Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Testbank

Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Testbank 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 1 The Evolution of Criminal Investigation and Forensic Science 1) The first modern detective force was: A) the Bow Street Runners. B) established by the Metropolitan Police Act of 1829. C) created by Patrick Colquhoun. D) the London Metropolitan Police. 2) The London Metropolitan Police was established in 1829. At first, the British public was suspicious of, and at times even hostile toward, it because: A) King Edward II had supported its creation. B) Rowan and Mayne had intimate ties to the royal family. C) social reformers such as Jeremy Bentham had long argued that it was a danger to personal liberty. D) French citizens had experienced oppression under centralized police. 3) In 1833, ________ passed an ordinance creating America's first paid, daylight police force. A) Philadelphia B) Chicago C) New York City D) Baltimore 4) Which of the following is a reason for the absence of reliable detectives in America during the 1800's? A) Graft and corruption were common among America's big city police officers. B) Police jurisdictions were limited. C) There was little information sharing by law enforcement agencies. D) All of the above. 5) Which city was the first to create a unified police force in the United States? A) New Orleans B) New York C) Baltimore D) Philadelphia 6) After the Civil War, Pinkerton's National Detective Agency engaged in the two broad areas of: A) locating war criminals and investigating the KKK. B) protecting members of Congress and the Supreme Court. C) following up on initial reports of interstate crimes and locating offenders who fled to a foreign country. D) controlling a discontented working class and pursuing bank and railroad robbers.2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 7) What municipal agency was the first to establish a Criminal Identification Bureau? A) Chicago B) Atlanta C) Philadelphia D) New Orleans 8) Which of the following statements about a rogues' gallery is true? A) It is only practical in cities with populations of 100,000 or more. B) It consists of photographs of known criminals arranged by criminal specialty and height. C) Its use was abandoned because of the cost of maintaining it. D) All of the above. 9) What was the original mission of the Secret Service when created by Congress in 1865? A) combat counterfeiting B) providing protection for the President C) preventing drug importation into the country D) All of the above 10) Which agency was the prototype for modern state police organizations? A) New York State Police B) Georgia State Police C) Pennsylvania State Police D) Pinkerton International Detective Agency 11) The Harrison Act of 1914 made the distribution of nonmedical drugs a crime. The agency currently charged with enforcing its provisions is the ________. A) Federal Bureau of Investigations B) Narcotics Bureau C) Drug Enforcement Administration D) Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs 12) During , the U.S. Supreme Court became unusually active in hearing cases involving the rights of criminal suspects and defendants. This period is referred to as the ________. A) radical court era B) leftist court decisions C) due process revolution D) ex-post facto period 13) The first major book describing the application of scientific disciplines to criminal investigation was written in 1893 by Hans Gross. Translated into English in 1906, it remains highly respected today as a seminal work in the field. What is the book's title? A) Criminal Investigation B) The Scientific Method of Criminal Inquiry C) Science and Criminals D) Forensic Science and Crime3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 14) An early method of criminal identification was based on the thought that every human being differs from every other one in the exact measurements of their body. Also, the sum of those measurements was thought to yield a characteristic formula for each individual. What was this method of criminal identification? A) Dactylography B) Ectomorphism C) Anthropometry D) Accutron 15) The father of criminal identification is: A) Hans Gross. B) Alphonse Bertillon. C) Edward Henry. D) William Herschel. 16) The first country to use fingerprints as a system of criminal identification was: A) Germany. B) France. C) China. D) England. 17) In 1892, who published the first definitive book on dactylography, Finger Prints? A) Sir Francis Galton B) Henri Lacassagne C) Henry Balthazard D) Calvin Goddard 18) Which 1903 case was the most important incident to advance the use of fingerprints in the United States? A) Lindberg B) Fauld C) West D) Vucetich 19) In 1985, research by ________ and his colleagues at Leicester University, England, led to the discovery that portions of the DNA structure of certain genes are as unique to individuals as are fingerprints. A) James Watson B) Dawn Ashworth C) Francis Crick D) Alec Jeffreys4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 20) What is the significance of the Enderby cases? A) They questioned the scientific validity of fingerprint evidence. B) Those trials were the first use of "voice prints" to convict a criminal. C) The precedent of using DNA in a criminal case was established. D) None of the above. 21) The 1992 palo verde seedpod case is significant because it: A) excluded case evidence because of police misuse of plant pathology procedures. B) involved the use of plant DNA in a criminal case. C) established the scientific basis for identifying suspects from their fingerprints on flora. D) None of the above. 22) Who made the first successful attempt to identify a murderer from a bullet recovered from the body of a victim? A) Paul Jeserich B) Henri Lacassagne C) Henry Balthazard D) Henry Goddard 23) ________ is considered most responsible for raising firearms identification to a science and for perfecting the bullet comparison microscope. A) Paul Jeserich B) Henri Lacassagne C) Henry Balthazard D) Calvin Goddard 24) Lattes developed a procedure that: A) suggested an eye iris might have characteristics for individual identification. B) established when DNA was left on an object recovered from a crime scene. C) allowed evidence gathered from touch DNA to be preserved for over a span of 10 years. D) permitted blood typing from a dried bloodstain. 25) Identify a true statement about touch DNA. It: A) helps determine how an object was used. B) analysis of it is only successful in 5 percent of all cases. C) does not leave a visible residue. D) cannot be accumulated. 26) Which of the following provides a genomic-based, probabilistic estimation of the image of a person of interest? A) DNA phenotyping. B) Touch DNA. C) Biometrics. D) None of the above.5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 27) Forensic science draws from diverse disciplines, such as geology, physics, chemistry, biology, and mathematics, to study physical evidence related to crime. 28) The Metropolitan Police Act was enacted in 1829, the first time a strong central professional police force for London was considered by England's Parliament. 29) The Metropolitan Police headquarters came to be known as "Scotland Yard" because the building formerly had housed Scottish royalty. 30) After Prohibition was adopted nationally in 1920, the Bureau of Internal Revenue was responsible for its enforcement. 