CMY 2602 DEVELOPMENT AND APPLICATION OF CRIME PREVENTION APPROACHES, MODELS AND STRUCTURES (p. 1) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS AVAILABLE

CMY 2602 DEVELOPMENT AND APPLICATION OF CRIME PREVENTION APPROACHES, MODELS AND STRUCTURES (p. 1) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS AVAILABLE Prevention and control of crime (p. 3) The psychological prevention model focuses on • inner psychological needs and disorders. (x2) There are various crime prevention approaches. The following model will assist in restricting opportunities to get involved in crime. Please detect the valid model. • The Limiting Opportunities for Crime Model. A number of therapeutic interventions are used in the psychological prevention model, these include: (x2) • Psychotherapy, crisis intervention, and behaviour modification. Identify the correct statements regarding the factors that are crucial to successful crime prevention. (x3) • Multidimensional crime prevention approach incorporating a number of crime prevention models. • Crime prevention models and programmes based on causation theories. • Proper planning and evaluation of crime prevention programmes, which must also be cost effective. Identify the factors that are crucial with regard to the successful prevention of crime. • State and community involvement in implementing a comprehensive crime prevention policy. • Proper planning and evaluation of crime prevention programmes, which must also be cost effective. Crime prevention models are usually based on specific theories or factors of crime that may have played a part in the commission of crime however, programmes have no basis. • Theoretical. With regard to the biophysical crime prevention model, identify the missing words “Biophysical factors relate to processes or conditions that characterise human beings. The common point of departure in this model is that early identification and treatment especially in the case of young children may play an important part in crime. • Inner • Preventing A study conducted by Sherman, Gottfredson, MacKenzie, Eck, Reuter and Bushway (1998) found that the following prevention projects work well in the USA, indicate the invalid project. • Irregular home visits by nurses. The valid projects listed were: Increased policing of crime-risk areas, Monitoring and detaining high-risk recidivists, and School programmes. A study conducted by Sherman, Gottfredson, MacKenzie, Eck, Reuter and Bushway (1998) found that the following prevention projects work well in the USA, namely • Arresting of professional men who abuse their families. • Increased policing of crime-risk areas. • Monitoring and detaining high-risk recidivists. What do social crime prevention programmes include? Select the best answer. • Labour, family and youth policies. Crime prevention is dependent on the following factors. Identify the incorrect factor. • Proper planning and the evaluation of crime awareness programmes (which must also be cost effective). Note that the correct options listed were: State and community involvement in implementing a comprehensive crime prevention policy; attention to the uniqueness of crime patterns and causes peculiar to a country or neighbourhood; a multidimensional crime prevention approach, which incorporates a number of crime prevention models and their various programmes. Which type of crime prevention strategy is best an example of the implementation of supervisors and security guards at access points to buildings? • Limiting opportunities for crime. Research by Poyner (Ovens 2003 49), which evaluated a large number of crime prevention programmes in England, found the following prevention programmes to be successful in each of the following settings. Which of the following statement(s) is valid? • Commercial burglaries – door-to-door operations by police. • Car theft – security guards, observation by staff. • Robbery – more staff on duty. Research by Poyner (Ovens 2003 49), which evaluated a large number of crime prevention programmes in England, found the following prevention programmes to be successful in each of the following settings. Which of the following statement(s) is invalid? • Home burglaries – security guards at boomed off areas. Note that the valid options were as follows: Commercial burglaries – door-to-door operations by police; car theft – security guards, observation by staff; and robbery – more staff on duty. With regard to the community-based crime prevention model, identify the missing words: “This model is based on the assumption that crime may be prevented by making potential aware of the risk of being caught in specific . • Offenders, neighbourhoods. Property crimes I: shop theft and employee theft (p. 13) With regard to the extent and incidence of employee theft, studies have shown