100% satisfaction guarantee Immediately available after payment Both online and in PDF No strings attached 4.6 TrustPilot
logo-home
Exam (elaborations)

HESI EXIT EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS, LATEST UPDATES. RATIONALE. RATED A lOMoAR cPSD|4990434 Checking the client's blood pressure 265 Morsels of Exit HESI Goodness 1.ID:

Rating
-
Sold
1
Pages
187
Grade
A+
Uploaded on
06-06-2023
Written in
2022/2023

HESI EXIT EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS, LATEST UPDATES. RATIONALE. RATED A lOMoAR cPSD| Checking the client's blood pressure 265 Morsels of Exit HESI Goodness 1.ID: 5 Enalapril maleate is prescribed for a hospitalized client. Which assessment does the nurse perform as a priority before administering the medication? A. Correct B. Checking the client's peripheral pulses C. Checking the most recent potassium level D. Checking the client's intake-and-output record for the last 24 hours Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2.ID: 5 A client is scheduled to undergo an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series, and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the test. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. "The test will take about 30 minutes." B. "I need to fast for 8 hours before the test." Incorrect C. "I need to drink citrate of magnesia the night before the test and give myself a Fleet enema on the morning of the test." Correct D. "I need to take a laxative after the test is completed, because the liquid that I’ll have to drink for the test can be constipating." Rationale: An upper GI series involves visualization of the esophagus, duodenum, and upper jejunum by means of the use of a contrast medium. It involves swallowing a contrast medium (usually barium), which is administered in a flavored milkshake. Films are taken at intervals during the test, which takes about 30 minutes. No special preparation is necessary before a GI series, except that NPO status must be maintained for 8 hours before the test. After an upper GI Rationale: Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. One common side effect is postural hypotension. Therefore the nurse would check the client’s blood pressure immediately before administering each dose. Checking the client’s peripheral pulses, the results of the most recent potassium level, and the intake and output for the previous 24 hours are not specifically associated with this mediation. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the name of the medication and recall that medications that end in the letters “pril” are ACE inhibitors and that these medications are used to treat hypertension. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the action of enalapril maleate if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Lehne, R. (2013). Pharmacology for nursing care (8 th ed., p. 513). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Analyzing Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Assessment Content Area: Pharmacology Giddens Concepts: Care Coordination, Safety HESI Concepts:Collaboration/Managing Care, Safety lOMoAR cPSD| Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3.ID: 7 A nurse on the evening shift checks a health care provider's prescriptions and notes that the dose of a prescribed medication is higher than the normal dose. The nurse calls the health care provider's answering service and is told that the health care provider is off for the night and will be available in the morning. The nurse should: A. Call the nursing supervisor B. Ask the answering service to contact the on-call health care provider Correct C. Withhold the medication until the health care provider can be reached in the morning D. Administer the medication but consult the health care provider when he becomes available series, the client is prescribed a laxative to hasten elimination of the barium. Barium that remains in the colon may become hard and difficult to expel, leading to fecal impaction. Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the strategic words "need for further instruction." These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Focusing on the word "upper" in the name of the test will direct you to the correct option. Review preprocedure care for an upper GI series if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medicalsurgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9 th ed., p. 879). St. Louis: Mosby. Cognitive Ability: Evaluating Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal Giddens Concepts: Client Education, Clinical Judgment HESI Concepts:Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Teaching and Learning/Patient Education Rationale: The nurse has a duty to protect the client from harm. A nurse who believes that a health care provider’s prescription may be in error is responsible for clarifying the prescription before carrying it out. Therefore the nurse would not administer the medication; instead, the nurse would withhold the medication until the dose can be clarified. The nurse would not wait until the next morning to obtain clarification. It is premature to call the nursing supervisor. Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the legal responsibilities of the nurse in regard to medication administration and health care provider’s prescriptions. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they avoid clarification of the prescription (administering the medication and holding the medication). To select from the remaining options, note that it is premature to call the nursing supervisor. Also note that the correct option is the only one that clarifies the prescription. Review legal responsibilities in regard to medication prescriptions if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8 th ed., p.585). St. Louis: Mosby. Cognitive Ability: Applying lOMoAR cPSD| Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4.ID: 5 An emergency department (ED) nurse is monitoring a client with suspected acute myocardial infarction (MI) who is awaiting transfer to the coronary intensive care unit. The nurse notes the sudden onset of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the monitor, checks the client's carotid pulse, and determines that the PVCs are not resulting in perfusion. The appropriate action by the nurse is: A. Documenting the findings B. Asking the ED health care provider to check the client Correct C. Continuing to monitor the client's cardiac status D. Informing the client that PVCs are expected after an MI Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5.ID: 7 NPO status is imposed 8 hours before the procedure on a client scheduled to undergo electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) at 1 p.m. On the morning of the Rationale: PVCs are a result of increased irritability of ventricular cells. Peripheral pulses may be absent or diminished with the PVCs themselves because the decreased stroke volume of the premature beats may in turn decrease peripheral perfusion. Because other rhythms also cause widened QRS complexes, it is essential that the nurse determine whether the premature beats are resulting in perfusion of the extremities. This is done by palpating the carotid, brachial, or femoral artery while observing the monitor for widened complexes or by auscultating for apical heart sounds. In the situation of acute MI, PVCs may be considered warning dysrhythmias, possibly heralding the onset of ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Therefore the nurse would not tell the client that the PVCs are expected. Although the nurse will continue to monitor the client and document the findings, these are not the most appropriate actions of those provided. The most appropriate action would be to ask the ED health care provider to check the client. Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the significance of PVCs after acute MI and noting the strategic words "not perfusing" will direct you to the correct option. Review the significance of PVCs after acute MI if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medicalsurgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9 th ed., p. 799). St. Louis: Mosby. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Critical Care Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Perfusion HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Perfusion Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Leadership and Management Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Leadership HESI Concepts:Collaboration/Managing Care, Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment lOMoAR cPSD| Rationale: General anesthesia is required for ECT, so NPO status is imposed for 6 to 8 hours before treatment to help prevent aspiration. Exceptions include clients who routinely receive cardiac medications, antihypertensive agents, or histamine (H2) blockers, which should be administered several hours before treatment with a small sip of water. Withholding the antihypertensive and administering it at bedtime and withholding the antihypertensive and resuming administration on the day after the ECT are incorrect actions, because antihypertensives must be administered on time; otherwise, the risk for rebound hypertension exists. The nurse would not administer a medication by way of a route that has not been prescribed. Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Use your knowledge of the principles of medication administration to help eliminate the option that involves administering the medication by way of a route other than the prescribed one. Recalling that antihypertensives must be administered on a regular schedule will assist you in eliminating the options that involve withholding the medication. Review preprocedure care for the client scheduled for ECT if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Stuart, G. (2013). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (10 th ed.,p. 597). St. Louis: Mosby. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Mental Health Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Safety HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Safety procedure, the nurse checks the client's record and notes that the client routinely takes an oral antihypertensive medication each morning. The nurse should: A. Administer the antihypertensive with a small sip of water Correct B. Withhold the antihypertensive and administer it at bedtime C. Administer the medication by way of the intravenous (IV) route Incorrect D. Hold the antihypertensive and resume its administration on the day after the ECT Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6.ID: 4 A client who recently underwent coronary artery bypass graft surgery comes to the health care provider's office for a follow-up visit. On assessment, the client tells the nurse that he is feeling depressed. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic? A. "Tell me more about what you’re feeling." Correct B. "That’s a normal response after this type of surgery." C. "It will take time, but, I promise you, you will get over this depression." D. "Every client who has this surgery feels the same way for about a month." lOMoAR cPSD| Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7.ID: 4 A client in labor experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. The nurse immediately counts the fetal heart rate (FHR) for 1 full minute and then checks the amniotic fluid. The nurse notes that the fluid is yellow and has a strong odor. Which action should be the nurse’s priority? A. Contacting the health care provider Correct B. Documenting the findings C. Checking the fluid for protein D. Continuing to monitor the client and the FHR Rationale: The FHR is assessed for at least 1 minute when the membranes rupture. The nurse also checks the quantity, color, and odor of the amniotic fluid. The fluid should be clear (often with bits of vernix) and have a mild odor. Fluid with a foul or strong odor, cloudy appearance, or yellow coloration suggests chorioamnionitis and warrants notifying the health care provider. A large amount of vernix in the fluid suggests that the fetus is preterm. Greenish, meconiumstained fluid may be seen in cases of postterm gestation or placental insufficiency. Checking the fluid for protein is not associated with the data in the question. Although the nurse would continue to monitor the client and the FHR and would document the findings, contacting the health care provider is the priority. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note the strategic word "priority." Noting the words "yellow and has a strong odor" will direct you to the correct option. Review the expected findings after rupture of the membranes if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4 th ed., p.645). St. Louis: Elsevier. Cognitive Ability: Applying Rationale: When a client expresses feelings of depression, it is extremely important for the nurse to further explore these feelings with the client. In stating, "This is a normal response after this type of surgery" the nurse provides false reassurance and avoids addressing the client’s feelings. "It will take time, but, I promise you, you will get over the depression" is also a false reassurance, and it does not encourage the expression of feelings. "Every client who has this surgery feels the same way for about a month" is a generalization that avoids the client’s feelings. Test-Taking Strategy: Use your knowledge of therapeutic communication techniques. Eliminate the options that are nontherapeutic and do not encourage the client to express feelings. Remember to always focus on the client’s feelings. Review therapeutic communication techniques if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7 th ed., p.841). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation Content Area: Adult Health/Cardiovascular Giddens Concepts: Communication, Mood and Affect HESI Concepts: Communication, Mood and Affect lOMoAR cPSD| Rationale: One major complication associated with central venous catheter placement is pneumothorax, which may result from accidental puncture of the lung. After the catheter has been placed but before it is used for infusions, its placement must be checked with an x-ray. Hanging the prescribed bag of PN and starting the infusion at the prescribed rate and infusing normal saline solution through the catheter at a rate of 100 mL/hr to maintain patency are all incorrect because they could result in the infusion of solution into a lung if a pneumothorax is present. Although the nurse may obtain a blood glucose measurement to serve as a baseline, this action is not the priority. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation. Recalling that pneumothorax is a complication of the insertion of this type of catheter will direct you to the correct option. Review care after central venous catheter placement if you have difficulty with this question. Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7 th ed., p.216). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Intravenous therapy Giddens Concepts: Care Coordination, Nutrition HESI Concepts: Collaboration/Managing Care, Nutrition Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8.ID: 7 A nurse has assisted a health care provider in inserting a central venous access device into a client with a diagnosis of severe malnutrition who will be receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). After insertion of the catheter, the nurse immediately plans to: A. Call the radiography department to obtain a chest x-ray Correct B. Check the client's blood glucose level to serve as a baseline measurement C. Hang the prescribed bag of PN and start the infusion at the prescribed rate D. Infuse normal saline solution through the catheter at a rate of 100 mL/hr to maintain patency Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9.ID: 0 A rape victim being treated in the emergency department says to the nurse, "I’m really worried that I’ve got HIV now." What is the appropriate response by the nurse? A. "HIV is rarely an issue in rape victims." Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Maternity/Intrapartum Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Reproduction HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Sexuality/Reproduction lOMoAR cPSD| Rationale: HIV is a concern of rape victims. Such concern should always be addressed, and the victim should be given the information needed to evaluate his or her risk. Pregnancy may occur as a result of rape, and pregnancy prophylaxis can be offered in the emergency department or during follow-up, once the results of a pregnancy test have been obtained. However, stating, “You’re more likely to get pregnant than to contract HIV” avoids the client’s concern. Similarly, "HIV is rarely an issue in rape victims” and "Every rape victim is concerned about HIV" are generalized responses that avoid the client’s concern. Test-Taking Strategy: Use your knowledge of therapeutic communication techniques. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that the nurse avoids addressing the client’s concern. Review the psychosocial issues of the rape victim if you had difficulty with this question. References: Varcarolis, E. (2013). Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care. (revised reprint)) (2nd ed., pp. 439-440). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Psychosocial Integrity Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation Content Area: Mental Health Giddens Concepts: Communication, Immunity HESI Concepts: Communication, Immunity B. "Every rape victim is concerned about HIV." C. "You’re more likely to get pregnant than to contract HIV." D. "Let's talk about the information that you need to determine your risk of contracting HIV." Correct Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10.ID: 3 A client is taking prescribed ibuprofen, 300 mg orally four times daily, to relieve joint pain resulting from rheumatoid arthritis. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing nausea and indigestion. The nurse should tell the client to: A. Contact the health care provider Incorrect B. Stop taking the medication C. Take the medication with food Correct D. Take the medication twice a day instead of four times Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication. Side effects include nausea (with or without vomiting) and dyspepsia (heartburn, indigestion, or epigastric pain). If gastrointestinal distress occurs, the client should be instructed to take the medication with milk or food. The nurse would not instruct the client to stop the medication or instruct the client to adjust the dosage of a prescribed medication; these actions are not within the legal scope of the role of the nurse. Contacting the health care provider is premature, because the client’s complaints are side effects that occasionally occur and can be relieved by taking the medication with milk or food. Test-Taking Strategy: Use guidelines related to medication administration to assist you to eliminate the options that indicate to stop the medication or adjust the prescribed dose. To select from the remaining options, think about the side lOMoAR cPSD| 1670 mL Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11.ID: 8 A client's oral intake of liquids includes 120 mL on the night shift, 800 mL on the day shift, and 650 mL on the evening shift. The client is receiving an intravenous (IV) antibiotic every 12 hours, diluted in 50 mL of normal saline solution. The nurse empties 700 mL of urine from the client's Foley catheter at the end of the day shift. Thereafter, 500 mL of urine is emptied at the end of the evening shift and 325 mL at the end of the night shift. Nasogastric tube drainage totals 155 mL for the 24-hour period, and the total drainage from the Jackson-Pratt device is 175 mL. What is the client's total intake during the 24-hour period? Type your answer in the space provided. Correct Correct Responses 1. 1670 Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12.ID: 1 Lorazepam 1 mg by way of intravenous (IV) injection (IV push) is prescribed for a client for the management of anxiety. The nurse prepares the medication as prescribed and administers the medication over a period of: A. 3 minutes Correct B. 10 seconds C. 15 seconds Rationale: The client’s 24-hour total oral intake is 1570 mL, and the IV intake totals 100 mL (50 mL of normal saline solution every 12 hours). Therefore the 24- hour intake total is 1670 mL. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the client’s total intake in a 24-hour period. Add the oral intake and then note that every 12 hours the client is receiving an IV antibiotic that is diluted in 50 mL of normal saline solution. Therefore the total IV intake is 100 mL in 24 hours. Review calculation of intake and output if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8 th ed., pp. 898-900, 1052). St. Louis: Mosby. Cognitive Ability: Understanding Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Assessment Content Area: Fluids & Electrolytes Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Fluid and Electrolytes HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Fluid and Electrolytes effects of the medication. Review the side effects of ibuprofen and the measures to relieve them if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Hodgson, B., & Kizior, R. (2015). Saunders nursing drug handbook 2015. (pp. 594-595) St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Pharmacology Giddens Concepts: Client Education, Safety HESI Concepts: Safety, Teaching and Learning/Patient Education lOMoAR cPSD| D. 30 minutes Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 13.ID: 2 A nurse, conducting an assessment of a client being seen in the clinic for symptoms of a sinus infection, asks the client about medications that he is taking. The client tells the nurse that he is taking nefazodone hydrochloride . On the basis of this information, the nurse determines that the client most likely has a history of: A. Depression Correct B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Coronary artery disease Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 14.ID: 3 Rationale: Nefazodone hydrochloride is an antidepressant used as maintenance therapy to prevent relapse of an acute depression. Diabetes mellitus, hypethyroidism, and coronary artery disease are not treated with this medication. Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the use of this medication is required to answer this question correctly. Recalling that nefazodone hydrochloride is an antidepressant will direct you to the correct option. Review this medication if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Lehne, R. (2013). Pharmacology for nursing care (8 th ed., p.372). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Analyzing Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Assessment Content Area: Pharmacology Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Evidence HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Evidence Based Practice/Evidence Rationale: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine. When administered by IV injection, each 2 mg or fraction thereof is administered over a period of 1 to 5 minutes. Ten seconds and 30 seconds are brief periods. Thirty minutes is a lengthy period. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, administration of a medication by way of IV injection. Eliminate the options that indicate delivery times of 10 and 15 seconds, because these periods are very brief. Next eliminate the option of 30 minutes because of its lengthiness. Review the procedure for administering lorazepam by way of IV injection if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2015). 2015 Intravenous medications (31 st ed., p.766). St. Louis: Mosby. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Pharmacology Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Safety HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Safety lOMoAR cPSD| Rationale: Phenelzine sulfate, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), is an antidepressant and is used to treat depression. Hypertensive crisis, an adverse effect of this medication, is characterized by hypertension, frontally radiating occipital headache, neck stiffness and soreness, nausea, vomiting, sweating, fever and chills, clammy skin, dilated pupils, and palpitations. Tachycardia, bradycardia, and constricting chest pain may also be present. The client is taught to be alert to any occipital headache radiating frontally and neck stiffness or soreness, which could be the first signs of a hypertensive crisis. Dry mouth and restlessness are common side effects of the medication. Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, the symptoms that should prompt the client to contact the health care provider immediately. Recalling that the medication is an MAOI and the common and adverse effects of the medication will help direct you to the correct option. Review the side effects and adverse effects of this medication if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Lehne, R. (2013). Pharmacology for nursing care (8 th ed., pp. 378- 379). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning Content Area: Mental Health Giddens Concepts: Client Education, Safety HESI Concepts: Safety, Teaching and Learning/Patient Education Phenelzine sulfate is prescribed for a client with depression. The nurse provides information to the client about the adverse effects of the medication and tells the client to contact the health care provider immediately if she experiences: A. Dry mouth B. Restlessness C. Feelings of depression D. Neck stiffness or soreness Correct Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 15.ID: 7 Risperidone is prescribed for a client hospitalized in the mental health unit for the treatment of a psychotic disorder. Which finding in the client’s medical record would prompt the nurse to contact the prescribing health care provider before administering the medication? A. The client has a history of cataracts. B. The client has a history of hypothyroidism. C. The client takes a prescribed antihypertensive. Correct D. The client is allergic to acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin). Rationale: Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication. Contraindications to the use of risperidone include cardiac disorders, cerebrovascular disease, dehydration, hypovolemia, and therapy with antihypertensive agents. Risperidone is used with caution in clients with a history of seizures. History of cataracts, hypothyroidism, or allergy to aspirin does not affect the administration of this medication. Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the contraindications to the use of risperidone lOMoAR cPSD| Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 16.ID: 4 A client who has been undergoing long-term therapy with an antipsychotic medication is admitted to the inpatient mental health unit. Which finding does the nurse, knowing that long-term use of an antipsychotic medication can cause tardive dyskinesia, monitor in the client? A. Fever B. Diarrhea C. Hypertension D. Tongue protrusion Correct Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 17.ID: 5 A nurse is reviewing the record of a client scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which diagnosis, if noted on the client's record, would indicate a need to contact the health care provider who is scheduled to perform the ECT? A. Recent stroke Correct Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is a severe reaction associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications. The clinical manifestations include abnormal movements (dyskinesia) and involuntary movements of the mouth, tongue (“flycatcher tongue”), and face. In its most severe form, tardive dyskinesia involves the fingers, arms, trunk, and respiratory muscles. When this occurs, the medication is discontinued. Fever, diarrhea, and hypertension are not characteristics of tardive dyskinesia. Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the clinical manifestations associated with tardive dyskinesia is needed to answer this question correctly. Recalling that the clinical manifestations of tardive dyskinesia include abnormal movements and involuntary movements will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the characteristics of tardive dyskinesia. Reference: Lilley, L., Rainforth Collins, S., Harr

