about the film?" "Where would the group like to start today?" ________________________________________ 138. A "letdown" after a group has been together for some time probably occurred because: a. group members do not cohese. b. the first session is spent on acquaintances, expectations, and members and the second is on content. c. the exercises were not appropriate for the makeup of the group. d. the length of the session was too long. ________________________________________ 139. Tone-setting is especially important to: a. getting the right blend in the group. b. new members. c. old members. d. the leader. ________________________________________ 140. When members are arguing during a session, one way to tone down the situation and make it more productive is to: a. shift to a new issue. b. interpret the impasse. c. get some of the other group members to discuss the issue. d. call a 141. In conducting screening for group membership, prospective group members should be informed of: a. the dynamics of group work. b. concerns which are appropriate to be shared in group work. c. how to terminate so that every member feels closure. d. instances in which the leader may be required to break confidence. ________________________________________ 142. An effective way to regulate participation of group members is to: a. utilize nonverbal communication. b. allot equal time to each member. c. utilize verbal members to contribute content, which is external, making it less threatening for all members. d. hold individual interviews, informing each member of his/her responsibility to participate. ________________________________________ 143. The positive quality of self-help groups is they promote: a. stress inoculation training. b. empowerment. c. teaching automatic thoughts. d. internal dialogue. ________________________________________ 144. Cognitive-behavioral group therapy attempts to approach change for members through the process of: a. cycling from centering to awareness to action to resolution. b. vicarious learning. c. the inner speech clients make to themselves. d. reorientation of members. ________________________________________ 145. Which group practitioner is given credit for the beginning of group dynamics? a. J. L. Moreno b. Jesse Davis c. Richard Allen d. Kurt Lewin ________________________________________ 146. A self-growth group is set for sixteen meetings. For the past several weeks, Gloria has been disclosing how she has been feeling regarding her husband's rejection of her. Several times she has been very emotional in the group, often leaving on a down note. During the last session, as soon as Gloria started to talk, Mark interrupted and tried to change the subject. Danny accused Mark of rescuing. What did he mean? a. Mark was trying to get Gloria to bring termination to her grief b. Mark recognized that Gloria was not going to do anything about her situation, therefore was using a non-attentive stance c. Mark was trying to smooth over Gloria's negative emotions d. Mark has now created a situation where Gloria has to deal with her real-life dilemmas ________________________________________ 147. Leadership power, which results from internalized values, is: a. referent b. expert c. coercive d. legitimate ________________________________________ 148. Group cleavage occurs in a group because of: a. a lack of cohesiveness. b. a lack of common interests and goals. c. an unstructured framework and various frames of reference. d. democratic leadership, which allows for more individualistic behaviors. ________________________________________ 149. Frank, the leader of a personal growth group, has provided very little direction to the members. In fact, most of his comments have been reflective and active listening. He does, however, assist the group thinking. He is functioning in what leadership role? a. democratic b. bureaucratic c. authoritarian d. laissez-faire ________________________________________ 150. What is the term for the process of learning the way of a group? That is, the attitudes, values, beliefs, and prejudices exhibited by the group: a. conformity b. socialization c. cohesiveness d. social space ________________________________________ 151. According to David McClelland people who seek and assume more personal responsibility, take more risk, and are open to feedback have a high need for: a. power. b. achievement. c. affiliation. d. actualization. ________________________________________ 152. The theorist who defined intelligence as the ability to adapt to the environment is: a. Arthur Otis. b. David Weschler. c. Jean Piaget. d. David McClelland. ________________________________________ 153. The act of retrieving one correct answer as opposed to several answers that are stored in long-term memory is: a. convergent thinking. b. divergent thinking. c. schema. d. serial recall. ________________________________________ 154. Emotional responses such as feelings of fear, anger, and love and one's likes, dislikes, and attitudes are learned according to what principle? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. generalization d. observant conditioning ________________________________________ 155. Learning occurs faster with continuous reinforcement. What schedule is most effective when rapid extinction is desired? a. intermittent b. variable c. fixed-ratio d. continuous ________________________________________ 156. A child has the capacity to reason and solve problems during which of Piaget's stages? a. concrete operational b. formal operational c. preoperational d. sensorimotor ________________________________________ 157. Which research approach investigates relationships among measurable events? a. naturalistic-observational b. case study c. correlational d. experimental ________________________________________ 158. Which stage or level of Jane Loevinger's ego development theory finds the person in transition from a conformist to conscientious? a. conformist b. self-aware c. conscientious d. individualistic ________________________________________ 159. You are counseling a high-school senior who admits to relationship issues. He indicates he does not have a good relationship with his parents, and it is rocky with his girlfriend. The counselor is well-schooled in Erik Erikson's psychosocial stages. The counselor concludes that the student is experiencing a crisis in the: a. trust vs. mistrust stage. b. integrity vs. despair stage. c. intimacy vs. isolation stage. d. industry vs. inferiority stage. ________________________________________ 160. Which value theorist believes that prizing is important to the development of a value structure? a. Lawrence Kohlberg b. Jean Piaget c. Arnold Gesell d. Sidney Simon 161. Jerome Bruner proposed that the iconic mode is when: a. the child's head is filled with pictures. b. motor behavior is important in language development. c. the child begins to devise symbols, which stand for people or objects. d. the child can demonstrate logical thinking. ________________________________________ 162. All of the following are classical techniques except: a. token economy b. flooding c. systematic desensitization d. aversive conditioning ________________________________________ 163. Helen has been impatiently waiting for news of college acceptance. On the same day, she receives acceptance reports from both colleges she has desired to attend. In talking with the counselor, she is unable to decide which college to accept because both are located at a great distance from home and she does not want to be so far away. This is what type of conflict? a. approach-avoidance b. approach-approach c. avoidance-avoidance d. double approach-avoidance ________________________________________ 164. Edward Guthrie developed a learning principle to reduce stimuli. One of these is the threshold method. What technique is based upon this learning principle? a. contingency contracting b. systematic desensitization c. flooding d. thought stopping ________________________________________ 165. A high-school senior desires to go to college but has heard from friends that everyone has to take a speech class. She is thinking of not going because of this requirement. The counselor might best recommend: a. assertiveness training. b. imagery. c. modeling. d. self-esteem counseling. ________________________________________ 166. According to Piaget the ability to recognize that a quantity of a substance does not change because of a change in the appearance is: a. contiguity. b. conformity. c. conservation. d. constancy. ________________________________________ 167. The process by which an organism develops physically or mentally in an orderly sequence and at a fixed individual rate is: a. learning. b. maturation. c. imprinting. d. developmentally sound. ________________________________________ 168. Sometime between 9-12 months a child begins to experience: a. the Babinski reflect. b. separation-anxiety. c. size constancy. d. a self-concept. ________________________________________ 169. The personality theorist who described one aspect of personality in terms of extroverts and introverts was: a. Carl Jung. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Milton Rokeach. d. Carl Rogers. ________________________________________ 170. The term which refers to a confused relationship between parent and child where contradictory messages are sent to the child is: a. existential. b. humanistic. c. diathesis-stress. d. double-bind. ________________________________________ 171. According to Abraham Maslow, a client who is financially well off is likely to be interested in pursuing: a. education. b. food and shelter. c. love. d. self-actualization. ________________________________________ 172. An example of negative reinforcement is: a. spanking. b. a secondary reinforcer such as money. c. administering electric shock. d. active avoidance or escape ________________________________________ 173. The theory which stresses the importance of learning by observing is: a. social learning theory. b. cognitive-behavioral. c. humanistic. d. existential. ________________________________________ 174. The part of the brain that responds to temporal value systems, logic, numbers, etc., is the: a. left brain. b. right brain. c. limbic. d. frontal lobe. ________________________________________ 175. Which term is not one of Edward Thorndikes' concepts of learning? a. law of effect b. contiguity c. law of trial-error d. law of practice ________________________________________ 176. The first source for help for the single elderly is a: a. mental-health counselor. b. spouse. c. neighbor. d. relative. ________________________________________ 177. A major difference between nonsexist therapy and feminist therapy is: a. nonsexist therapy incorporates political values and philosophy of feminism. b. feminist therapies are tolerant of authoritarian power of traditional therapists. c. nonsexist therapy functions from a humanistic egalitarian model and does not emphasize sociopolitical explanations. d. non-sexist therapy is a schooling in a political position whereas feminist therapy is apolitical. ________________________________________ 178. Dependent, passive women are best helped in counseling by which type of counselor? a. nonsexist therapist b. feminist therapist c. behavioral therapist d. humanistic therapist ________________________________________ 179. Which of the following is a good reason that a male would not be recommended as a counselor for a female client experiencing a crisis in divorce? a. the female is becoming more assertive and does not need to confront the stereotype dominant male power b. a female is already hostile toward the male, which will increase resistance, which is already a part of the process c. it is a time in a woman's life when she is vulnerable to intense transference feelings d. it would be difficult for a female to share her marital concerns with another male ________________________________________ 180. A major experience for women in the empty- nest syndrome is: a. loss of children. b. loss of role. c. depression. d. relief. 