31) When Prohibition was repealed by the 18th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution in 1933, many former bootleggers turned to bank robbery and kidnapping. 32) The Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs (BNDD) was an offshoot organization from the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) that was formed to handle national terroristic drug use. 33) Edmond Benet produced the portrait parlé or "speaking picture," which combines full-face and profile photographs of each criminal with his or her exact body measurements and other descriptive data onto a single card. 34) DNA is a chemical "blueprint" that determines everything from hair color to susceptibility to diseases. 35) The Orlando cases set the stage for the first use of DNA in criminal investigations in the United States. 36) In 1913, Professor Balthazard published an article on firearms identification in which he noted that the firing pin, breechblock, extractor, and ejector all leave marks on cartridges, and that they vary among weapons. 37) The time it takes for touch DNA to be deposited is constant. 38) Currently, the age of a person of interest in a case can be determined by phenotyping. 39) ________ efforts led to the establishment of the London Metropolitan Police in 1829. 40) Stephen Girard bequeathed $33,190 to ________ to develop a competent police force. 41) The major private detective agency of the 19th century was formed by ________. 42) To supplement the rogues' gallery, Thomas Byrnes instituted the:6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 43) In 1967 ________ was made operational by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, providing data on wanted persons and property stolen from all 50 states. 44) Locard established the first ________ in Lyon in 1910. 45) All crime scenes are searched on the basis of Locard's ________, which asserts that when perpetrators come into contact with the scene, they will leave something of themselves and take away something from the scene. 46) The first foreigner trained in the use of the Henry classification system was New York City Detective Sergeant ________ in 1904. 47) The ________ cases involved testing blood samples from about 5,500 men living in the area in an attempt to identify a rape suspect. 48) ________ helped produce the first workable polygraph in 1921 and established America's first full forensic laboratory in Los Angeles in 1923. 49) ________ refers to the measurable and automated physiological or behavioral characteristics that can be used to verify the identity of an individual. 50) Who were the Bow Street Runners, and what is their historical importance? 51) What parallels can be drawn between Allan Pinkerton and J. Edgar Hoover? 52) What did the "due process revolution" and subsequent Supreme Court decisions change with respect to the police? 53) Why does the Henry classification enjoy greater use than Vucetich's system? 54) What are seven different human sources of DNA material?1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 2 Legal Aspects of Investigation 1) Which of the following statements is true about substantive criminal law? A) It deals with those elements that describe and define a crime. B) It involves understanding how things need to be done with the people involved in an investigation, be it a victim, a witness, an informant, or a suspect. C) It defines what can and cannot be done with, or to, people. D) It changes much more rapidly than procedural criminal law. 2) Procedural law deals with all of the following except ________. A) process of arrest B) admissibility of evidence C) search and seizure D) elements of a crime 3) In the context of the Bill of Rights, which of the following statements is true about Amendment X? A) It recognizes that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people. B) It recognizes that the enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people. C) It recognizes that excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted. D) It recognizes that no soldier shall, in time of peace be quartered in any house, without the consent of the owner, nor in time of war, but in a manner to be prescribed by law. 4) Identify a true statement about the landmark 1963 case of Brady v. Maryland. A) The Court held that if there was sufficient probable cause to get a warrant, but, because the vehicle was moveable, it might be gone if time were taken to get a warrant, a warrantless search was justified. B) The defendant urged the Supreme Court to declare that the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment incorporated all the guarantees of the first eight amendments to the Bill of Rights. C) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the suppression of any evidence by the prosecution favorable to the accused violates the premise of fundamental fairness through the due process clauses of the Fourth and Fourteenth Amendments of the Constitution. D) The U.S. Supreme Court held that the state court judges were free to determine the reasonableness of searches but that in making those determinations they would now be guided by the same standards as had been followed in the federal courts.2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 5) In which Amendment of the Bill of Rights is the due process clause found? A) The First Amendment B) The Fourth Amendment C) The Fifth Amendment D) The Tenth Amendment 6) Which of the following protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures? A) The First Amendment B) The Fifth Amendment C) The Eighth Amendment D) The Fourth Amendment 7) Identify the 1884 case where the defendant urged the Supreme Court to declare that the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment incorporated all the guarantees of the first eight amendments to the Bill of Rights. A) Sibron v. New York B) Hudson v. Michigan C) Chimel v. California D) Hurtado v. California 8) The ingredients of an arrest include all of the following except ________. A) force B) intention C) authority D) custody 9) ________ is a temporary and limited interference with the freedom of a person for investigative purposes. A) An arrest B) A detention C) An affidavit D) Charging 10) The "stop-question-and-frisk" program was built around the landmark 1968 court cases of ________, in which the Supreme Court granted approval to frisks conducted by officers lacking probable cause for an arrest to search for weapons. A) Wolf v. Colorado, Mapp v. Ohio, and Hudson v. Michigan B) Terry v. Ohio, Sibron v. New York, and Peters v. New York C) Herring v. United States, Weeks v. United States, and Ker v. California D) Chimel v. California, Maryland v. Buie, and Muehler v. Mena 11) A judicial order commanding a person to whom it is issued or some other person to bring a person promptly before a court to answer a criminal charge is: A) an arrest warrant. B) an affidavit. C) a court order. D) All of the answers are correct.3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 12) Which of the following is not usually required to be in the contents of a valid arrest warrant? A) The authority under which the warrant is issued B) The identity of the person to be arrested C) The designation of the offense D) The authority to search the person arrested 13) A written statement of the information known to the officer that serves as the basis for the issuance of a warrant is: A) an arrest warrant. B) an affidavit. C) a court order. D) All of the answers are correct. 14) A "John Doe" warrant is valid: A) if a crime has been committed. B) if there is a particular description of the perpetrator but the person's name is not known. C) in all cases. D) only at the federal level. 