that the majority of working people commit employee theft at some time in their lives. Identify the correct statements with regard to employee theft. (x2) • One in three employees is actively involved in employee theft. • Employee theft is investigated by security managers more than any other breach of security. • One in three bankruptcies can be attributed to or is a consequence of employee theft. With regard to the extent and incidence of employee theft, studies have shown that the majority of working people commit employee theft at some time in their lives. Identify the incorrect statements with regard to employee theft. • One in five employees is actively involved in employee theft. • The majority of employees steal more than once per year. Note that the correct options were as follows. Employee theft is investigated by security managers more than any other security breach. One in three bankruptcies can be attributed to or is a consequence of employee theft. Sally/Nancy works as a cashier at a local furniture store. She struggles to pay her expenses so she often charges a customer a higher amount but rings up a lower amount and pockets the difference. Which type of employee theft does this scenario best represent? (x2) • Forging receipts. Which form of business suffers the greatest losses with regard to shop theft in South Africa? • Food retailers. Complete the following statement by using the options from (1) to (4). According to the Consumer Goods Council of South Africa (CGCSA), there has been an increase in shoplifting incidents which cost the South African retail industry million annually in 2004. (x2) • R6. What are the most correct options for general forms of employee theft? (x2) • Pilfering merchandise • Over-billing expenses. • Fictitious payroll. Nature and characteristics of shop and employee theft (p. 23) With regard to motives for employee theft, distinguish which motives are valid according to Joubert, Maree and Hesselink-Louw. • Economic pressure. • Demographic aspects. With reference to the shoplifter typologies, which type of shoplifter is the most difficult to detect? • Professional. According to data analysed from shoplifting cases reported to the CGCSA, the items most often stolen include: • Toiletries • Batteries Explanation of shop and employee theft (p. 31) With reference to the theoretical explanations for shop theft, indicate the most correct statement/s regarding the Rational Choice Perspective. (x2) • Potential offenders evaluate opportunities and make decisions on the basis of possible rewards which may be gained from a criminal activity. Prevention and control of shop and employee theft (p. 36) A view exists that workers steal because they have opportunity to do so. However, various researchers believe that this may be controlled. Which of the following can be regarded as effective in reducing opportunities for employee theft? • Giving all staff identification tags. • Controlling staff shopping and refunds. Your brother is the owner of a lighting shop where he has experienced several thefts recently. With reference to prevention of shop theft, answer questions 1 to 3. (x2) 1. Which method would best be able to deter shoplifters? The effective use of guards and staff. 2. With reference to the layout of the shop, indicate which statement will best limit shop theft. Excellent lighting. 3. What do you envisage professional shoplifters indicate as a primary deterrent value for shop theft? Item inaccessibility. Since the banning of plastic bags in South Africa in May 2003, the occurrence of shop theft is estimated to have . (x2) • Tripled. Which of the following can be regarded as effective in reducing opportunities for employee theft? • Giving all staff identification tags. • Controlling staff shopping and refunds. Regarding the prevention of shop theft, which is one of the better methods of deterring shoplifters? • The use of guards or store detectives. Which one of the following methods can be regarded as the most effective in deterring shop theft? • Presence of a roving security guard between shelves. To prevent employee theft, employers should always strive to create a positive working environment by ensuring factors that lead to job satisfaction. Which of the following factors are valid? • Job satisfaction • Good salaries Property crimes II: Theft, burglary, vehicle theft, and computer crime (p. 45) Fred committed a few types of computer crime, which of the following types of computer crime listed below is invalid? • Espionage. Note that the valid types of computer crimes listed were phishing, unauthorised use, and sabotage. In relation to the prevention of computer crimes, identify the invalid statement(s). (x2) • Personnel security is a narrow field • Operations security includes three major aspects of computer