Norrie, Huber, Piercy, McKeown Introduction to Business Information Systems Second Canadian Edition TEST BANK_all chapters questions and answers.

Norrie, Huber, Piercy, McKeown Introduction to Business Information Systems Second Canadian Edition TEST BANK Chapter 1 1. Globalization suggests that modern businesses are using information technology to: a) expand their market to customers around the globe b) find the lowest-cost suppliers regardless of location c) create 24 hour business days by shuttling work across time zones d) broaden the range of business activities across multiple nations e) all of the above 2. Moore’s Law states that computing power roughly doubles every: a) 18 days b) 18 weeks c) 18 months d) 18 years 3. When considering explicit knowledge and tacit knowledge: a) explicit knowledge is readily codified and tacit knowledge is gained through experience b) explicit knowledge is gained through experiences and tacit knowledge is readily codified c) explicit knowledge is rarely required by knowledge-enabled professionals and tacit knowledge is referenced in text books d) explicit knowledge is more important to knowledge-enabled professionals and tacit knowledge is much less important and rarely used 4. Which of the following are types of information systems? a) MIS, TPS, DSS b) URL, HTTP, XML c) HTML, ASCII, WWW d) UML, USB, SCM 5. Business value is: a) the price structure of a firm’s goods and services b) the positive return on the investment of a firm’s resources c) derived from a firm’s marketing/promotional strategy d) the cost of implementing successful information systems within a firm 6. When considering data and information: a) data is a collection of unorganized facts and information is data that has been transformed into something useful b) data is unimportant and businesses should only consider information c) data is critical when developing a solution to a problem while information should be considered only occasionally d) data and information refer to the same thing 7. The Internet is: a) a global computer system that is ultimately controlled by the U.S. government b) a global computer system that is reaching its current potential and is expected to decline in use during the next decade c) a large number of co-operating computer networks that use a common set of rules for sending messages d) a large number of computer systems that are inherently in conflict resulting in an inefficient use of the world’s resources 8. The Internet generates business value by: a) enabling the buying and selling of goods b) protecting domestic markets from foreign competition c) promoting trade barriers in areas of the world that are underdeveloped d) ensuring compliance of government legislation regarding foreign investment 9. Information security systems protect: a) people b) information c) networks d) organizations e) all of the above 10. Allowing companies to take their operations to another location, which allows them to produce items better, faster, and cheaper defines: a) offshoring b) insourcing c) open sourcing d) informing e) none of the above 11. Globalization has affected businesses in all of the following ways except: a) marketing to new customers b) understanding company grapevine c) finding new suppliers d) creating 24-hour workdays 12. The Internet has become an integral part of business for which of the following key reasons? a) communication, knowledge, and information b) communication, knowledge, and commerce c) communication, information, and commerce d) information, commerce, and knowledge e) information only 13. Using Internet technologies to allow work to be done without human intervention refers to: a) workflow software b) offshoring c) insourcing d) open sourcing e) none of the above 14. When information systems are used to integrate people, information, technology, and business processes, you have created: a) business value b) relevance c) knowledge d) information e) wisdom 15. The kind of work that uses discovery, transformation, analysis, synthesis, and communication skills is called work. a) business value b) relevant c) knowledge d) information e) wisdom 16. The knowledge process includes which two types of knowledge? a) discovery and analysis b) explicit and tacit c) synthesis and transformation d) ethical and practical e) right and wrong 17. If you use a podcast to acquire knowledge, what type of knowledge have you acquired? a) ethical b) practical c) explicit d) tacit e) analytical 18. If you use a software manual to acquire information about its advanced functions, you have acquired knowledge: a) ethical b) practical c) explicit d) tacit e) analytical 19. If you use an expert opinion to acquire information about advanced features of a software package, you have acquired knowledge: a) ethical b) practical c) explicit d) tacit e) analytical 20. When a system has been designed to transform inputs into outputs in order to achieve a goal, the system is called a(n) system. a) computer b) business c) knowledge d) technology e) information 22. The Input-Process-Output model is designed to accomplish all of the following except: a) achieve business goals b) apply appropriate use of technology c) delivery timely information d) create entertainment e) enhance knowledge work 23. is/are added when IS and IT are used to support the goals of the organization. a) Business value b) Information c) Knowledge d) Data e) Wisdom 24. You have been asked to create a database of customers for a small, start-up company. Which part of an information system will you begin with? a) process b) people c) input d) output e) distribution 25. Your supervisor has asked you for a monthly list of overall sales, by region, and by sales representative. Which part of an information system does this request illustrate? a) process b) people c) input d) output e) distribution 26. Using the monthly list of sales, by region, and by sales representative, you discover that a helpful report would be to add year to date sales. Which part of an information system does your insight illustrate? a) process b) people c) input d) output e) distribution 27. Capturing and processing online order transactions is an example of a(n) system. a) TPS b) MIS c) DSS d) ERP e) CRM 28. Providing timely information to decision makers is an example of a(n) system. a) TPS b) MIS c) DSS d) ERP e) CRM 29. Integrating and analyzing customer transactions data is an example of a(n) system. a) TPS b) MIS c) DSS d) ERP e) CRM 30. Integrating and standardizing processes to store and manage data is an example of a(n) system. a) TPS b) MIS c) DSS d) ERP e) CRM 31. A system that enables data-based decisions that lead to new business opportunities is an example of a(n) system. a) TPS b) MIS c) DSS d) ERP e) CRM 32. Illegal use of obtaining financial information on the Internet is called: a) spamming b) phishing c) trolling d) blogging e) scamming 33. IS security systems in an organization provide protection for all of the following except: a) data b) information c) people d) networks e) wisdom 34. Of the 10 forces identified by Friedman as responsible for flattening the world, only one is not directly related to technology. Which is it? a) collapse of the Berlin Wall b) open sourcing c) offshoring d) supply-chaining e) none of the above 35. When a person uses experience, information, and judgment, he/she is using: a) knowledge b) data c) systems d) wisdom 36. Textbooks, websites, and monthly sales reports are examples of knowledge. a) explicit b) process c) output d) tacit e) none of the