15) ________ is defined as suspicion plus facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonable person exercising ordinary caution to believe that a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed. A) In-presence arrest B) Probable cause C) Investigative detention D) The requirements of an arrest warrant 16) Which of the following can be used to establish probable cause? A) Personal knowledge of the investigator B) Suspicion C) Crime rates D) Occupation of the suspect 17) Until 1914, federal law enforcement officers conducting an illegal search that produced incriminating evidence were allowed to use that evidence in court. What happened that changed the use of illegal evidence by federal officers? A) The president of the United States signed an order prohibiting its use. B) J. Edgar Hoover, Director of the FBI, signed an executive order prohibiting the use of illegally obtained evidence. C) Mapp v. Ohio forbids the use of illegally obtained evidence by federal officers. D) Weeks v. United States forbids the use of illegally obtained evidence by federal officers.4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 18) Circumventing the intent of Weeks v. United States whereby federal officers received illegally obtained evidence from state officers and used it in federal court was referred to as: A) the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine. B) the "unreasonable search" doctrine. C) the "Silver Platter" Doctrine. D) None of the answers is correct. 19) Which of the following cases established the rule that any evidence unreasonably searched and seized could no longer be admissible in any court? A) Weeks v. Ohio B) Roe v. Wade C) Mapp v. Ohio D) Gideon v. Wainwright 20) Which of the following is not an exception to the legal requirement of having a warrant to conduct a search and seizure? A) With consent B) Incident to an unlawful arrest C) When exigent circumstances exist D) To conduct an inventory 21) The ________ exception recognizes that a warrantless entry by law enforcement officials may be legal when there is a compelling need for official action and no time to get a warrant. A) emerging situational need B) emergency situational requirement C) exigent circumstances D) emergency exigent circumstances 22) A warrant to search must be based upon ________. A) reasonable suspicion B) probable cause C) preponderance of the evidence D) proof beyond a reasonable doubt 23) In 2005, in ________, the Supreme Court held that officers executing a search warrant of a house seeking weapons and evidence of gang membership in the wake of a drive-by shooting acted reasonably by detaining the occupants of the house in handcuffs during the search, especially since there were only two officers to watch over four people. A) Hudson v. Michigan B) Mapp v. Ohio C) Terry v. Ohio D) Muehler v. Mena5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 24) In ________, the Court created the "moveable vehicle" rule. A) Carroll v. United States B) Chambers v. Maroney C) Maryland v. Dyson D) Chimel v. California 25) Which of the following is not a requirement for a plain view search to be legal? A) Officer is where he has a legal right to be. B) Evidence is in plain view. C) Evidence is inadvertently discovered. D) Evidence is found after a limited search. 26) The landmark Supreme Court ruling that allows stop and frisk procedures is ________. A) Miranda v. Arizona B) Terry v. Ohio C) Mapp v. Ohio D) Escobedo v. Day 27) In Minnesota v. Dickerson, why was the defendant not convicted? A) The officer felt a substance in the suspect's pocket, subsequently determined to be cocaine, during a pat down and manipulated it to determine what it was. B) The defendant pled guilty before trial. C) The judge declared a mistrial. D) The charges were dropped by the prosecutor before trial. 28) Evidence obtained from an unreasonable search and seizure cannot be used as the basis for learning about or collecting new admissible evidence not known about before is the ________. A) "bad evidence" doctrine B) "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine C) "illegal seizure" doctrine D) "unreasonable search" doctrine 29) According to the courts, any new evidence seized resulting from unreasonably seized evidence is also tainted and is not admissible in court. This is based on the ________. A) "bad evidence" doctrine B) "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine C) "illegal seizure" doctrine D) "unreasonable search" doctrine 30) Procedural law deals with processes of arrest, search and seizure, interrogations, confessions, admissibility of evidence, and testifying in court and therefore changes less frequently than does substantive law.6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 31) Final ratification of the Constitution of the United States was delayed because some states wanted guarantees that individual liberties would be safeguarded from potential oppression by the newly formed government. These guarantees came in the form of the first ten amendments to the Constitution known as the Bill of Rights. 32) The Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments were all designed to guarantee the freedoms and equal protection of the laws for all citizens, especially the former slaves. 33) The liberties protected by the specific clauses of the Bill of Rights are exhaustive. 34) The Hurtado v. California case attempted the process of the "shorthand doctrine," but instead ratified the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine. 35) Formally charging a suspect with a crime does not automatically flow from an arrest. 36) The preferred method of effecting an arrest is under the authority of a warrant. 37) The two major benefits derived from securing prior judicial approval for arrests are that the approval relieves the law enforcement officer of the burden of proving the legality of the arrest and it provides for automatic approval of evidence to be used during the trial for the crime the person was arrested for. 38) Blank warrants are constitutionally valid. 39) An offense committed in the presence of an officer can be the basis of an arrest without a warrant. "In the presence of" includes the use of any or all of the five senses—sight, hearing, taste, touch, or smell. 40) The law allows an officer to make warrantless arrests in felony cases provided reasonable grounds or probable cause exists to make the arrest. 41) Probable cause is a difficult term to define because in no two instances are circumstances identical. 42) A search warrant is a written order, in the name of the judge, signed by a district attorney, exercising proper authority, and directing a law enforcement officer to search for specific property and bring it before the court. 43) A vehicle search is not reasonable if conducted pursuant to stopping a vehicle for a traffic violation and writing a citation. 44) Among the many unanswered questions created by the Mapp v. Ohio decision, the crucial question revolved around the definition of the word "________." 45) A(n) ________ is a written order, in the name of the state, signed by a judicial officer, exercising proper authority, and directing a law enforcement officer to search for certain specific property and bring it before the court.7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 46) A(n) ________ must particularly describe the place to be searched. Although the Constitution does not define "particularly," the description must be sufficient to distinguish the place from all others. 