security. Note that the valid options were: Computer security is a broad field. Physical security protects a physical computer facility such as the building. In relation to the prevention of computer crimes, identify the valid statement(s). • Computer security is a broad field. The planting of a virus in an organisation’s computer is an example of which type of computer crime? • Sabotage. Before a person can be found guilty of theft there are four key elements that have to be met. Choose the most correct option. • An unlawful and intentional act. An analysis of vehicle theft has shown that vehicles are mostly stolen by young people who use them for fun and prestige. Between what ages are these offenders usually? (x2) • 15 and 19 years. With reference to the types of computer crime that can be committed, which of the following is invalid? (x2) • Espionage. Note that the valid options were as follows: military intelligence, business links, computer fraud. Motives for stealing indicate that stealing tends to be a rational activity. Which of the following can be regarded as a major motive for theft/stealing? • Poverty. Vetter & Silverman (1986), provide a number of general reasons for vehicle theft. Identify the valid reason(s). • Transportation • Joyriding Vetter & Silverman (1986), provide a number of general reasons for vehicle theft. Identify the invalid reason(s). • Gang membership. Burglary (Housebreaking) (p. 56) According to Bartol (1995) with reference to general characteristics of burglars, which statement(s) is/are invalid? • Burglary is a largely female undertaking. • Juveniles are inclined to commit burglaries during the night. Note that the valid options were: • Burglary offers the greatest possibility of success with the least risk. • Female burglars usually commit burglaries between 10:00-11:00 and 13:00-15:00. With reference to the selection of targets, Nee and Taylor identify a few broad categories of indicators used by burglars. Which of the categories do they identify? • Occupancy • Affluence • Layout of the house Crimes aimed at property: Vandalism (p. 62) Ben/Sam grew up in an underprivileged environment. Due to his poverty situation and poor educational facilities, he was unable to excel at school and therefore is unemployed. Ben’s/Sam’s circumstances make him angry and frustrated. He retaliates by scratching expensive cars he finds in parking lots. What type of vandalism does this scenario best represent? (x2) • Malicious vandalism. With regard to the view that vandalism is influenced by the peer group, identify the incorrect statement(s). (x2) • The vandal’s peer group is the same as that of a gang. • It is very easy to identify a direct cause when explaining vandalism. Note that the following correct options were offered: Vandalism usually occurs within a group context; Vandalism can be considered a form of social behaviour; peer group membership ensures immunity from individual guilt feelings. Vandalism is a complex phenomenon, which cannot be explained by a single theory. With regard to the view that neighbourhood characteristics offer an explanation for vandalism, identify the correct statements. • People who identify with and respect their environment will not commit vandalism. • Property that has some negative symbolic meaning for the vandal may be more vulnerable to being vandalised. Crimes aimed at property: Arson (p. 68) When reflecting on motives for arson, with special references to the comprehensive study of juveniles and adults, interpret the correct statement. • Excitement was one of the most common motives (25%). Which of the following can be regarded as the most common motives among juvenile arsonists? (x2) • Excitement and the need to challenge authority. What does the following statement best describe? “Poor people living in a wealthy nation resent poverty more than poor people living in a poor nation”. • Relative deprivation. Identify the correct statement/s regarding revenge, malice and jealousy as one of the six primary motives for arson. • Alcohol and drugs play a role in this type of arson. • Hostile neighbours and disillusioned employees fall into this category of arsonist. Which of the following can be regarded as general characteristics of arson? • It is very difficult to confirm arson because the evidence is often destroyed in the fire. • Female arsonists are generally older than their male counterparts. General causes of and an explanation for property crimes (p. 74) With regard to the rational decision making perspective (in the context of an explanation for property crime), identify the correct statements. • This perspective concentrates on the offender’s strategic thinking, processing and detailed evaluating of all information at hand. • Being caught for committing a crime may be exciting