181. Researchers in social theory suggest which one of the following to be effective in working with lower-class patients? a. conformity and reformity b. assertion and social competence c. observation and modeling d. demonstration and constructive feedback ________________________________________ 182. Enmeshment is a term that describes a certain behavior for a cultural group as well as family therapy. In this description enmeshment is where: a. a cultural group closes its boundaries to members of different cultural groups. b. members of a cultural group no longer accept their families' values and lifestyles. c. a cultural group includes members from a different cultural group. d. peers of different cultural groups clash over family and religious values. ________________________________________ 183. In counseling an older adult it is noted that his/her personality has remained stable into old age. This is an example of what theory of aging? a. activity b. continuity c. disengagement d. social exchange ________________________________________ 184. A reason most often suggested why older people do not seek help from mental health centers is they: a. cannot afford the services. b. feel counselors are partial to younger people. c. do not define their problems as mental-health problems. d. do not want to go out after dark or leave their homes. ________________________________________ 185. In counseling a person who is in a domestic disturbance, the counselor should consider which of the following as a high priority? a. communication b. change in environment c. change in faulty thinking d. structure of counseling ________________________________________ 186. In interviewing a client who is demonstrating anxiety, the counselor should communicate what type of statements for a calming effect? a. empathic responses b. object-oriented c. other-directed (external) d. internal probes ________________________________________ 187. An early medical researcher and writer on the stress response was: a. John Cannon b. Konrad Lorenz c. Martin Seligman d. Hans Selye ________________________________________ 188. Several authors and theorists suggest that there are stages in a grief reaction. Most of the stage theorists suggest what stage will usually follow the initial one of shock? a. emotional reaction of anger b. bargaining c. somatic response d. depression ________________________________________ 189. The Johari Window is a technique utilized to encourage which of the following core conditions? a. trust b. immediacy c. confrontation d. self-disclosure ________________________________________ 190. Which personality description is Type A of the Rosen-Freidman model? a. calm, time-oriented, and non-stressed b. highly driven, competitive, and feel rushed c. under-driven and amotivational d. compulsive and prone to borderline dynamics ________________________________________ 191. Codependency has been described as a dependence on compulsive behavior and an approval of others in an attempt to: a. maintain a family dynamic from an alcoholic parent. b. find safety, self-worth, and identity. c. keep a marriage intact. d. meet an altruistic and unselfish need. ________________________________________ 192. Neuro-linguistic includes all of the following except: a. paralanguage. b. proxemics. c. paradoxical intention. d. kinetics. ________________________________________ 193. John Bowlby's attachment theory offers the premise that attachments come from a need for: a. love. b. security and safety. c. adjustment. d. basic trust. ________________________________________ 194. Which counseling style would be incompatible with values of Asian-Americans and Latinos? a. client-centered b. behavior modification c. cognitive therapy d. rational-emotive theory ________________________________________ 195. Sue's minority identity model stage of synergetic articulation is: a. self-appreciating and rejecting of dominant society. b. evaluating self-attitude and attitude of dominant society. c. accepting of cultural identity. d. retaining of cultural identity and accepting of one's own identity. ________________________________________ 196. Erikson's conflict for an adolescent is: a. generativity vs. stagnation. b. identity vs. role confusion. c. intimacy vs. isolation. d. ego integrity vs. despair. ________________________________________ 197. Which one of the following is inaccurate for women? a. social learning counselors are reinforcing role models as a suggested change b. psychoanalytic counselors encourage clients to sublimate their unconscious impulses into areas that before were open to men c. humanistic counselors attempt to change how women think about themselves d. cognitive counselors attempt to change overt behaviors of women ________________________________________ 198. A triadic relationship in consultation refers to: a. consultant, consultee, and client (counselor). b. who will receive the treatment or services. c. the persecutor, victim, and rescuer. d. internal, external, and neutral consultants. ________________________________________ 199. All of the following are false except: a. women tend to be accepting of death b. men see death as an antagonist c. older people fear death, as do other age groups d. women see death as a release whereas men view it as destructive ________________________________________ 200. Which family therapist is known for an absurd approach? a. Jay Haley b. Murray Bowen c. Salvador Minuchin d. Carl Whitaker