47) If the affidavit and search warrant are for the search and seizure of ________, the search can be pretty extensive. It is permissible to search closets, under beds, in dresser drawers, in medicine cabinets, and in kitchen cupboards. 48) In ________, the Supreme Court ruled that violation of the knock and announce requirement for the service of a search warrant will no longer result in the suppression of evidence found during the execution of the search warrant. 49) In 1969, the United States Supreme Court limited the scope of a search when it ruled in ________ that a warrantless search of the defendant's entire house, following his lawful arrest in the house on a burglary charge, was unreasonable. 50) The Supreme Court ruled in the 1981 case of ________ that when a police officer makes a lawful custodial arrest of the occupant of an automobile, the officer may search the vehicle's passenger compartment as a contemporaneous incident of arrest. It does not include the trunk. 51) In ________, the Supreme Court held that law enforcement officers may enter a home without a warrant when there is an objectively reasonable basis to believe that an occupant is seriously injured or imminently threatened with serious injury. 52) A(n) ________ search is done for the purpose of protecting the property of the person arrested and documenting what was found with a receipt given to the person arrested. In this manner, law enforcement can prevent accusations of stealing an offender's money or property. 53) Terry v. Ohio allows for the ________ of the outer clothing of a suspect for a weapon if the officer is concerned about his own safety. 54) The Supreme Court in 2004 upheld a conviction under a Nevada statute that requires a person to identify himself when so requested during a(n) ________ stop. Twenty states have this identification requirement. 55) The ________ doctrine provides that evidence obtained from an unreasonable search and seizure cannot be used as the basis for learning about or collecting new admissible evidence not known about before. 56) Explain how the laws of arrest and search and seizure flow from the Bill of Rights. 57) Distinguish between the impacts of the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments on defendants in criminal cases. 58) What are the benefits to a police officer and the case if an arrest is made under the authority of a warrant?8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 59) List the requirements of a valid arrest warrant. 60) Is a "John Doe" arrest warrant valid under any circumstances? Explain. 61) Define and describe "probable cause." 62) What is the Exclusionary Rule, and how did it evolve? 63) Describe the "Silver Platter" Doctrine. Is it still followed? Why or why not? 64) What limitations have judicial cases placed on the search of a motor vehicle incident to a lawful arrest? 65) What is meant by a plain view seizure, and what are the requirements for conducting such a seizure by a law enforcement officer? 66) Explain the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine.1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 3 Investigators, the Investigative Process, and the Crime Scene 1) A felony is an act usually punishable by imprisonment for: A) one or more years and/or a $500 fine. B) six months and/or a $1,000 fine. C) a term of one or more years, or death. D) six months and/or a $500 fine. 2) A misdemeanor is a lesser offense that may be punishable by: A) a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500. B) imprisonment for no more than a year. C) more than one year in prison. D) a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500 and/or imprisonment for no more than a year. 3) After interviewing the victim of a crime and two witnesses and examining the crime scene and the physical evidence, you use all of this information as a basis for developing a unifying and internally consistent explanation of the event. You have ________. A) used inductive reasoning B) committed Locard's Fallacy C) used deductive reasoning D) proceeded in an unobjective manner 4) Identify a true statement about successful investigators. A) They know that investigation is a systematic method of inquiry that is more science than art. B) They refrain from self-monitoring and rely on inductive and deductive reasoning because these methods are difficult to be distorted. C) They realize that successful investigations are always produced by rote application of the appropriate steps. D) They sometimes use illegal and unethical methods that are used to solve a case. 5) The actions taken by the first officer to arrive at the scene of a crime after its detection and reporting are collectively termed the "________." A) essential part of police work B) follow-up investigation C) cold search D) preliminary investigation 6) A(n) ________ is the police effort expended after the initial incident report is completed until the case is ready for prosecution. A) advanced investigation B) cold investigation C) collateral investigation D) follow-up investigation2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 7) If there is a chance the victim may die, the investigator should always get ________. A) the name of the suspect B) a dying declaration C) the address of the victim D) victim's next of kin 8) Which of the following is a step involved in a preliminary investigation? A) Reviewing the offense/incident report B) Securing the crime scene and evidence C) Re-interviewing the witnesses D) All of the answers are correct. 9) Which of the following terms is defined as a systematic approach to interviewing residents, merchants, and others who were in the immediate vicinity of a crime and may have useful information? A) Cross-examination B) Neighborhood canvass C) Redirect examination D) Vehicle canvass 10) Identify the three major functions to be executed at the scene of a crime. A) Overall coordination, forensic services, investigative services B) Arrest, search, seizure C) Coordination, arrest, interrogation D) Observation, supervision, technical assistance 11) Which type of evidence serves to substantiate the distinct set of elements whose commission or omission must be demonstrated to have occurred in order to prove a criminal offense? A) Crime scene documentation B) Associative evidence C) The rule of detail D) Corpus delicti evidence 12) ________ is bidirectional in that it connects the perpetrator to the scene or victim, or connects the scene or victim to the suspect. A) Corpus delecti evidence B) Associative evidence C) Tracing evidence D) May be any of the preceding depending on the facts of the case 13) Which of the following types of trace evidence may react (fluoresce) from an alternate light system? A) Fingerprints and bodily fluids B) Hairs, fibers, and drugs C) Bite marks, bruises, and human bone fragments D) All of the answers are correct.3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 14) The rule of ________ requires that standard samples and elimination prints always be obtained when appropriate. A) caution B) conceptualization C) acceptance D) inclusiveness 15) Which of the following statements defines an administrative log? A) It is a written record of lifted-prints evidence that contains the same type of information as that listed in the evidence recovery log. B) It is a chronological record of each item of evidence, listing who collected it, where and when it was collected, who witnessed the collection, and whether it was documented by photos or diagrams. C) It is a written record of the actions taken by the crime scene coordinator, including assignments and release of the scene. D) It is a written chronological record of all persons who enter and leave the crime scene and the times they do so, along with their reason for entering. 