above 37. Experience, insight, discovery, and wisdom are examples of knowledge. a) explicit b) process c) output d) tacit e) none of the above 38. Which of the following sequences is correct? a) knowledge-information-data b) information-knowledge-data c) data-knowledge-information d) none of them are correct 39. You needed to purchase a new computer system for your office. You have narrowed down your choices from several alternatives. This is an example of a(n): a) input b) output c) decision d) knowledge e) wisdom 40. A(n) system integrates and standardizes processes, and centralizes and standardizes the storage and management of data. a) MIS b) DSS c) CRM d) ERP e) none of the above 41. When we refer to a business, we mean an organisation with one or more people who: A) decide on common goals to pursue B) work together to locate and organize resources C) create processes in order to achieve the desired goals d) all of the above E) none of the above 42. Globalization means: a) that modern businesses are using information technology to expand their market b) to find the lowest cost suppliers regardless of location c) to create 24 hour business days by shovelling work across time zones and nations d) all of the above e) none of the above 43. A(n) provides analytical and visualization tools to support and enhance decision making and planning. a) MIS b) DSS c) CRM d) ERP e) none of the above 44. Chose the statement that is the most accurate. a) The World Wide Web runs over the Internet. b) The Internet runs over the World Wide Web. c) The Internet runs over an intranet. d) The World Wide Web Runs over an intranet. 45. Through processing and reporting features, a(n) provides timely information to decision makers. a) MIS b) DSS c) CRM d) ERP e) none of the above 46. knowledge describes information that you gain through experience. a) Coded b) Tacit c) Explicit d) Learned e) None of the above 47. A is the exchange of something of value the business produces for something in return that the business values: a) transaction b) process c) trade d) currency 48. Knowledge work: a) is a career in information technology b) can be found in any industry c) is only in the field of library studies d) none of the above 49. Which of the following concepts describes the flow through an information system? a) discovery, analysis, transformation, synthesis and communication b) input, output, process c) data, information, knowledge d) all of the above e) none of the above 50. IS security is also known as: a) information assurance b) information insurance c) information security d) antivirus e) none of the above 51. An example of phishing is: a) fishing for a rare type of animal b) cold-calling customers for new business c) attempting to gain logins and passwords d) none of the above 52. According to Arti Davda of Google Canada, what is an important career skill? a) to know a little bit about everything b) to build your network of contacts c) to be a specialist in your field d) to be flexible and to easily adapt to change 53. Organizations and individuals must keep up with these rapid technology changes or risk becoming: a) perfect b) successful c) obsolete d) forgotten 54. VLSI stands for: a) very low-scale integration b) very large-scale integration c) varying low-scale integration d) varying large-scale integration 55. MIS stands for: a) minimized information systems b) maximized information systems c) management information systems d) monetary information systems 56. According to the text, in today’s work environment, it’s impossible to do knowledge work without: a) technology b) information c) knowledge d) money e) all of the above 57. Who said, “Success is a lousy teacher. It seduces smart people into thinking they can’t lose.” a) Bill Gates b) Michael Porter c) Thomas Friedman d) Steve Jobs e) None of the above 58. An information system (IS) is an organized collection of: a) people, transformation, business processes, and communication b) people, information, business processes, and communication c) people, information, business processes, and information technology d) people, transformation, business processes, and information technology 59. An information system (IS) is designed to: a) inform outputs about inputs in order to achieve a goal b) inform inputs about outputs in order to achieve a goal c) transform outputs into inputs in order to achieve a goal d) transform inputs into outputs in order to achieve a goal 60. Information systems enhance: a) work, discussion, problem solving, communicating, and coordinating b) work, discussion, problem solving, information, and coordinating c) work, decision making, problem solving, information, and coordinating d) work, decision making, problem solving, communicating, and coordinating 61. IPO model stands for: a) information-process-output b) input-process-output c) information-people-output d) input-people-output 62. A business should design its information system to leverage the ability to use information technology to its best advantage. a) human b) financial c) environmental d) technological 63. Input items entered into a system are transformed into: a) outputs b) processes c) goals d) none of the above 64. Putting your friends’ contact information into your contact list is an example of: a) input b) data c) outputs d) information 65. A series of one or more steps used by a business to transform inputs into outputs describes: a) input b) process c) outputs d) none of the above 66. A collection of steps that interact with each other to transform inputs into outputs to achieve a goal: a) technology processes b) human processes c) financial processes d) business processes 67. A choice made from one or more alternatives to follow or avoid some course of action is a(n): a) option b) risk c) decision d) mistake 68. A positive ROI of resources created through the effective and efficient integration of an organization’s people, information, information technology, and business processes creates: a) business value b) successes c) goals d) profit e) none of the above 69. The is created at the intersection of people, process, and technology. a) cross zone b) productivity zone c) hierarchy d) pyramid 70. Microsoft Groove, Microsoft SharePoint, and Blackboard are examples of: a) collaboration software b) portals c) data warehouses d) gateways 71. generates business value by making it possible for professionals to share information both between themselves and with business partners. a) cooperation b) collaboration c) commerce d) communication 72. The Internet generates value by being an avenue for the buying and selling of goods, also known as: a) eBay b) commerce c) auction d) reverse auction 73. CRM stands for: a) customer retention management b) customer relationship management c) class relationship management d) class retention management 74. ERP stands for: a) enterprise risk planning b) enterprise resource planning c) enterprise retention planning d) enterprise rotation planning 75. DSS stands for: a) decision support systems b) decision service systems c) decision supply systems d) decision success systems 76. TPS stands for: a) transaction portal system b) transaction paging system c) transaction project system d) transaction processing system 77. Features such as email, meeting facilitation, and group scheduling are examples of: a) collaboration software b) groupware c) productivity software d) middleware e) none of the above 78. The concept of Moore’s Law is: a) everything that can go wrong will b) computing power roughly