West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam (Questions and Answers A+ graded 100% verified latest update)

West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam (Questions and Answers A+ graded 100% verified latest update) A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will. CORRECT ANSWER: B. begin CPR until an AED is available. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. CORRECT ANSWER: B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. check for a pulse B. allow full chest recoil C. administer a breath D. remove your hands from the chest CORRECT ANSWER: B. allow full chest recoil Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration. CORRECT ANSWER: B. gastric distention. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. CORRECT ANSWER: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. occurs every 24 months. B. is delivered by computer. C. involves hands-on practice. D. is self-paced and brief. CORRECT ANSWER: C. involves hands-on practice. CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. signs of putrefaction are present. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. a valid living will is unavailable. CORRECT ANSWER: D. a valid living will is unavailable. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. supine. B. prone. C. horizontal. D. on a firm surface. CORRECT ANSWER: B. prone. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. b. c. in patients who are intubated. d. when the airway is completely obstructed. e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. CORRECT ANSWER: e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. leave it in place B. continue chest compressions C. remove it D. place the patient on his or her side CORRECT ANSWER: C. remove it In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. severe chest trauma. C. respiratory arrest. D. a drug overdose. CORRECT ANSWER: C. respiratory arrest. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. CORRECT ANSWER: D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. grasping the throat. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak. D. forceful coughing. CORRECT ANSWER: D. forceful coughing. The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. CORRECT ANSWER: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: A. 30:2 B. 5:1 C. 30:1 D. 3:2 CORRECT ANSWER: A. 30:2 When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. B. with one or two hands. C. until a radial pulse is felt. D. 80 to 100 times per minute. CORRECT ANSWER: B. with one or two hands. While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. CORRECT ANSWER: D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed D. deteriorate over time CORRECT ANSWER: D. deteriorate over time Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. place the patient supine. B. encourage the patient to cough. C. administer back blows. D. perform abdominal thrusts. CORRECT ANSWER: B. encourage the patient to cough. Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. CORRECT ANSWER: D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. CORRECT ANSWER: C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control. B. notify law enforcement. C. quickly access the patient. D. take standard precautions. CORRECT ANSWER: D. take standard precautions. An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. CORRECT ANSWER: C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history CORRECT ANSWER: A. nature of illness Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. is a more contagious type of disease. B. has a greater ability to produce disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. is less resistant to treatment. CORRECT ANSWER: B. has a greater ability to produce disease. In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. epidemics. B. parasitic infection. C. uncontrolled outbreaks. D. pandemics. CORRECT ANSWER: D. pandemics. In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes CORRECT ANSWER: D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. endocrine B. respiratory C. cardiac D. neurologic CORRECT ANSWER: D. neurologic Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. abdominal pain C. seizures D. a fever CORRECT ANSWER: D. a fever Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital B. confirm the patient's diagnosis C. address the patient's symptoms D. correct the patient's underlying problem CORRECT ANSWER: C. address the patient's symptoms The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. CORRECT ANSWER: C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. CORRECT ANSWER: B. after the primary assessment has been completed. When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Baseline vital signs B. Index of suspicion C. Medical history D. Primary assessment CORRECT ANSWER: C. Medical history When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. CORRECT ANSWER: C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. CORRECT ANSWER