16) How does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a blood-borne pathogen, spread? A) Through casual contact B) Through sweat, tears, saliva or urine C) Through toilet seats, telephones, swimming pools, or drinking fountains D) None of the answers is correct. 17) Which of the following crime scene search patterns is usually employed in outdoor scenes and is normally executed by a single person? A) Spiral B) Strip/line C) Grid D) Zone/quadrant 18) Identify the three basic methods of documenting a crime scene. A) Audio recording, video recording, and sketching B) Audio recording, video recording, and photography C) Digital video recording, digital still photography, and audio recording D) Videography, digital still photography, and sketching and mapping 19) A ________ is a basic diagram of the scene showing important points, such as the locations where various pieces of physical evidence were located. A) forensic map B) strip search C) coordinate D) crime scene sketch4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 20) Which of the following is not one of the four types of sketches listed in the textbook? A) Birds-eye sketch B) Elevation sketch C) Forensic mapping sketch D) Cross projection sketch 21) Which search pattern has the searchers doubling back perpendicularly across the area being examined? A) Spiral B) Strip/line C) Grid D) Zone/quadrant 22) In the context of the common methods of forensic mapping, which of the following is the best method to use with scenes having clear and specific boundaries, such as interior walls? A) Triangulation B) Baseline coordinates C) Grid system D) Rectangular coordinates 23) The advantage of using the ________ method is that when there are multiple points of interest in several different walls, they can be displayed simultaneously in one sketch, as opposed to having to make and refer to multiple elevation sketches. A) elevation view B) triangulation C) cross-projection D) perspective sketch 24) In the context of the common methods of forensic mapping, which of the following was used by archaeologists for many years to record where artifacts and other notable discoveries were made? A) Grid system B) Triangulation C) Baseline coordinates D) Rectangular coordinates 25) Which of the following would constitute a basis for assigning a "cleared by exceptional means" classification to a case? A) The suspect is known to the police, but they can't find him/her to serve a warrant. B) The suspect is in custody, but invokes his/her rights under the Miranda ruling after being formally charged. C) The suspect attends the local college as an exchange student. D) The suspect is known to the police, but the victim refuses to cooperate with the prosecution.5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 26) Misdemeanors are lesser offenses that may be punishable by a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500, and/or imprisonment for no more than one year. 27) At a crime scene, if there are no satisfactory options in causing or allowing the contamination or destruction of evidence, saving the victim's life has a higher value than preserving physical evidence. 28) In defining a crime scene, officers must make sure that they also identify possible or actual lines of approach to, and flight from, the scene and protect them also. 29) The chain of custody is the witnessed, unbroken, written chronological history of who had the evidence when. 30) The investigator assigned to a call must prepare an incident/offense report so the district attorney will have all the facts of the case. 31) The primary crime scene is the location where the initial offense was committed, whereas the locations of all subsequent connected events are secondary scenes. 32) Forensic services is the responsibility of the senior representative of the department's central crime laboratory or a crime scene processing unit. 33) Crime scene coordination includes interviewing witnesses, conducting and documenting the neighborhood canvass, and a field interrogation of the suspect if he/she is in custody. 34) The identification and location of the suspect are the goals of tracing evidence; corpus delicti and associative evidence may also serve these purposes. 35) Human behavior is rich in its variety; in reconstructing a crime, investigators must be alert to the danger of imparting their own probable motives or actions to the perpetrator unless there are solid grounds for doing so. 36) Elimination prints are useful in determining whether a latent fingerprint found at a crime scene belongs to the suspect. 37) Blood-splattered wall and bullet holes in windows are examples of a cross-projection sketch. 38) A perspective sketch is the easiest to make because it requires drawing an object of interest in only one dimension. 39) Often ________ is located using alternative light systems (ALSs). 40) Portable ________ are quite useful in locating very small items of evidence. These units are particularly effective in gathering hairs, fibers, and certain types of drug evidence.6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 41) ________ is defined as a written chronological record of all persons who enter and leave the crime scene and the times they do so, along with their reason for entering. 42) A list of each item of evidence; the names of the collector and witnesses; and the location, date, and time of the collection are contained in the ________ log and in the lifted prints log. 43) The ________ is a blood-borne pathogen that is also present in many other body fluids and most commonly spread through vaginal and anal intercourse. 44) ________ is a chronic bacterial infection that is spread by air and is accountable for more deaths worldwide than any other infectious disease. 45) The ________ search entails dividing an area into a number of pie-shaped sections that are then searched, usually though a variation of the strip method. 46) Using ________ to document a crime scene offers several advantages: cameras are relatively inexpensive, they incorporate audio, their use can be quickly learned, and the motion holds the attention of viewers. 47) A basic diagram of the scene showing important points, such as the locations where various pieces of physical evidence were located is the ________. 48) ________ is the process of taking and recording the precise measurements of items of evidence to be drawn or "fixed" on a sketch. 49) ________ are the sketches that are made in the field and/or at the crime scene. 50) The textbook refers to five major forensic mapping methods. These include: rectangular coordinates, triangulation, ________, polar coordinates, and the grid system. 51) Define felony, misdemeanor, and violation. 52) Contrast inductive and deductive reasoning. 53) What are the preliminary and follow-up investigations? 54) Define primary and secondary scenes. 55) What are macroscopic and microscopic scenes? 56) Identify and explain the three major crime scene functions. 57) State and explain the three broad categories of evidence in which investigators have a particular interest. 