doubles every 18 months c) always have a backup plan d) the 80/20 rule e) none of the above Norrie, Huber, Piercy, McKeown Introduction to Business Information Systems Second Canadian Edition TEST BANK Chapter 2 1. Clock speed on a computer is measured most recently in: a) Megahertz (MHz) b) Gigahertz (GHz) c) Megabytes (MB) d) Gigabytes (GB) e) None of the above 2. Higher clock speeds usually mean performance. a) faster b) slower c) worse d) better 3. temporarily locates data and instructions before processing. a) Memory b) CPU c) Keyboard d) Mouse e) None of the above 4. Computers have long-term memory called: a) ROM b) RAM c) KB d) GB e) None of the above 5. ROM stands for: a) read only management b) random only management c) read only memory d) random only memory 6. contains instructions and data that only special devices can alter. a) ROM b) RAM c) KB d) GB e) None of the above 7. stores data only until they are no longer needed, or until you shut down the computer. a) ROM b) RAM c) KB d) GB e) None of the above 8. RAM stands for: a) random access management b) read access management c) random access memory d) read access memory 9. PDA stands for: a) professional digital assistant b) programming digital assistant c) personal digital assistant d) portable digital assistant 10. Keyboards, pointing devices (such as a Wii remote, mouse, or touchpad), scanners, and digital cameras are examples of: a) input devices b) output devices c) processing devices d) storage devices e) none of the above 11. Computer monitors, printers, speakers and MP3 players are examples of: a) input devices b) output devices c) processing devices d) storage devices e) none of the above 12. Examples of include the computer hard drive, CDs, DVDs, USB flash memory, and external hard drives a) input devices b) output devices c) processing devices d) storage devices e) none of the above 13. , both wired and wireless, allow you to connect to a remote network over a telecommunications line, such as the telephone or cable TV service. a) Routers b) Bridges c) Switches d) Hubs e) Modems 14. The digital signals going out from your computer into an analog signal appropriate for the connection medium used is called: a) modulation b) demodulation c) conversion d) none of the above 15. Converting an analog signal back into a digital signal that your computer can recognize is called: a) modulation b) demodulation c) conversion d) none of the above 16. BPS stands for: a) bytes per second b) blips per second c) bits per second d) beeps per second 17. You can think about as information that specifies how a hardware device should work with other data, information, and knowledge. a) instructions b) operating system c) software d) drivers 18. The software coordinates and handles the details of working with the computer hardware. a) instruction b) operating system c) driver d) utility 19. software provides additional tools that you can use to maintain and service your system a) Utility b) Driver c) Operating system d) Application e) None of the above 20. A(n) application is an example of utility software that helps guard your computer against unauthorized access when connected to a network. a) driver b) firewall c) antivirus d) malware 21. software is a complete, self-contained program or set of programs for performing a specific job. a) Utility b) Driver c) Operating system d) Application e) None of the above 22. Microsoft Word is an example of: a) document preparation software b) electronic spreadsheet software c) presentation graphics software d) database management system e) none of the above 23. Microsoft Excel is an example of: a) document preparation software b) electronic spreadsheet software c) presentation graphics software d) database management system e) none of the above 24. Microsoft PowerPoint is an example of: a) document preparation software b) electronic spreadsheet software c) presentation graphics software d) database management system e) none of the above 25. Microsoft Access is an example of: a) document preparation software b) electronic spreadsheet software c) presentation graphics software d) database management system e) none of the above 26. Microsoft Outlook is an example of: a) document preparation software b) electronic spreadsheet software c) presentation graphics software d) database management system e) none of the above 27. An example of a personal information management system is: a) Microsoft Word b) Microsoft Excel c) Microsoft PowerPoint d) Microsoft Access e) None of the above 28. is/are software that is more common in enterprises. Its purpose is to link applications that use dissimilar software or hardware platform. a) Utility software b) Middleware c) Open source software d) Drivers 29. software is software that can be used, modified, improved, and redistributed. a) Utility b) Middleware c) Open source d) Driver 30. Today, the fastest-growing network is arguably our global computer network, known as the: a) Internet b) extranet c) intranet d) none of the above 31. A computer network requires four primary components. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a) data that computers share on the network b) special hardware c) software that allows computers to communicate d) communication media to link the computers together e) none of the above 32. A area network covers a very small space that ranges from the size of a human body to a small office. a) personal b) local c) wide d) municipal e) none of the above 33. A area network is within the immediate location or building. a) personal b) local c) wide d) municipal e) none of the above 34. POTS stands for: a) plain original telephone system b) plain original telecom system c) plain old telephone system d) plain old telecom system 35. A connects, translates, and then directs data that cross between two networks. a) router b) hub c) repeater d) bridge 36. A serves as a central connection point for cables from the devices on the network. a) router b) hub c) repeater d) bridge 37. A is also known as a concentrator. a) router b) hub c) repeater d) bridge 38. A is sometimes needed to strengthen or amplify signals that are sent along a long transmission route. a) router b) hub c) repeater d) bridge 39. The Internet is sometimes known as a area network. a) personal b) local c) wide d) municipal e) none of the above 40. Servers are often assigned a specific task, such as handling Web traffic. What is this type of server called? a) web server b) application server c) gateway server d) firewall server 41. Servers are often assigned a specific task, such as running programs. What is this type of server called? a) web server b) application server c) gateway server d) firewall server 42. A is a standard set of rules that allows the communication of data between nodes on a network. a) moral b) code c) protocol d) ethic 43. The Internet uses the suite of packet switching protocols a) HTML b) XML c) VoiP d) TCP/IP 44. Who owns the Internet? a) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) b) The Internet Architecture Board (IAB) c) The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) d) None of the above 45. ISP stands for: a) Internet supply provider b) Internet service provider c) Internet server provider d) Internet support provider 46. is the popular name for 802.11 standards for wireless network access. a) Wi-Fi b) VoIP c) Cloud d) TCP/IP 47. uses the Internet’s foundation technologies of packet switching and TCP/IP to carry voice instead of data. a) Wi-Fi b) VoIP c) Cloud d) TCP/IP 48. computing simply means computing over the Internet. a) Wi-Fi b) VoIP c) Cloud d) TCP/IP 49. There are several benefits to cloud computing. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a) reduced cost b) scalability c) accessibility d) limited 50. The Internet is currently using IPv4. What is the next version that will be employed? a) IPv6 b) IPv4.1 c) IPv5 d) None of the above 51. A static web page file will typically hold a combination of text content and commands a) HTML b) JavaScript c) Ajax d) C+ 52. A is a software application that allows you to easily navigate the Web and to view the content that you find there. a) web server b) web browser c) search engine d) none of the above 53. The comprises the set of rules for exchanging messages on the World Wide Web. a) FTP b) XML c) HTTP d) TCP/IP 54. Who is known as the inventor of the World Wide Web? a) Tim Berners-Lee b) Bill Gates c) Steve Jobs d) Thomas L. Friedman e) None of the above 55. HTTP lives at the layer of networks. a) application b) presentation c) network d) data link e) none of the above 56. is the primary language for creating web pages. a) HTML b) JavaScript c) Ajax d) C+ 57. move around from site to site, read meta tags, and report the data back to their database for storage. a) Spiders b) Metasearch engines c) Crabs d) Web browsers 58. Another term for crawlers is: a) spiders b) metasearch c) crabs d) queries 59. A sends out a search query to other search engines, and then returns the list to you. a) metasearch engine b) spider c) SQL d) crawler 60. refers to fixed information, such as company information, online marketing, and electronic versions of company brochures. a) User content b) Automatic content c) Static content d) Dynamic content 61. Which technology is indicative of first-generation e-commerce? a) user content b) automatic content c) static content d) dynamic content 62. With , information on a web page can change depending on a number of factors. a) user content b) automatic content c) static content d) dynamic content 63. A is a small bit of data, usually created by programs running on the server, stored on the client machine, and passed back and forth in the HTTP request and response. a) cookie b) bit c) byte d) code 64. When data remain available for a period of time, it is known as data a) persistent b) permanent c) temporary d) imminent 65. The most common client-side scripting language is: a) JavaScript b) AJAX c) AdobeScript d) ActiveX 66. With server-side programming, a business can do many things. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a) deliver content that it customizes for the individual user b) access data stored in a server-side database and send it to the client’s browser c) optimally manage the traffic to the site d) none of the above 67. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary components of a typical e- commerce site? a) the shopping and ordering system b) the customer account c) the payment gateway d) the security system 68. A is a company that provides a network to process encrypted transactions from a merchant’s website. a) secure gateway provider b) Internet service provider c) payment gateway d) firewall service 69. A links an e-commerce site with the banking network. a) secure gateway provider b) Internet service provider c) payment gateway d) firewall service 70. A server that encrypts data using the SSL protocol is known as a: a) secure server b) gateway server c) firewall d) network server 71. SSL is currently being replaced by a newer protocol called the: a) HTTP b) XML c) VoiP d) TLS e) SET 72. We are currently in the generation of e-commerce. a) first b) third c) fourth d) fifth e) sixth 73. is a standardized way for one computer program to request and run another computer program over the Internet. a) A web service b) A protocol c) Software as a Service d) A mashup 74. is a web application that seamlessly combines information from more than one source into an integrated experience. a) A web service b) A protocol c) Software as a service d) A mashup 75. The use of malicious code as part of a subversive, organized scheme is called: a) malware b) scareware c) virus d) worm 76. A type of malware designed to trick victims into purchasing and downloading useless and potentially dangerous software is called: a) malware b) scareware c) virus d) worm 77. A program that is able to copy itself and infect a computer is called: a) malware b) scareware c) virus d) worm 78. Once started on a computer (by clicking an email attachment), it automatically sends out infected emails to everybody in the user’s address book. This type of risk is called: a) malware b) scareware c) virus d) worm 79. Unsolicited and undesired emails are called: a) junk b) spam c) DoS d) phishing 80. An attempt to gain personal and confidential information for fraudulent purposes such as identity theft is called: a) junk b) spam c) DoS d) phishing 81. An attempt to make a website unavailable to its users. An attacker will do this by sending a target so many communication requests that the target server eventually goes down. This describes: a) junk b) spam c) DoS d) phishing 82. To ensure that your password is and remains as strong as possible, you should follow all these guidelines EXCEPT: a) use at least eight characters b) include digits, punctuation, and nonprinting characters c) use both upper- and lowercase characters d) use the same passwords on different accounts e) change your password regularly and don’t reuse passwords or make minor variations such as incrementing a digit 83. A chalk mark on the side of the building put there by a hacker indicating an open network was available inside is called: a) warchalking b) chalktagging c) chalking d) chalkmarking 84. Software tools that help individuals and teams keep up with their scheduled meetings, monitor projects and share work files are known as: a) Groupware b) Microsoft Groove c) SharePoint d) Blackboard 85. A(n) is a set of services for distributing private information throughout the organization using a collection of private computer networks brought together to form an organization-wide, private network. a) Internet b) extranet c) intranet d) none of the above 86. People can use Windows, Apple, and other types of machines on the Internet as well as an intranet making it: a) freeware b) platform independent c) open source d) none of the above 87. is a communications service that allows users to communicate in real time over the Internet. a) Instant messaging b) BlackBerry messaging c) Skype d) WebEx 88. is a method of publishing audio programs via the Internet that allows users of just about any digital audio device to download broadcasts or to subscribe to a feed of new files (usually MP3s). a) Podcasting b) Blogging c) Vlogging d) Broadcasting 89. A is a group of people who work across geographic distance. a) dispersed team b) localized team c) dedicated team d) virtual team 90. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using a GDT? a) People can work from any place and at any time. b) Organizations can recruit the best people regardless of their physical location. c) Travel and sometimes facilities expenses are increased. d) There is greater flexibility for workers. 91. Which of the following statements about the Internet is true? a) A wireless device cannot be used to connect to the Internet. b) The Internet and the World Wide Web are interchangeable terms. c) The Internet was discovered by Al Gore. d) Home users require an ISP to connect to the Internet. e) Dial-up and broadband provide faster access to the Internet. 