to the offender and therefore be viewed as a non- economic reward. With regard to general causes of explanation for property crimes, complete the following statement. Lynch and Cantor argue that theft is largely a function of exposure, whereas burglary is a function of guardianship. (x2) What does the following statement best describe? “Poor people living in a wealthy nation resent poverty more than poor people living in a poor nation.” • Relative deprivation. According to which explanatory theory for property crime is the incidence of crime determined by (i) a motivated offender, (ii) a suitable target, and (iii) the absence of suitable guardians? (x2) • Opportunity theory. Which explanatory theory for property crime argues that people make a certain choice in their actions and their behaviour is guided by the anticipated consequences of the chosen actions? (x2) • Wilson and Herrnstein’s theory. In regard to the general causes of and explanations for property crimes, potential offenders weigh the and the of criminal and non-criminal behaviour before breaking the law. • Rewards and the costs. Identify the correct statements in relation to the rational decision making perspective (in the context of an explanation for property crime). • This perspective concentrates on the offender’s strategic thinking, processing and detailed evaluating of all information at hand. • Being caught for committing a crime may be exciting to the offender and therefore be viewed as a non- economic reward. • The rational choice theory emphasizes the risks and rewards of criminal behaviour. In the context of an explanation for property crime, which theory attempts to explain why the incidence of crime differs in various groups and why some individuals turn to crime and others become law-abiding citizens? • Differential association theory. Tunnel (1992) applies Sykes and Matza’s concept of neutralisation techniques to explain a certain type of offender behaviour in property crime. Identify this behaviour. • Repeat behaviour. Which of the following can be regarded as rewards associated with theft? • Money earned from crime • Excitement derived from committing crime • Much free time. Relative deprivation is regarded as one of the causes of property crime. In relation to this premise, identify the correct statements. • Relative deprivation relates to the way in which the poor or unemployed perceive their situation. • The discrepancy between people’s expectations and their abilities may motivate them to break the law. Prevention of property crimes (p. 85) With regard to situational crime prevention, control access to facilities includes which of the following techniques. (x4) • Electric card access • Entry phones • Baggage screening With regard to situational crime prevention, control tools or weapons include which of the following techniques? • Smart guns • Restrict spray paint sales to juveniles With regard to the effectiveness of situational crime prevention, spacial displacement refers to . (x2) • Committing the intended crime in a different place. Note that in the exam papers, ‘spatial’ displacement is misspelled as ‘spacial’. Police patrols, security guards, informal hot lines, infrared cameras, curfews and burglar alarms are all measures that can be implemented in terms of which situational crime prevention technique? • Formal surveillance. Identify the missing word. Situational crime prevention is a recent concept and refers to a/an approach that amounts to reducing opportunities for crime. • Preventative. THEME 2: THE ROLE OF THE NATIONAL CRIME PREVENTION STRATEGY IN THE SUCCESSFUL PREVENTION OF CRIME (p. 93) The role of the National Crime Prevention Strategy in the successful prevention of crime (p. 94) The National Crime Prevention Strategy (NCPS) is a comprehensive programme based on a wide variety of crime factors. Identify the proposed programmes for the prevention of transnational crimes. (x2) • Co-operation with other departments and the public. • Increased policing and intelligence control. The National Crime Prevention Strategy (NCPS) is a comprehensive programme/strategy based on a wide variety of crime factors. Its four pillars or models centre on a number of crime prevention programmes. Which of the following are recommended programmes in terms of the integrated criminal justice model? (x2) • Diversion programmes for juveniles • An effective prosecution policy. Which of the following are not recommended programmes in terms of the crime prevention by means of environmental design and control model? • A programme focusing on an effective prosecution and sentencing policy. • A programme focusing on the combating of pollution, poaching, and environmental laws. Note that the valid options offered were: A programme focusing on restricting opportunities for