58) What are the rules for crime scene investigators and what do they mean?7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 59) There are many measures police officers can take to protect themselves at scenes from health risks from blood-borne pathogens, such as HIV/AIDS. Identify a minimum of twelve.1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 4 Physical Evidence 1) Which of the following characteristics can be identified as originating from a particular person or source? A) Class B) Primary C) Latent D) Individual 2) Which of the following is a salient feature of forensic palynology? A) It is labor intensive. B) It requires little expertise and experience. C) It is a weak investigative tool. D) It is extremely overutilized. 3) Which of the following guidelines is used in handling soil evidence? A) Gather soil as quickly as sound action permits. B) Collect soil samples where there are noticeable changes in composition, color, and texture. C) Collect soil samples from a depth that is consistent with the depth at which the questioned soil may have originated. D) All of the answers are correct. 4) In the context of categories of impression evidence, which of the following is a salient feature of surface impressions? A) They are likely to be found impressed into soil. B) They lack any appreciable height. C) They lack length and width. D) They are three-dimensional. 5) A fracture match occurs when: A) it is established that two or more pieces were formerly co-joined. B) multiple items are compared to each other. C) multiple items share the same chemical consistency. D) None of the answers is correct. 6) The direction of a shot through a glass window can be determined by ________. A) concentric cracks B) radial cracks C) a cone-shaped area on the opposite side from impact D) All of the answers are correct.2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 7) In which of the following types of crimes is a rope, cord, string, and tape more likely to be found? A) Car theft B) Extortion C) Sexual assault D) None of the answers is correct. 8) Which of the following have friction ridges that are commonly referred to as "fingerprints"? A) Soles of the feet B) Toes C) Fingers D) All of the answers are correct. 9) Which of the following is a major fingerprint pattern? A) Double central B) Looped arch C) Depressed loop D) Plain whorl 10) ________ has been defined as the intersection of dentistry and criminal laws. A) Forensic podiatry B) Forensic optometry C) Forensic odontology D) Forensic limnology 11) Many victims are bitten during an attack. What is the primary significance of a bite mark to the investigator? A) Can provide the M.O. of the perpetrator B) Can provide sites for DNA collection of saliva from the suspect, which can lead to the identification of the suspect C) Can aid in deciding what charges to apply when the suspect is arrested D) Can aid in determining whether or not the suspect should be charged as a sexual criminal 12) Which is used as a presumptive or preliminary field test for blood? A) Hemident B) Limpit C) Dolcet D) Nodocen 13) In the context of locating blood evidence, which of the following is a salient feature of Hexagon OBTI? A) It is a water-based spray that creates a blue glow after the lights are turned out. B) It produces a glow that is short lasting. C) It reacts to copper, some alloys, and certain bleaches. D) It distinguishes between animal and human blood in two to three minutes.3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 14) Which of the following should be used to collect fresh blood evidence at a crime scene? A) Clean cotton cloth B) Paper C) Tape D) All of the answers are correct. 15) Under ordinary conditions, laboratory examination of blood evidence can determine all of the following except ________. A) the sex of the person B) the blood type of the person and his or her DNA profile C) the race of the person D) whether the person was a smoker 16) In the context of laboratory determinations of firearm evidence, the term "________" refers to the low side of a gun barrel's interior. A) groove B) caliber C) bore D) land 17) Which of the following statements is true about the laboratory examination of a firearm? A) Bore is the correct term to apply to the radius of the interior of a weapon's barrel. B) In a rifled bore, the bore is measured from one groove to an opposing groove. C) With a rifled bore, the projectile usually rotates in a left-hand direction. D) It is possible to fire a smaller-caliber bullet through a larger-bore weapon. 18) Which of the following is not a determination that can be made from a cartridge case? A) Marks made on the cartridge case as it is loaded into the chamber for firing B) A pin impression made on the base of the cartridge case, which is caused by the firing of the weapon C) Striations made when expanding gases force the cartridge case against the chamber wall and marks left by the same gases when they force the cartridge case back against the breach D) Bullet residue from the fired bullet that is "shaved" off as it exits the gun barrel 19) Any impression, cut, gouge, or abrasion made when a tool comes into contact with another object, for forensic purposes, is ________. A) a tool mark B) an element of burglary C) the modus operandi of the suspect D) possibly any of the preceding depending on the circumstances of the case 20) In which of the following types of crimes is tool marks most commonly found? A) Burglary B) Robbery C) Assault D) None of the answers is correct.4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 21) Loosely defined, a document is anything ________. A) to which a notary seal has been affixed B) with legal meaning C) on which a mark has been made for the purpose of conveying a message D) officially used 22) Which of the following types of crime is more likely to have disputed or questioned documents? A) Assault B) White-collar crimes C) Burglary D) Car theft 23) Laboratory examination may be able to determine which of the following for questioned documents? A) Establish the source of the paper through watermarks B) Determine if the document is authentic or fake C) Determine the age of the document D) All of the answers are correct. 24) What evidentiary information is obtained when the ink used to write a message involved in a crime is compared with the ink recovered from a suspect? A) It identifies the suspect. B) It identifies the pen used in writing the note. C) It determines whether or not the inks have consistent characteristics. D) None of the answers is correct. 25) Characteristics of physical evidence that are common to a group of objects or persons are termed individual characteristics, whereas class characteristics can be identified, with a high degree of probability, as originating with a particular person or source. 26) Collect soil samples from a depth that is consistent with the depth at which the questioned soil may have originated. 27) The Shoeprint Image Capture and Retrieval (SICAR) is a software package that classifies, archives, identifies, and names the shoe store that sold the shoes. 28) Three-dimensional impressions (3DI) are often called "prints" or "residual prints." 29) Usually, paint is class-characteristic evidence, although in some cases it reaches the level of individual evidence. 30) It is possible to determine the direction from which a bullet penetrated glass: on the same side of the surface of initial impact, there will be a characteristic cone-shaped area. The larger area of the cone shape indicates the area from which the bullet was fired.5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 31) Cord and rope have essentially the same characteristics as string, and all have some characteristics of fibers. 