92. The hardware location that temporarily stores data and instruction is: a) USB key b) ROM c) RAM d) Hard drive 93. Network traffic hardware includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) routers b) bridges c) hard drives d) repeaters e) hubs 94. The components of IT perform all of the following functions EXCEPT: a) retrieving, displaying, and sending information b) applying logic to make decisions c) handling customer service d) performing mathematical calculations e) accepting and storing information 95. Computer networks can be classified in which of the following ways? a) geographically and physically b) socially c) systematically d) user-friendly 96. temporarily locates data and instructions before processing. a) Processing b) Memory c) Input d) Output e) Storage 97. A flash memory stick is an example of: a) input b) output c) storage d) network e) scanner 98. stores data information and instructions for the long term. a) Processing b) Memory c) Input d) Output e) Storage 99. The is often referred to as the computer’s “brain.” a) CPU b) LCU c) RAM d) ROM 100. Which of the following types of software controls the primary functions of a computer system? a) utility b) drivers c) application d) network e) operating system 101. Which of the following is NOT considered part of a computer network? a) nodes b) software c) users d) links e) an electronic document 102. Network connection hardware includes all of the following components EXCEPT: a) phone lines b) NIC c) modems d) cable modems e) wireless cards 103. CPU stands for: a) central packet unit b) controller processing unit c) controller packet unit d) central processing unit e) none of the above 104. Which of the following statements about IS security is NOT true? a) It is important to load the latest updates or patches to your antivirus software. b) S is software that you can use to scan and disinfect your computer. c) It is essential to obtain and run a firewall. d) The Internet has antivirus software built in making antivirus software unnecessary. e) You should never open email attachments unless you know the sender and were expecting the email. 105. Which of the following statements about a central database system is NOT true? a) Multiple users can access or update data quickly. b) Users can update data from multiple and remote locations. c) Access to data is never limited or restricted. d) To maintain accuracy, access to data can be limited while data are being processed. e) Records are locked as information is updated within it. 106. In a computer, the holds the instructions used to control the start-up processes. a) CPU b) LCU c) RAM d) ROM e) None of the above 107. A plotter is: a) a printer b) a scanner c) special architectural hardware d) none of the above 108. In terms of IT, a protocol is: a) a set of rules of how a user operates a computer b) a set of courses that one uses to learn how to use a computer c) a set standard set of rules that allows communications d) a set of rules that experts in the field use devices 109. The Internet uses: a) TCP/IP suite of packet switching protocols b) number of routers connecting points throughout the world c) proprietary set of rules d) A and B e) B and C 110. Wi-Fi is what number of standard defined by the IEEE? a) 802.1 b) 802.1a c) 802.11 d) 802.11a 111. Software can be defined as: a) something that is controlled by the hardware b) something that comes with the computer itself c) a collection of instructions that in IT device executes d) games and productive programs 112. Processing, memory and storage are three components of: a) information technology b) basic hardware c) networking components d) none of the above 113. PPM stands for: a) people per minute b) packets per minute c) pages per minute d) pounds per minute e) none of the above 114. PPM is used to gauge the performance of: a) how fast a printer prints pages b) how much network resources a printer uses c) how many packets are sent through a network d) how many packets a single computer sends out e) none of the above 115. Modem speed is measured in: a) PPM b) BPS c) RPM d) none of the above 116. An example of a DBMS would be: a) Microsoft Word b) Microsoft Excel c) Microsoft Outlook d) Microsoft Access e) None of the above 117. An example of presentation graphics software would be: a) Microsoft Word b) Microsoft Excel c) Microsoft Outlook d) Microsoft Access e) None of the above 118. An example of document preparation software would be: a) Microsoft Word b) Microsoft Excel c) Microsoft Outlook d) Microsoft Access e) None of the above 119. An example of electronic spreadsheet software would be: a) Microsoft Word b) Microsoft Excel c) Microsoft Outlook d) Microsoft Access e) None of the above 120. A computer network consists of that represent computer hardware. a) communications b) nodes c) ports d) none of the above 121. A(n) provides a gateway to many other websites. a) search engine b) portal c) ISP d) affiliate e) community 122. “HTTP is stateless” means that: a) it does not belong to any nation state b) it has no boundaries c) it forgets about requests and responses after they are complete d) HTML has no state e) it is international 123. The language used by web services for marking the exchanged data according to their meaning is: a) XML b) SOAP c) WSDL d) UDDI 124. The you type into your browser can also be called a web address. a) HTTP b) HTML c) URL d) XML e) None of the above 125. GUI stands for: a) graphical user interface b) graphical user internet c) graded user interface d) graphical unified interface e) graded unified internet 126. HTTP stands for: a) hypertext traded protocol b) hybrid transfer protocol c) hypertext transfer principle d) hybrid traded protocol e) none of the above 127. The Internet and the World Wide Web use which protocol to transmit messages? a) HTTP b) TCPIP c) HTML d) URL e) None of the above 128. HTTP must be: a) connectionless and stateless b) connected and stateless c) connectionless and stateful d) connected and stateful 129. A static web page file will typically hold a combination of text content and: a) XML commands b) URL commands c) HTML commands d) HTTP commands 130. A standard set of rules for transmitting messages between the client and the server is called: a) HTTP b) HTML c) XML d) URL 131. Which of the following is true regarding the use of passwords? a) They should be no more than eight characters long. b) They should include only lowercase letters. c) They should include digits, punctuation, and nonprinting characters. d) They should not be changed regularly. 