committing crime, especially offences where the rates of detection and prosecution are low; and a programme focusing on urban development, transport systems, and residential areas. Which of the following are recommended programmes in terms of crime prevention by means of environmental design and control model? (x2) • A programme focusing on urban development, transport systems and residential areas. • A programme focusing on opportunities for committing crime, especially offences where the rates of detection and prosecution are low. Which of the following are recommended programmes in terms of the promotion of community values and education model? • School programmes • Mediation programmes • Public education programmes Identify valid points of criticism against the National Crime Prevention Strategy (NCPS). (x2) • The NCPS does not specifically address the causes of crime and its focus is narrow when compared with the large number of crime prevention models being applied globally. • No attempt has been made to link the specifically identified factors that contribute to crime in South Africa to the four crime prevention models that have been developed. What can be considered to be the basic premise/s of the South African National Crime Prevention Strategy? • Interdepartmental cooperation • Programmes focused on the crime, the victim, and the offender. In terms of the integrated criminal justice model of crime prevention, which of the following can be regarded as objectives of this model? • Promote the effectiveness of the criminal justice system by focusing on the needs of offenders and victims. • Improve the credibility of the criminal justice system. Promoting community values and education includes which one of the following? • None of the above options. THEME 3: ROLEPLAYERS IN THE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM: THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE AND CORRECTIONAL SERVICES (p. 105) Which of the following state departments are key role players in the criminal justice system? • Courts, Correctional Services, Police, Welfare. The Department of Safety and Security (p. 107) The South African Police Service (SAPS) is an important safety and security structure which is primarily responsible for prevention and the of all people in South Africa. • Crime • Safeguarding Complete the following statement by using the options from (1) to (4). The primary role of the that any reports of offences and misconduct committed by the SAPS are investigated in an effective manner. (x2) • Independent Complaints Directorate. The South African Police Service (SAPS) is responsible for creating a safe and protective environment for all and should meet the objectives of the SAPS in terms of section 205(3) of the Constitution. Which of these objectives are valid? (x3) • Prevent, combat and investigate crime. • Protect and safeguard the people of the country. The South African Police Service (SAPS) is responsible for creating a safe and protective environment for all and should meet the objectives of the SAPS in terms of section 205(3) of the Constitution. Which of these objectives are invalid? • Maintain private order. Note that the valid options provided were as follows: prevent, combat and investigate crime; protect and safeguard the people of the country; uphold and enforce the law. The Police Civilian Secretariat was established in terms of of the Constitution, and Chapter 2, section 2(1) of the South African Police Service Act of 1995 to serve as a principal advisor to the Minister. • Section 208 • 68 What style of policing has been officially adopted in South Africa and is based on the premise that a community and its police service are equal partners with shared responsibilities for ensuring safety and security? (x2) • Community policing. The primary function of the provincial commissioner of SAPS is to effectively manage the following crime and crime functions within the province. • Combating • Detection The secondary function of the South African Police Service (SAPS) provincial commissioner is to effectively manage a number of functions. Identify the correct functions. • Human resource management • Auxiliary services. The Department of Correctional Services (p. 123) In 2008 the Department of Correctional Services entered into a mass literacy programme with the Department of Education. The programme is called Kha Ri Gude which can be translated into (x2) • Let us learn. In terms of section 28(1) of the South African Constitution children have a right (x3) • To be treated in a manner, and kept in conditions, that take account of their age. • To have a legal practitioner assigned to them. • To be kept separately from detained persons over the age of 18 years. Pat is a Correctional Officer in the youth prison. Which of the