Show more Read less
Institution
HESI EXIT











Whoops! We can’t load your doc right now. Try again or contact support.

Document information

Uploaded on
June 6, 2023
Number of pages
187
Written in
2022/2023
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers

Subjects

Content preview

lOMoAR cPSD| 4990434




HESI EXIT EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
ACCURATE ANSWERS, LATEST UPDATES.
RATIONALE. RATED A

, lOMoAR cPSD| 4990434




265 Morsels of Exit HESI Goodness
1.ID: 9476788675
Enalapril maleate is prescribed for a hospitalized client. Which assessment does
the nurse perform as a priority before administering the medication?
A. Checking the client's blood pressure Correct
B. Checking the client's peripheral pulses
C. Checking the most recent potassium level
D. Checking the client's intake-and-output record for the last 24
hours Incorrect
Rationale: Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
used to treat hypertension. One common side effect is postural hypotension.
Therefore the nurse would check the client’s blood pressure immediately before
administering each dose. Checking the client’s peripheral pulses, the results of
the most recent potassium level, and the intake and output for the previous 24
hours are not specifically associated with this mediation.
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the name of the medication and recall that
medications that end in the letters “pril” are ACE inhibitors and that these
medications are used to treat hypertension. This will direct you to the correct
option. Review the action of enalapril maleate if you had difficulty with this
question.
Reference: Lehne, R. (2013). Pharmacology for nursing care (8th ed., p. 513). St.
Louis: Saunders.
Cognitive Ability: Analyzing
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Assessment
Content Area: Pharmacology
Giddens Concepts: Care Coordination, Safety
HESI Concepts:Collaboration/Managing Care, Safety
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

2.ID: 9476754035
A client is scheduled to undergo an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series, and the
nurse provides instructions to the client about the test. Which statement by the
client indicates a need for further instruction?
A. "The test will take about 30 minutes."
B. "I need to fast for 8 hours before the test." Incorrect
C. "I need to drink citrate of magnesia the night before the test and
give myself a Fleet enema on the morning of the test." Correct
D. "I need to take a laxative after the test is completed, because the
liquid that I’ll have to drink for the test can be constipating."
Rationale: An upper GI series involves visualization of the esophagus, duodenum,
and upper jejunum by means of the use of a contrast medium. It involves
swallowing a contrast medium (usually barium), which is administered in a
flavored milkshake. Films are taken at intervals during the test, which takes
about 30 minutes. No special preparation is necessary before a GI series, except
that NPO status must be maintained for 8 hours before the test. After an upper GI

, lOMoAR cPSD| 4990434




series, the client is prescribed a laxative to hasten elimination of the barium.
Barium that remains in the colon may become hard and difficult to expel, leading
to fecal impaction.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the strategic words
"need for further instruction." These words indicate a negative event query and
the need to select the incorrect client statement. Focusing on the word "upper" in
the name of the test will direct you to the correct option. Review preprocedure
care for an upper GI series if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-
surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p.
879). St. Louis: Mosby.
Cognitive Ability: Evaluating
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity
Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning
Content Area: Adult Health/Gastrointestinal
Giddens Concepts: Client Education, Clinical Judgment
HESI Concepts:Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Teaching and
Learning/Patient Education
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