32) Latent prints are created when the small amounts of body perspiration and oil that are normally found on the ridges are deposited on surfaces that are touched. 33) Patent prints become latent prints when the fingerprint is not formed by residue, but by the body's natural oils and sweat on the skin that are deposited onto another surface. 34) ________ is the discipline that studies pollen and spores. 35) ________ is the identification of individuals based on the pattern of wrinkles on their lips, which has individual characteristics. 36) Blood stains, known as ________, may take many forms at a crime scene and are produced by such factors as the type, location, and number of wounds inflicted. 37) When analyzing blood evidence, the more elliptical the stain, the more ________ the angle of impact. 38) The ________ is the diameter of a bullet, whereas the bore is the diameter of a barrel's interior between its opposing high sides, or lands. 39) For forensic purposes, a(n) ________ is any impression, cut, gouge, or abrasion made when a tool comes into contact with another object. 40) A(n) ________ document is one whose origin or authenticity is in doubt. 41) What are class and individual characteristics? 42) How are unknown or questioned samples and known samples alike or different? 43) Discuss the importance of geoforensics. Explain how it aids in determining whether a suspect was at a crime scene or not. 44) Identify and discuss the three broad categories of latent fingerprints. 45) What is forensic odontology? How does it contribute toward criminal investigations? 46) It may be possible to reconstruct a crime based on the analysis of bloodstains. Identify six determinations that may be made from this type of analysis.1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 5 Interviewing and Interrogation 1) Which of the following is not one of the four commonly recognized objectives in the interrogation process? A) To obtain valuable facts B) To identify the innocent C) To eliminate the innocent D) To obtain a confession 2) Once witnesses have been identified, they should be separated from one another and, as much as possible, isolated from other people who may be nearby. Why? A) To prevent witnesses from seeing or hearing irrelevant matters that may taint their actual knowledge B) To prevent witnesses from leaving the area before they have been released by the police investigator C) To prevent outsiders from hearing what witnesses tell the police D) All of the answers are correct. 3) As a rule, cold, sleepy, hungry, or physically uncomfortable, or intoxicated people prove to be: A) highly satisfactory witnesses because of the pressure an interviewer is able to put them under. B) somewhat satisfactory witnesses. C) unsatisfactory witnesses. D) impossible to interview. 4) Which of the following is a good characteristic of a traditional interrogation room? A) The room should be sparsely furnished. B) A working telephone should be included. C) A large, physically imposing room should be used. D) A two-way mirror should be included. 5) When conducting an interrogation, the interrogator should: A) ensure that few or no objects are present between them and the suspect. B) talk loudly and rudely to the suspect. C) ask leading questions to get the suspect to confess. D) All of the answers are correct. 6) Which of the following is one of the best practices to be followed when interviewing individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing? A) Refraining from conversing in a well-lit area B) Refraining from using gestures such as a tap on the shoulder to gain attention before speaking C) Facing the person and not turning away while speaking to him or her D) Assuming that a person can hear you well if he or she is wearing a hearing aid2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 7) The term ________ refers to a witness's personal qualifications for testifying in court. A) credibility B) trustworthiness C) competency D) intelligence 8) Identify a true statement about the competency of a witness. A) It is closely related to the believability of a witness's information. B) It is not determined by the relationship of a witness to individuals involved in the case. C) It is not determined by the age of a witness. D) It must be established before a witness is permitted to give any testimony. 9) Which of the following factors influences a person's ability to give a complete account of an event or to identify people accurately? A) The significance or insignificance of the event B) The length of the period of observation C) Lack of ideal conditions D) All of the answers are correct. 10) Which of the following is the best form of documenting an interview? A) Reliance on the investigator's memory B) Reliance on notes taken by the investigator C) A handwritten and signed statement prepared by the witness D) Electronic sound recording or sound-and-visual recording 11) Prior to 1936, the test for the validity and admissibility of a confession or admission was its: A) compliance with the Miranda requirements. B) voluntariness. C) compliance with the Escobedo case. D) compliance with the fruits of the poisonous tree doctrine. 12) The first notable incidence of U.S. Supreme Court intervention into interrogation practices came about in Brown v. Mississippi, in 1936. The decision of the Supreme Court in this case was that: A) the right of a defendant to have an attorney present during interrogation must be upheld. B) a confession received as a result of physical brutality and violence by the police was not admissible in court. C) the right of the defendant to be brought before a committing magistrate within 72 hours must be respected. D) the right of the defendant to remain silent must be upheld. 13) Which of the following constitutional guarantees is addressed in the Escobedo and Miranda cases? A) Right to counsel and self-incrimination B) Right-to-confrontation and cross-examination C) Double jeopardy and trial by jury D) Fair trial and free press3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 14) Which of the following is a right contained in the Miranda decision? A) The right to remain silent B) The right to be told that anything the suspect says can and will be used against him or her in court C) The right to consult with an attorney prior to answering any questions and to have an attorney present during interrogation D) All of the answers are correct. 15) What are the possible responses when a suspect is asked if they wish to talk to the police? A) To remain silent B) To request for an attorney C) To waive their rights against self-incrimination D) All of the answers are correct. 16) In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court emphatically state that once a suspect has invoked the right to remain silent, interrogation must terminate? A) Michigan v. Mosley B) United States v. Lee C) Manson v. Braithwaite D) Miranda v. Arizona 17) It is important for an investigator to create a(n) ________ for the witnesses and suspects that they are questioning. A) intimidating environment B) comfort zone C) stressful situation D) None of the answers is correct. 