SC-900: Microsoft Security Fundamentals Exam Prep - NOV 2022
SC-900 Exam test prep_ Targeted to those looking to familiarize themselves with the fundamentals of security, compliance, and identity across cloud-based and related Microsoft services. 1. An organization has deployed Microsoft 365 applications to all employees. Who is responsible for the security of the personal data relating to these employees? A. The organization. B. Microsoft, the SaaS provider. C. There's shared responsibility between an organization and Microsoft. 2. Which of the following measures might an organization implement as part of the defense in-depth security methodology? A. Locating all its servers in a single physical location. B. Multi-factor authentication for all users. C. Ensuring there's no segmentation of your corporate network. 3. The human resources organization want to ensure that stored employee data is encrypted. Which security mechanism would they use? A. Encryption in transit. B. Digital signing. C. Encryption at rest. 4. What is the best way of staying current with Microsoft compliance documentation available through the Service Trust Portal? A. Save the documents to your My Library. B. Print each document so you can easily refer to them. C. Download each document. 5. A compliance admin is looking for regulatory information relevant to a specific region, which one link will provide the needed information? A. Microsoft Privacy Principles. B. Service Trust Portal. C. Microsoft Compliance Manager. 6. What type of security risk does a phishing scam pose? A. Ethical risk. B. Physical risk. C. Identity risk. 7. What is a benefit of single sign-on? A. A central identity provider can be used. B. The user signs in once and can then access many applications or resources. C. Passwords always expire after 72 days. 8. Which relationship allows federated services to access resources? A. Claim relationship. B. Shared access relationship. C. Trust relationship. 9. Authentication is the process of doing what? A. Verifying that a user or device is who they say they are. B. The process of profiling user behavior. C. Enabling federated services. 10. An organization is launching a new app for its customers. Customers will use a sign-in screen that is customized with the organization's brand identity. Which type of Azure External identity solution should the organization use? A. Azure AD B2B B. Azure AD B2C C. Azure AD Hybrid identities 11. All users in an organization have Microsoft 365 cloud identities. Which identity model applies? A. Hybrid B. Cloud-only C. On-premises only 12. An organization has developed an app to allow users to be able to sign in with their Facebook, Google, or Twitter credentials. What type of authentication is being used? A. Service principal authentication B. Azure AD B2C C. User assigned identities 13. After hearing of a breach at a competitor, the security team wants to improve identity security within their organization. What should they implement immediately to provide the greatest protection to user identities? A. Multifactor authentication. B. Require biometrics for all sign-ins. C. Require strong passwords for all identities. 14. To improve identity security within the organization, the security team wants to implement Windows Hello for Business. When explaining the benefits of Windows Hello for Business, which of the following statements is true? A. Windows Hello is an authentication feature built into Windows Server 2012 R26. B. Windows Hello is an alternative to multifactor authentication. C. Windows Hello for Business is more secure because it uses PINs and biometric data to authenticate users. 15. A company's IT organization has been asked to find ways to reduce IT costs, without compromising security. Which feature should they consider implementing? A. Self-service password reset. B. Biometric sign-in on all devices. C. FIDO2. 16. An organization plans to implement Conditional Access. What do admins need to do? A. Create policies that enforce organizational rules. B. Check that all users have multifactor authentication enabled. C. Amend your apps to allow Conditional Access. 17. Sign-in risk is a signal used by Conditional Access policies to decide whether to grant or deny access. What is sign-in risk? A. The probability that the device is owned by the identity owner. B. The probability that the authentication request is authorized by the identity owner. C. The probability that the user is authorized to view data from a particular application. 18. IT admins have been asked to review Azure AD roles assigned to users, to improve organizational security. Which of the following should they implement? A. Remove all global admin roles assigned to users. B. Create custom roles. C. Replace global admin roles with specific Azure AD roles. 19. An organization has recently merged with a competitor, nearly doubling the number of employees. The organization needs to implement an access lifecycle system that won't add a significant amount of work for its IT administrators. Which Azure AD feature should they implement? A. Dynamic groups. B. Conditional Access policies. C. Azure AD Terms of Use. 20. An organization is project-oriented with employees often working on more than one project at a time. Which solution is best suited to managing user access to this organization's resources? A. Azure Terms of Use. B. Dynamic groups. C. Entitlement management. 21. An organization has recently conducted a security audit and found that four people who have left were still active and assigned global admin roles. The users have now been deleted but the IT organization has been asked to recommend a solution to prevent a similar security lapse happening in future. Which solution should they recommend? A. Entitlement management. B. Privileged Identity Management. C. Identity Protection. 22. Your IT organization recently discovered that several user accounts in the finance department have been compromised. The CTO has asked for a solution to reduce the impact of compromised user accounts. The IT admin team is looking into Azure AD features. Which one should they recommend? A. Identity Protection. B. Conditional Access. C. Entitlement management. 23. The security admin wants to increase the priority of a network security group, what five sources of information will the admin need to provide? A. source, source port, destination, destination port, and network layer. B. source, source port, destination, destination port, and protocol. C. source, source port, destination, destination port, and target resource. 24. The security admin wants to protect Azure resources from DDoS attacks, which Azure DDoS Protection tier will the admin use to target Azure Virtual Network resources? A. Basic. B. Standard. c. Advanced. 25. An organization has several virtual machines in Azure. The security admin wants to deploy Azure Bastion to get secure access to those VMs. What limitation should the admin keep in mind? A. Azure Bastion is deployed per virtual network. B. Azure Bastion is deployed per subscription. C. Azure Bastion is deployed per virtual machine. 26. An organization is using Azure and wants to improve their security best practices. Which Azure specific benchmark would the IT security team need to consider? A. Azure Security Benchmark. B. Center for Internet Security. C. Microsoft cybersecurity group. 