3.ID: 9476790957
A nurse on the evening shift checks a health care provider's prescriptions and
notes that the dose of a prescribed medication is higher than the normal dose.
The nurse calls the health care provider's answering service and is told that the
health care provider is off for the night and will be available in the morning. The
nurse should:
A. Call the nursing supervisor
B. Ask the answering service to contact the on-call health care
provider Correct
C. Withhold the medication until the health care provider can be
reached in the morning
D. Administer the medication but consult the health care provider
when he becomes available
Rationale: The nurse has a duty to protect the client from harm. A nurse who
believes that a health care provider’s prescription may be in error is responsible
for clarifying the prescription before carrying it out. Therefore the nurse would
not administer the medication; instead, the nurse would withhold the medication
until the dose can be clarified. The nurse would not wait until the next morning to
obtain clarification. It is premature to call the nursing supervisor.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the
legal responsibilities of the nurse in regard to medication administration and
health care provider’s prescriptions. Eliminate the options that are comparable or
alike in that they avoid clarification of the prescription (administering the
medication and holding the medication). To select from the remaining options,
note that it is premature to call the nursing supervisor. Also note that the correct
option is the only one that clarifies the prescription. Review legal responsibilities
in regard to medication prescriptions if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M.
(2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p.585). St. Louis: Mosby.
Cognitive Ability: Applying

, lOMoAR cPSD| 4990434




Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Leadership and Management
Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Leadership
HESI Concepts:Collaboration/Managing Care, Clinical Decision Making/Clinical
Judgment
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

4.ID: 9476788615
An emergency department (ED) nurse is monitoring a client with suspected acute
myocardial infarction (MI) who is awaiting transfer to the coronary intensive care
unit. The nurse notes the sudden onset of premature ventricular contractions
(PVCs) on the monitor, checks the client's carotid pulse, and determines that the
PVCs are not resulting in perfusion. The appropriate action by the nurse is:
A. Documenting the findings
B. Asking the ED health care provider to check the client Correct
C. Continuing to monitor the client's cardiac status
D. Informing the client that PVCs are expected after an MI
Rationale: PVCs are a result of increased irritability of ventricular cells. Peripheral
pulses may be absent or diminished with the PVCs themselves because the
decreased stroke volume of the premature beats may in turn decrease peripheral
perfusion. Because other rhythms also cause widened QRS complexes, it is
essential that the nurse determine whether the premature beats are resulting in
perfusion of the extremities. This is done by palpating the carotid, brachial, or
femoral artery while observing the monitor for widened complexes or by
auscultating for apical heart sounds. In the situation of acute MI, PVCs may be
considered warning dysrhythmias, possibly heralding the onset of ventricular
tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Therefore the nurse would not tell the client
that the PVCs are expected. Although the nurse will continue to monitor the
client and document the findings, these are not the most appropriate actions of
those provided. The most appropriate action would be to ask the ED health care
provider to check the client.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the significance of
PVCs after acute MI and noting the strategic words "not perfusing" will direct you
to the correct option. Review the significance of PVCs after acute MI if you had
difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-
surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p.
799). St. Louis: Mosby.
Cognitive Ability: Applying
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity
Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation
Content Area: Critical Care
Giddens Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Perfusion
HESI Concepts: Clinical Decision Making/Clinical Judgment, Perfusion
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

5.ID: 9476763527
NPO status is imposed 8 hours before the procedure on a client scheduled to
undergo electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) at 1 p.m. On the morning of the

Get to know the seller

Seller avatar
Reputation scores are based on the amount of documents a seller has sold for a fee and the reviews they have received for those documents. There are three levels: Bronze, Silver and Gold. The better the reputation, the more your can rely on the quality of the sellers work.
Brainboost Bedfordshire University
View profile
Follow You need to be logged in order to follow users or courses
Sold
21
Member since
4 year
Number of followers
14
Documents
726
Last sold
2 months ago

3.4

5 reviews

5
2
4
0
3
1
2
2
1
0

Recently viewed by you

Why students choose Stuvia

Created by fellow students, verified by reviews

Quality you can trust: written by students who passed their exams and reviewed by others who've used these revision notes.

Didn't get what you expected? Choose another document

No problem! You can straightaway pick a different document that better suits what you're after.

Pay as you like, start learning straight away

No subscription, no commitments. Pay the way you're used to via credit card and download your PDF document instantly.

Student with book image

“Bought, downloaded, and smashed it. It really can be that simple.”

Alisha Student

Frequently asked questions