18) Which of the following is a specific behavior that interrogators must consider when detecting deception? A) Using highly animated hand gestures B) Swearing to the truthfulness of statements C) Using a derogatory position D) Exhibiting more steepling of the fingers 19) The polygraph measures: A) cardiovascular changes, respiratory changes, and changes in skin resistance. B) cardiovascular changes, respiratory changes, and aerobic changes. C) respiratory changes, changes in skin resistance, and aerobic changes. D) rapid changes in eye movement.4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 20) The primary purpose of a polygraph examination according to the textbook is to: A) determine if victims, suspects, and informants are being truthful or untruthful about what they say. B) elicit a confession from a suspect. C) eliminate the innocent from consideration during a criminal investigation. D) corroborate the suspect's alibi. 21) The three most common findings by a polygraph examiner are: A) lying, truthful, and unsure. B) deceptive, truthful, and unsure. C) deception indicated, no deception indicated, and inconclusive. D) deception indicated, truth indicated, and inconclusive. 22) What device notes microvariations in the audible and nonaudible portions of speech? A) A polygraph B) A kinesiological brain-wave analyzer C) A Computer Voice Stress Analysis (CVSA) D) A Neuron Voice Sensor Detector 23) In interviewing, establishing rapport with the person to be questioned is important, but its importance wanes when interrogating a suspect. 24) Eyewitness testimony is heavily used in criminal proceedings but research has found it to be very unreliable. 25) Eyewitness identifications take place in a social context in which a witness's own personality and characteristics, along with those of the target observed, are as critical as factors relating to the situation or environment in which the action takes place. 26) Interrogation by an investigator must stop after a suspect requests counsel. 27) A suspect who has waived his or her rights is not free to withdraw that waiver at any time. Answer: 28) In Duckworth v. Eagen (1989), the Supreme Court held that it was not necessary that Miranda warnings be given in the exact form described in the Miranda decision. 29) Custody occurs when a person is deprived of his or her freedom in any significant way or is not free to leave the presence of law enforcement. 30) The Supreme Court ruled in Berkemer v. McCarty that Miranda requirements apply to the interrogation of an arrested person regardless of whether the offense is a felony or a misdemeanor. 31) Interrogation includes any express questioning or any verbal or nonverbal behavior by a law enforcement officer that is designed to elicit an incriminating statement or response from the suspect of a crime.5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 32) Miranda warnings must always precede routine booking questions that are asked in order to obtain personal-history data necessary to complete the booking process. 33) Research on the accuracy of the polygraph varies, roughly from 64% (laboratory studies) to 98% ("real world" use). 34) A(n) ________ is designed to match acquired information to a particular suspect in order to secure a confession. 35) The reluctance of victims to report incidents to the police or to assist in the prosecution of offenders may be the result of ________, or the belief that the criminals might retaliate against them for cooperating with police. 36) Two primary concerns are raised by ________ during an interview: it may occasionally be distracting or suspicious to a witness; and witnesses may be reluctant to give information knowing that it is being documented. 37) ________ laws allow the police to record without informing the suspects. 38) ________ are those in which innocent but vulnerable suspects confess and come to believe they committed the crime in question. 39) In order for a confession to be acceptable in court, it must be ________ and voluntarily given. 40) The McNabb-Mallory cases set forth the ________ rule that is only applicable in federal prosecutions. 41) In the context of specific behaviors to consider while detecting deception, when people place their outstretched arms in front of their bodies, with palms up, this is known as the ________ position. 42) Discuss the similarities and differences between interviews and interrogations. 43) What are the qualifications required of an effective interviewer or interrogator? 44) How does an investigator prepare for an interview or an interrogation? 45) What factors motivate witnesses to give or withhold information? 46) Identify some of the best practices to be followed while interviewing individuals with mobility impairments and cognitive disabilities. 47) What criteria will affect the competency of a witness?6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 48) Despite the amount of reliance placed on information supplied by eyewitnesses, what are the facts as it relates to their reliability? Why? 49) Define competency and how it could impact a witness's testimony. 50) What are the response strategies for addressing witness intimidation? 51) Discuss why people confess to crimes. 52) What requirements are imposed on law enforcement by Miranda v. Arizona? 53) What is the evidentiary test for admissibility of confessions and admissions?1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 6 Field Notes and Reporting 1) Which statement about body-worn cameras (BWCs) is most accurate? A) Releasing BWC recordings to the news media or public creates the risk that they could be misinterpreted. B) A study of mock juries showed that regardless of their prior opinion about a case, showing a BWC recording of the crimes involved converted a majority of jurors who initially doubted a person's guilt to guilty votes. C) Despite the use of BWCs by officers, frivolous complaints against them did not reduce. D) None of the answers are correct. 2) Which statement is true? A) The senior officer responding to a crime writes the incident report. All other officers who respond write supplemental reports. B) There is no advantage to recording field notes with pencil and pen versus audio recorders, body-worn cameras, or tablets. C) Hearsay statements made by witnesses can be included in field notes or the incident report. D) None of the answers are correct. 3) A small study of police officers' field notes from witness interviews showed that they failed to include ________% of crime-relevant information in their reports. A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 4) A 2015 national study showed that ________% of large cities and counties had fully implemented body-worn camera (BWC) programs. A) 6 B) 13 C) 19 D) 23 5) The use of public online reporting systems did not become widespread: A) until federal grants to fund them became available. B) until citizen advocacy groups began demanding them. C) during and after the Great Recession. D) none of the answers are correct. 6) In State v. Samander V. Dabas, the New Jersey Supreme Court ruled that: A) officers should add short narrations about what is happening when recording with body-worn cameras (BWCs). B) field notes cannot be destroyed and are subject to discovery by attorneys. C) officers should be able to view their own body-worn camera (BWC) recordings when writing reports. D) none of the answers are correct.2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education. 7) A police car with a computer on which to write an incident is a major asset. What percentage of officers have vehicles with such computers? A) 93 B) 86 C) 78 D) 67 8) According to law enforcement agencies using eCitations, the shift