132. Which of the following is the process of identifying an individual and ensuring that he or she is who they claim to be? a) authentication b) affiliate c) portal d) personalization 133. An example of a web presence as discussed in the textbook would be: a) an individual who has a profile on Facebook b) an email account c) a company’s website d) all of the above e) none of the above 134. Which control limits access to authorized users, thereby reducing the risk to compromised data? a) security b) encryption c) passwords d) networks 135. Which category of the computer hierarchy includes computers that use high-speed processing chips and a large amount of memory to carry out organizational processing? a) embedded processors b) mainframes c) personal computers d) servers e) supercomputers 136. Programmable chips that are built into products to make them “smart” are known as: a) collaborative software b) embedded processors c) artificial intelligence d) expert system 137. An important new IS infrastructure that is built with the goal of supporting web services is known as: a) voice over IP b) active service provider network c) service-oriented architecture d) public-private key encryption e) social networking 138. Businesses that use only first-generation technology are limited to providing only: a) dynamic content b) static content c) direct content d) indirect content 139. A small bit of data, usually created by programs running on the server and is stored on the client machine is called a: a) FTP site b) persistent data c) browser file d) cookie e) crumbs 140. Browser software interpret HTML instructions through the use of: a) tags b) metadata c) coding d) programming e) none of the above Norrie, Huber, Piercy, McKeown Introduction to Business Information Systems Second Canadian Edition TEST BANK Chapter 3 1. According to Tom Beaman, what is some good advice for students seeking a career in IT or business? a) always be changing b) grow your network of contacts c) know a little about everything d) be a specialist in your field 2. A broad-based formula for how a business is going to compete, what its goals should be, and what plans and policies will be needed to carry out those goals is a definition of what? a) documentation b) strategy c) planning d) requirements 3. Which of the following is NOT one of Porter’s five forces? a) new entrants b) suppliers c) buyers d) statistics 4. The open systems model indicates that a business operates by transforming into and by constantly interacting with its environment. a) inputs; outputs b) outputs; inputs c) processes; goals d) goals; processes 5. A is a person or entity that has an interest in and an influence on how a business will function in order to succeed (or in order not to fail). a) president or CEO b) stakeholder c) shareholder d) manager 6. A stakeholder may be or relative to the system. a) external; internal b) above; below c) to the right; to the left d) inside; outside 7. Influence may be or . a) actual; potential b) real; imagined c) right; wrong d) powerful; weak 8. In functional and decentralized structures, the lines of authority (who has the right to tell whom to do what) and communication are oriented. a) vertically b) horizontally c) diagonally d) none of the above 9. However, the matrix structure the functional and decentralized organizational structures. a) opposes b) aligns c) contradicts d) blends 10. Which of the following is an advantage of the matrix organizational structure? a) frustration due to dual lines of authority and responsibility b) enhanced problem solving, cooperation, communication, and resource sharing c) increased need for coordination between functional areas consumes time and resources d) potential for goal conflict between functional and decentralized components of matrix 11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the matrix organizational structure? a) increased flexibility and responsiveness to business needs and environmental changes b) enhanced problem solving, cooperation, communication, and resource sharing c) increased need for coordination between functional areas consumes time and resources d) decision making occurs lower in organization and closer to customer 12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the functional organizational structure? a) economies of scale through efficient use of resources b) significant technical expertise found in the functional areas c) clear chain of authority and communications within a function d) employees may focus on functional area goals rather than organizational goals 13. Which of the following is an advantage of the functional organizational structure? a) significant technical expertise found in the functional areas b) poor communication and coordination between functional areas c) relatively inflexible or slow to respond to change in the business environment d) employees may focus on functional area 14. Which of the following is an advantage of the decentralized organizational structure? a) duplication of resources and efforts across organizational units b) technical knowledge not as in-depth relative to functional organizational form c) greater development of breadth of managerial skills d) less direct control by upper management 15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the decentralized organizational structure? a) less direct control by upper management b) faster response and greater flexibility c) greater communication and coordination between organizational units d) greater development of breadth of managerial skills 16. Organizations need to perform a series of steps known as a business: a) value b) process c) goal d) plan 17. to a process are those resources needed to start a process. a) Inputs b) Guides c) Outputs d) Enablers 18. are rules or policies within which a process must operate. a) Inputs b) Guides c) Outputs d) Enablers 19. are the results of a process. a) Inputs b) Guides c) Outputs d) Enablers 20. are a special kind of input or resource that facilitates a process. a) Inputs b) Guides c) Outputs d) Enablers 21. Data, information, and knowledge are examples of to a process. a) inputs b) guides c) outputs d) enablers 22. is a special kind of measurement created by a business process that is then returned to the system to control the system’s future inputs, processes, and outputs. a) Feedback b) Monitoring c) Reporting d) None of the above 23. Which of the following is not a goal of BPR? a) reduce costs b) increase throughput c) increase speed d) increase satisfaction 24. One of the first ways that a business seeks to apply IT is through: a) communicating b) transforming c) automating d) informating 25. According to the text, which of the following is a benefit derived from automation for the banking industry? a) increases speed and accuracy of product transactions b) increases flexibility and improves access of services to customers c) improves accuracy d) reduces costs and transfers control to customers 26. According to the text, which of the following is a benefit derived from automation for the travel industry? a) increases speed and accuracy of product transactions b) improves accuracy c) reduces costs and transfers control to customers d) allows transfer of processes to customers through online services 27. According to the text, which of the following is not a benefit derived from automation for the grocery/retail industry? a) increases speed and accuracy of product transactions b) improves accuracy c) allows transfer of processes to customers through online services d) reduces costs and transfers control to customers 28. is recognizing that executing processes also creates new data and information. a) Communicating b) Automating c) Informating d) Transforming 29. Using IT to help them acquire or maintain a competitive advantage over or in line with their competitors defines: a) communicating b) automating c) informating d) transforming 30. A company possesses a when it sustains higher-than-average profits for its industry. a) large market share b) monopoly c) competitive advantage d) oligopoly 31. There are two basic ways of obtaining competitive advantage. What are they? a) cost and differentiation b) cost and placement c) differentiation and placement d) none of the above 32. A(n) is one that can be programmed; it is routine or repetitive. a) unstructured decision b) fully structured decision c) structured decision d) semi-structured decision 33. Sometimes even simple