27. An organization is using Security Center to assess its resources and subscriptions for security issues. The organization's overall secure score is low and needs to improve. How could a security admin try to improve the score? A. Close old security recommendations. B. Remediate security recommendations. C. Move security recommendations to resolved. 28. An organization needs to continuously monitor the security status of its network. What Security Center tool would they use? A. Continuous assessment. B. Network map. C. Network assessment. 29. As the lead admin, it's important to convince your team to start using Azure Sentinel. You've put together a presentation. What are the four security operation areas of Azure Sentinel that cover this area? A. Collect, Detect, Investigate, and Redirect. B. Collect, Detect, Investigate, and Respond. C. Collect, Detect, Investigate, and Repair. 30. Your estate has many different data sources where data is stored. Which tool should be used with Azure Sentinel to quickly gain insights across your data as soon as a data source is connected? A. Azure Monitor Workbooks. B. Playbooks. C. Microsoft 365 Defender. 31. A lead admin for an organization is looking to protect against malicious threats posed by email messages, links (URLs), and collaboration tools. Which solution from the Microsoft 365 Defender suite is best suited for this purpose? A. Microsoft Defender for Office 365. B. Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. C. Microsoft Defender for Identity. 32. A team admin is asked to provide a short presentation on the use and benefit of Microsoft Cloud App Security. Which of the four MCAS pillars is responsible for identifying and controlling sensitive information? A. Threat protection. B. Compliance. C. Data Security.. 33. When considering using Microsoft Cloud App Security for an organization, what is one of the key considerations? A. The data security of your entire estate. B. The architecture of your entire estate. C. The use of Shadow IT in your entire estate. 34. Admins in the organization are using the Microsoft 365 security center every day. They want to quickly get an understanding of the organization's current security posture. Which section in the Microsoft 365 security center will they use? A. Reports. B. Secure Score. C. Policies. 35. Which of the following describes what an admin would need to select to view security cards grouped by risk, detection trends, configuration, and health, among others? A. Group by topic. B. Group by risk. C. Group by category. 36. An admin wants to get a comprehensive view of an attack including where it started, what tactics were used, and how far it has gone in the network. What can the admin use to view this type of information? A. Alerts B. Reports C. Incidents 37. Employees are allowed to bring and use their cell phones at work. The employees don't want their phone to be under full corporate control, but admins want to allow users to read emails and use Teams while protecting corporate data. Which of the following will allow admins to accomplish these goals? A. Mobile Application Management (MAM). B. Mobile Device Management (MDM). C. Role-based access control (RBAC). 38. An organization uses different types of devices, including Windows, iOS, and Android devices. Admins for that organization have created a security baseline profile in Intune that they want to apply across the devices. To which devices can the security baseline profile be applied? A. Android devices. B. iOS devices. C. Windows devices. 39. A new admin has joined the team and needs to be able to access the Microsoft 365 Compliance Center. Which of the following roles could the admin use to access the Compliance Center? A. Compliance Administrator role B. Helpdesk Administrator role C. User Administrator role 40. Your new colleagues on the admin team are unfamiliar with the concept of shared controls in Compliance Manager. How would the concept of shared controls be explained? A. Controls that both external regulators and Microsoft share responsibility for implementing. B. Controls that both your organization and external regulators share responsibility for implementing. C. Controls that both your organization and Microsoft share responsibility for implementing. 41. A customer has requested a presentation on how the Microsoft 365 Compliance Center can help improve their organization's compliance posture. The presentation will need to cover Compliance Manager and compliance score. What is the difference between Compliance Manager and compliance score? A. Compliance Manager is an end-to-end solution in Microsoft 365 Compliance Center to enable admins to manage and track compliance activities. Compliance score is a calculation of the overall compliance posture across the organization. B. Compliance Manager is an end-to-end solution in Microsoft 365 Compliance Center to enable admins to manage and track compliance activities. Compliance score is a score the organization receives from regulators for successful compliance. C. Compliance Manager is the regulator who will manage your compliance activities. Compliance score is a calculation of the overall compliance posture across the organization. 42. Which part of the concept of know your data, protect your data, and prevent data loss addresses the need for organizations to automatically retain, delete, store data and records in a compliant manner? A. Know your data B. Prevent data loss C. Govern your data 43. As part of a new data loss prevention policy, the compliance admin needs to be able to identify important information such as credit card numbers, across the organization's data. How can the admin address this requirement? A. Use activity explorer B. Use sensitivity labels C. Use sensitive information types 44. Within the organization, some emails are confidential and should be encrypted so that only authorized users can read them. How can this requirement be implemented? A. Use the content explorer B. Use sensitivity labels C. Use Records Management 45. Your organization uses Microsoft Teams to collaborate on all projects. The compliance admin wants to prevent users from accidentally sharing sensitive information in a Microsoft Teams chat session. What capability can address this requirement? A. Use data loss prevention policies B. Use Records Management capabilities C. Use retention policies 46. Due to a certain regulation, your organization must now keep hold of all documents in a specific SharePoint site that contains customer information for five years. How can this requirement be implemented? A. Use sensitivity labels B. Use the content explorer C. Use retention policies
Connected book
- 2022
- 9781801814959
- Unknown
Written for
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- Microsoft SC-900
- Module
- Microsoft SC-900
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- November 17, 2022
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- 8
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- 2022/2023
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microsoft sc 900
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sc 900 microsoft security fundamentals exam prep
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1 an organization has deployed microsoft 365 applications to all employees who is responsible for the security of the personal data