following programmes will Pat not use as this programme is not geared towards the development of youth in prison? (x2) • Psychiatric services. Note that the valid options were: Vocational training, Psychological services, Occupational skills training. With regard to the Department of Correctional Services, the objectives of the White Paper are the: • Safe custody of prisoners • Humane detention and treatment of prisoners • Reintegration of prisoners into the community THEME 4: THE ROLE, FUNCTION AND JURISDICTION OF CRIMINAL COURTS IN THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA (p. 141) The role of the courts in the judicial process (p. 143) Identify the correct statements regarding the Supreme Court of Appeal. • The court hears appeals from the High Court only. • Only the Supreme Court can alter one of its own decisions. Identify the incorrect statement(s) regarding the Supreme Court of Appeal. • This court is situated in Cape Town. • All cases are heard by three or five magistrates. Note that the correct statements were the following: This court hears appeals from the High Court only. Only the Supreme Court can alter one of its own decisions. Identify the correct statement regarding the jurisdiction of the Constitutional Court. (x3) • The Constitutional Court has the inherent power to regulate process and develop common law. Which is the well-known phrase, “innocent before proven guilty” best academically defined as. (x2) • Presumption of innocence. Identify the correct statements regarding the presumption of innocence. • Presumption of innocence means that a person is deemed to be innocent until found guilty by a court of law. • A conviction is an objective and impartial official declaration by a court that the state has proven someone guilty by law of a crime in a properly conducted hearing. With regard to the association between presiding officers and the other parties in court (x4) • The trial of an accused must be conducted in his or her presence unless the accused behaves in such a manner that it becomes impossible for the hearing to proceed. • The accused is the central figure in a criminal hearing and the presiding officer must assist an undefended accused. With regard to the penal jurisdiction of regional courts distinguish the correct statement. • Regional courts have the authority to impose imprisonment not exceeding fifteen years as well as life imprisonment in certain instances or a fine not exceeding R300 000. Complete the following statement by using the options from (1) to (4). With reference to the functions of the High Court, namely, in regard to assessors. The High Courts are presided over by judges and assessors are usually or who assist presiding officers in High Courts. (x2) • Advocates • Retired magistrates. The Criminal courts in South Africa are divided into two types, indicate the correct types. (x2) • Trial courts and appeal courts. With reference to the functions of magistrates’ courts. Magistrates’ courts can be divided into two different types, namely: • Criminal and civil courts. Which type of court refers to the members of the public taking the law into their own hands where they act as judge, jury and executioner? (x2) • None of the above. Note that the correct answer to this question is ‘kangaroo court’. Which of the following are not examples of ordinary courts? • Water courts. Note that the correct examples of ordinary courts provided were as follows: Constitutional Courts, Supreme Courts of Appeal, High Courts. THEME 5: THE ROLE OF TRAFFIC CONTROL AS A COMPONENT OF THE CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM (p. 159) The organisation of traffic control and enforcement refers to different sections in the division of labour. The following are established as Saturation enforcement units. Identify the valid control units. (x2) • Speed • Traffic light The organisation of traffic control and enforcement refers to different sections in the division of labour. The following are established as Saturation enforcement units. Identify the invalid control units. • Patrol • Fire Note that the valid options were as follows. Speed, and traffic light. With regard to traffic law enforcement namely, the administration section, identify the valid units. • Data capturing • Court documentation With regard to the law enforcement namely, the staff functions, identify the correct units. • Communication unit • Collision bureau • Warrants and processes. It is now common knowledge that the human factor is responsible for a high percentage of all road traffic collisions. The vehicle and road environment, however, also contribute to road traffic collisions. What are their respective percentage contributions? (x2) • 7% and 3% respectively. Most traffic authorities have three main sections and these sections are