decisions may have increased uncertainty, or doubt about consequences and outcomes, associated with them. This would be an example of a: a) unstructured decision b) fully structured decision c) structured decision d) semi-structured decision 34. This is a novel, complex situation, with no obvious or single correct decision or decision process: a) unstructured decision b) fully structured decision c) structured decision d) semi-structured decision 35. People can endlessly analyze information—a never-ending process known as: a) productivity b) efficiency c) analysis paralysis d) effectiveness 36. is the ability to create business value with the least cost. a) Productivity b) Efficiency c) Analysis paralysis d) Effectiveness 37. Getting the most output from a given input is known as: a) productivity b) efficiency c) analysis paralysis d) effectiveness 38. Pursuing the goal or task that is appropriate for the given situation is known as: a) productivity b) efficiency c) analysis paralysis d) effectiveness 39. can be thought of as “doing the right thing, right.” a) Productivity b) Efficiency c) Analysis paralysis d) Effectiveness 40. Which of the following is not an information characteristic? a) complete b) accurate c) readable d) timely 41. A exists when you find yourself in a situation that fails to meet your goals, needs, or expectations. a) conflict b) process c) problem d) situation 42. refers to a series of steps or a process (logical sequence of activities) taken in response to some event or activity. a) Conflict resolution b) Debriefing c) Problem solving d) Situational review 43. Which of the following is NOT a major step in the IADD model? a) investigate b) analyze c) decide d) do e) none of the above 44. SQL stands for: a) structured query language b) structured query logic c) simplified query language d) none of the above 45. are the factors that you think are important and relevant to solving the problem. a) Criteria b) Metrics 46. This step of the IADD model is where you implement tasks and other physical activities according to your solution: a) investigate b) analyze c) decide d) do e) none of the above 47. Decision makers use to determine what is measured and how to measure it. a) criteria b) metrics 48. CSR stands for: a) customer service representative b) customer service responsibility c) corporate service representative d) corporate social responsibility 49. This implies an increasing scrutiny on businesses about the decisions they make and the rationale for them. What is it? a) corporate social responsibility b) green IT c) ethics d) protocols 50. Which of the following is a way decisions can be classified? a) structured, unstructured, rational, problematic b) unstructured, semistructured, structured c) rational, irrational, problematic d) complete, accurate, reliable, timely 51. The third stage of the IADD problem-solving model is: a) deliberate b) decide c) debate d) defer e) delegate 52. In order, from first to last, the four phases of the decision-making process are: a) analysis, discovery, decision, execution b) discovery, analysis, decision, execution c) analysis, decision, discovery, execution d) decision, discovery, analysis, execution 53. Problem solving refers to: a) a series of steps or a logical sequence of activities to respond to an event b) a series of steps that transforms an unstructured decision to a structured decision c) a series of steps that synthesizes several sources of information d) a logical sequence of activities to analyze a problem 54. In the context of the IADD model, criteria are applied to evaluate each alternative’s relative value and applicability in the step. a) deliberate b) decide c) debate d) do e) delegate 55. Knowledge work activities include all of the following except: a) discovery and transformation b) input and output c) analysis and synthesis d) communication of data e) information and knowledge 56. Which of the following is an example of a metasearch engine? a) Google b) AltaVista c) Copernic d) Yahoo e) Firefox 57. Which of the following is an example of the transformation of data? a) a database query b) results from a web search c) a client/customer list d) sales data for the third quarter e) creating a mailing list 58. The problem solving process consists of which of the following elements: a) investigate, analyze, decide, do b) discovery, transformation, analysis, synthesis, communication c) completeness, accuracy, reliability, relevance, objectivity, timeliness d) decision making, problem solving, communication, technology 59. Generating alternative solutions or choices to solve a problem may mean that you may have to gather more data. This means that you will be using which of the following knowledge work activities? a) transformation b) investigation c) analysis d) synthesis e) discovery 60. A private version of the Internet maintained by a company is a(n): a) intranet b) World Wide Web c) email d) LAN 61. Informing others of your information, ideas, and solutions represents which type of knowledge work? a) communication b) discovery c) analysis d) synthesis e) transformation 62. According to the text, knowledge work consists of all of the following activities EXCEPT: a) communication b) discovery c) analysis d) synthesis e) networking 63. Setting one’s own schedule for the day represents which of the following types of decisions? a) semistructured b) structured c) unstructured d) destructured e) multistructured 64. Using the search engines available on the Internet will aid you in which step of knowledge work activity? a) communication b) discovery c) analysis d) synthesis e) transformation 65. In the discovery phase, you are most likely to find: a) knowledge b) wisdom c) information d) data 66. A mandatory course that you have to take that is part of your requirements for graduation would be an example of a(n): a) structured decision b) semistructured decision c) unstructured decision d) none of the above e) all of the above 67. An elective course that you have to take (i.e., you must choose one liberal art course from a list would be an example of a(n): a) structured decision b) semistructured decision c) unstructured decision d) none of the above e) all of the above 68. A course that does not necessarily fit into the requirements for graduation (i.e., a course after you have graduated) that you decide to take is an example of a(n): a) structured decision b) semistructured decision c) unstructured decision d) none of the above e) all of the above 69. If you were a sidewalk vendor of frozen drinks in Saskatoon, Saskatchewan, and you only sell one frozen drink in January your effort would be considered: a) unproductive b) inefficient c) ineffective d) none of the above 70. If you were a sidewalk vendor of frozen drinks in Saskatoon, Saskatchewan, and you are able to produce more drinks for the amount of raw materials you have, you would be considered: a) unproductive b) inefficient c) ineffective d) none of the above 71. The quality of the final output of this process (the decision) will likely be based on the quality of the inputs (the information and analysis you create) is the basis for this principle: a) FIDO b) GIGO c) AGO d) IADD e) none of the above 72. The steps that one goes through in knowledge work activities can be referred to as: a) project flows b) work product c) product flows d) work flows e) none of the above 73. The end result that one receives in completing knowledge work activities can be referred to as: Search engines use which technology to discover new