further classified into primary, secondary, and administrative units. Identify the correct sections. • Enforcement, administration, and engineering. With reference to the goals of traffic law enforcement, in regard to the definition of the term “organisation”, which of the following are vital for any organisation? (x2) • There must be an organisational structure. • Common goals and objectives must be pursued. • People must be grouped together. The traffic officer’s functions can be divided into how many categories? (x2) • Five. THEME 6: COMMUNITY MANAGEMENT OF HIGH RISK OFFENDERS (p. 183) High risk offenders (p. 186) With reference to high risk offenders and special attention relating to criteria and evidence for dangerousness, decide which statement is invalid. (x2) • It is important to consider a number of aspects, especially when deciding whether an offender presents an insignificant risk. Note that this statement is invalid due to the use of the word ‘insignificant’. If the word ‘insignificant’ were to be replaced by ‘significant’, the statement would be valid and correct. With regard to psychological framing of high risk offenders and dangerousness, which statements are invalid? • Mental health diagnoses for high risk offenders cannot result in compulsory detainment. • Psychology and affiliated disciplines have made minor contribution to the framing and understanding of dangerous offenders. Note that the valid options that were offered were as follows. This approach views risk and dangerousness as the individual, inherent traits of the offender. Psychiatry has attempted to provide typologies of dangerous offenders, for example, typologies of serial killers. With regard to psychological framing of high risk offenders and dangerousness: (x2) • This approach views risk and dangerousness as the individual, inherent traits of the offender. • Psychiatry has attempted to provide typologies of dangerous offenders, for example typologies of serial killers. • Psychiatric assessments and treatments often run parallel to psychological approaches. Indicate the missing words. With regard to the social construction approach, the can “champion” causes, validate causes and experiences, particular groups and popularise new fears. (x2) • Media, demonise. What does Kemshall (2008) refer to as “a mechanism of social regulation in which individuals are made responsible for their own actions, including their own risks, and for their own self-risk management”? (x2) • Responsibilisation Risk assessment: A complex practice (p. 194) Risk assessment is a complex practice. The rationale for risk assessment necessitates several endeavours. Which of the following are invalid? • Safeguard victims from risk and dangerousness. Assess the risk posed by the victim. Note that the valid options that were presented were “Determine the risk of reoffending” and “Select appropriate targets for effective service delivery”. You are the Risk Manager at a successful Risk Management Agency. According to the community protection through partnership approach, a sex offender about to be released into the community would require which level of risk management? • Level 3. With regard to the community management of high risk offenders, predicting recidivism is important for several reasons. • It affords judges, parole boards, and probation officers the chance to assess an offender’s likelihood to reoffend. • It allows clinicians and correctional administrators the chance to improve an offender’s chances of success within the community. • Recidivism prediction provides community leaders and citizens with information on how released offenders can best be reintegrated into conventional society. Community management of high risk offenders: Risk management (p. 206) With reference to the article “How to keep your children safe from sex offenders”, which are the valid statements in regard to devising an escape plan with your child? (x3) • Use direct language to talk about body parts and what parts are wrong for others to touch. • Teach them to say “NO!” loudly and clearly, practice it with them. • Tell them never to go into public toilets alone. With regard to Community management of high risk offenders specifically relating to notes on risk management strategies, these strategies should also provide for the following. (x3) • Strong incentives to attend and comply with therapy and programmes. • A thorough system of supervision with regular reassessment. • Strong incentives for individuals to manage their own behaviour. According to Kemshall (2008), a typical risk management package for a paedophile on release from custody could resemble the following. (x3) • Electronic tagging • Supervised accommodation • Victim empathy work According to the key components of effective risk management, Kemshall (2008 87) mentions the following: , , and . (x2) • Victim protection, targeted surveillance, and police intelligence. Which of the following is not a key component of effective risk management? • Victim information. Note that the valid components provided were as follows: targeted surveillance; addressing criminogenic and welfare needs; and proactive planning. Complete the following statement by using the options from a) to d). According to Child Safety, of sexual molesters are known to the child or family. • 80%. Community management of high risk offenders (p. 220) South Africa’s sexual offenders register came into effect in June 2008. What is the primary aim of keeping a register for sexual offenders? (x4) • The sexual offenders should not be employed in work involving children. Complete the following statement by using the options from (1) to (4). With regard to the community management of high risk offenders, with reference to community notification, Cohen and Jeglic (in Kemshall 2008) have identified different notification models. (x4) • Four. Research by Zevitz and Farkas (in Kemshall 2008) revealed that sex offenders list the following factors as reasons leading to their relapse. (x2) • Fear, stress, and anxiety. PREVIOUS EXAM ANSWERS OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2012 Question Answer Notes 1 2 p. 80 2 3 p. 89 3 3 p. 77 4 2 p. 191 5 2 p. 223 + 224 6 4 p. 50 7 3 p. 147 8 2 p. 154 9 1 p. 173 10 2 p. 96 11 1 p. 48 12 2 p. 77 13 4 p. 87 14 4 p. 18 15 2 p. 214 + 215 16 1 p. 222 17 1 p. 49 18 3 p. 10 19 3 p. 130 20 3 p. 20 21 2 p. 113 22 2 p. 208 23 2 p. 110 24 4 p. 145 25 1 p. 155 26 3 p. 211 27 2 p. 164 28 4 p. 161 29 2 p. 167 30 4 p. 6 31 4 p. 18 32 2 p. 8 33 1 p. 146 34 2 p. 190 35 2 p. 82 36 1 p. 98 37 2 p. 70 38 3 p. 65 + 66 39 2 p. 49 40 4 p. 115 41 2 p. 208 + 209 42 2 p. 26 43 1 p. 79 44 4 p. 99 45 2 p. 32 46 3 p. 88 47 3 p. 38 48 2 p. 42 + 43. On p. 42 and 43, the following factors are listed that promote job satisfaction: salaries (ensure employees are satisfied with their salaries), fairness, sound human relations, employee loyalty, and reward/recognition for performance. “Demerit for poor performance” is not mentioned there – the emphasis is on positive rewards – so this means that options (3) and (4) are out. The options that remain are options (1) and (2). ‘A’ is present in both these options, so we assume it’s correct. That leads us to believe that option (2) (a and c) is the correct answer, because ‘good salaries’ (option c) ensure that employees are satisfied with their salaries. ‘Basic salaries’ (option b) could still be low, and would not guarantee satisfaction. 49 3 p. 106 50 3 p. 191 MAY/JUNE 2012 Question Answer Notes 1 2 p. 191 2 4 p. 81 + 82 3 4 p. 19 4 2 p. 145 5 3 p. 8 6 2 p. 150 7 3 p. 65 8 1 p. 10 9 3 p. 98 10 3 p. 6 11 2 p. 223 + 224 12 4 p. 11 13 3 p. 69 14 2 p. 225 15 2 p. 76 16 4 p. 52 17 2 p. 42 18 2 p. 43 19 4 p. 99 20 2 p. 32 21 2 p. 88 22 1 p. 222 23 3 p. 77 24 1 p. 100 + 101 25 2 p. 89 26 2 p. 49 27 4 p. 130 28 3 p. 99 + 100 29 2 p. 54 30 4 p. 58 31 1 p. 208 32 4 p. 126 33 4 p. 145 34 1 p. 211 35 1 p. 155 36 4 p. 164 37 4 p. 179. The real answer is 5. 38 3 p. 149 39 3 p. 214 40 4 p. 148 41 1 p. 190 42 4 p. 208 + 209 43 3 p. 6 44 4 p. 99 + 100 45 2 p. 110 46 3 p. 191 47 1 p. 109 48 1 p. 112 49 2 p. 208 50 4 p. 197 MAY/JUNE 2013 Question Answer Notes 1 3 p. 88 2 4 p. 25 3 2 p. 147 4 1 p. 6 + 7 5 1 p. 223 + 224 6 3 p. 51 7 3 p. 77 8 3 p. 223 9 4 p. 173 10 1 p. 17 + 18 11 2 p. 8 12 4 p. 41 13 1 p. 6 14 1 p. 18 15 1 p. 47 16 2 p. 222 17 3 p. 71 18 1 p. 166 19 2 p. 7 20 4 p. 20 21 2 p. 76 22 3 p. 64 23 2 p. 110 24 2 p. 214 + 215 25 1 p. 155 26 3 p. 211 27 2 p. 80 28 1 p. 18 29 3 p. 167 30 4 p. 65 31 2 p. 100 32 4 p. 6 33 3 p. 145 + 146 34 1 p. 80 35 4 p. 149 36 1 p. 99 37 1 p. 49 38 4 p. 99 39 3 p. 190 40 2 p. 137 41 3 p. 208 42 4 p. 37 + 38 43 3 p. 38 44 1 p. 39 45 4 p. 131 46 3 p. 54 47 3 p. 115 48 4 p. 101 49 4 p. 188 50 3 p. 81 OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2013 Question Answer Notes 1 3 p. 8 2 2 p. 150 3 1 p. 223 + 224 4 3 p. 50 + 51 + 52 5 1 p. 7 6 4 p. 188 7 3 p. 81 8 4 p. 8 9 4 p. 41 10 3 p. 77 11 2 p. 70. Vandalism was the most common motive, but the percentage was 49%, not 39%. 12 2 p. 76 13 3 p. 64 14 3 p. 28 15 1 p. 214 16 3 p. 197 17 4 p. 38 18 1 p. 38 19 2 p. 39 20 2 p. 110 21 3 p. 149. The Constitutional Court only has the power to declare an Act of Parliament null and void if it conflicts with the Constitution. 22 2 p. 18 23 2 p. 167 24 4 p. 6 25 2 p. 203 26 2 p. 110 + 111 27 3 p. 145 + 146 28 4 p. 20 29 3 p. 4 30 2 p. 222 31 1 p. 155 32 3 p. 137 33 4 p. 108 + 109 34 3 p. 70 35 1 p. 8 36 2 p. 100 37 1 p. 109 38 1 p. 171 39 2 p. 88 40 1 p. 152 41 3 p. 57 42 1 p. 130 43 1 p. 88 44 4 p. 10 45 2 p. 54 46 2 p. 39 47 4 p. 169 48 1 p. 131 49 2 p. 145 50 2 p. 89