information and pages on the Internet? a) project flows b) work product c) product flows d) work flows e) none of the above 74. Search engines use which technology to discover new pages and Internet sites? a) bees b) spiders c) packets d) IP addresses e) none of the above 75. In World Wide Web terms, a “hit” is: a) a visit to a website b) a home run c) an attack on the site d) a website that has been taken down e) none of the above 76. In class, we use as our spreadsheet software. a) Microsoft Office b) Corel Quattro Pro c) Microsoft Access d) Microsoft Excel e) None of the above 77. In class, we use as our database software: a) Microsoft Office b) Corel Quattro Pro c) Microsoft Access d) Microsoft Excel e) None of the above 78. If you only have seven digits of a phone number in Toronto, the information is: a) complete b) incomplete c) inaccurate d) accurate 79. If the mark you receive for this test is not correct, then it would be deemed: a) complete b) incomplete c) inaccurate d) accurate 80. If you put up your umbrella just as the rain begins to fall, your action is: a) reliable b) unreliable c) timely d) untimely 81. are the factors that you think are important and relevant to solving a problem. a) Selections b) Choices c) Criteria d) Determinants 82. Which of the following is NOT part of Porter’s five forces model? a) globalization advantages b) new entrants barriers c) suppliers bargaining power d) substitution barriers e) buyers bargaining power 83. The IADD model of problem solving can be used effectively in which stage of the business intelligence model? a) data analysis b) data sourcing c) situation awareness d) risk assessment e) decision support Norrie, Huber, Piercy, McKeown Introduction to Business Information Systems Second Canadian Edition TEST BANK Chapter 4 1. The is a connected series of activities, each of which adds value or supports the addition of value to the firm’s goods or services. a) value chain b) business process c) logistic d) enterprise resource management e) supply chain 2. include the receiving, warehousing, and inventory control of raw materials required to create a product or service a) Inbound logistics b) Operations c) Outbound logistics d) Marketing and sales e) None of the above 3. are the value-creating and often proprietary activities that transform the raw inputs into the final product. a) Inbound logistics b) Operations c) Outbound logistics d) Marketing and sales e) None of the above 4. are the activities required to get the finished product to the customer, including packaging, warehousing, and order fulfillment. a) Inbound logistics b) Operations c) Outbound logistics d) Marketing and sales e) None of the above 5. are all activities associated with getting buyers to purchase the product, including working with distributors, retailers, or online channels. a) Inbound logistics b) Operations c) Outbound logistics d) Marketing and sales e) None of the above 6. are those that maintain and enhance the product’s value, including customer support, repair services, and warranty and recall. a) Inbound logistics b) Operations c) Outbound logistics d) Marketing and sales e) None of the above 7. We normally think of as those directly related to the production and distribution of the organization’s products and services. a) primary activities b) secondary activities c) support activities d) tertiary activities 8. activities are value chain activities that an organization conducts to support the creation of business value by the activities. a) primary; secondary b) secondary; support c) support; primary d) secondary; primary 9. Porter identified four critical support activities. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a) firm infrastructure b) production management c) technology development d) human resource management 10. Referred to as , they focus on the activities of the functional department to improve its efficiency and effectiveness. a) functional information systems (FIS) b) workflow management system (WMS) c) point-of-sale (POS) d) transaction processing system (TPS) 11. By focusing on a business process from beginning to end, a supports activities that several departments of the organization may carry out. a) functional information systems (FIS) b) workflow management system (WMS) c) point-of-sale (POS) d) transaction processing system (TPS) 12. enable transaction activities and capture the key data created by the transaction. a) Functional information systems (FIS) b) Workflow management system (WMS) c) Point-of-sale (POS) d) Transaction processing system (TPS) 13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a transaction? a) atomicity b) consistency c) independence d) durability 14. Which of the following characteristics is described as: “A transaction must be unequivocally completed”? a) atomicity b) consistency c) isolation d) durability 15. Which of the following characteristics is described as: “The characteristics of a completed transaction should be permanent”? a) atomicity b) consistency c) isolation d) durability 16. Which of the following characteristics is described as: “All unchanging properties of data must be preserved”? a) atomicity b) consistency c) isolation d) durability 17. Which of the following characteristics is described as: “Each transaction should execute independently of other transactions that may occur at the same time on the system”? a) atomicity b) consistency c) isolation d) durability 18. Most retail stores use a to capture and store much of the data about their products. a) functional information systems (FIS) b) workflow management system (WMS) c) point-of-sale (POS) d) transaction processing system (TPS) 19. Management information systems (MIS) typically generate three types of reports. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a) demand reports b) periodic reports c) transaction reports d) exception reports 20. A(n) is designed to provide summary information about business performance to those making higher-level strategic decisions. a) executive information systems (EIS) b) document management systems (DMS) c) enterprise resource planning (ERP) d) logistics management systems (LMS) 21. A(n) enters, tracks, routes, and processes the many documents used in an organization. a) executive information systems (EIS) b) document management systems (DMS) c) enterprise resource planning (ERP) d) logistics management systems (LMS) 22. includes anything that can be written down, stored, and codified. a) Explicit knowledge b) Implicit knowledge c) Tacit knowledge d) Persistent knowledge 23. includes the know-how that people have through learning and experience, which is difficult to write down and share. a) Explicit knowledge b) Implicit knowledge c) Tacit knowledge d) Persistent knowledge 24. To support tacit knowledge, knowledge management systems often rely on collaborative software, which supports teamwork with technologies that enable communication and sharing of data and information. This category is known as: a) shareware b) freeware c) groupware d) software e) hardware 25. Conferencing tools, online bulletin boards and chat facilities, email, and meeting support applications would be an example of which type of DSS? a) communications-driven b) data-driven c) document-driven d) knowledge-driven e) model-driven 26. Executive information systems (EIS), geographic information systems (GIS), and OLAP- enabled data warehouses would be an example of which type of DSS? a) communications-driven b) data-driven c) document-driven d) knowledge-driven e) model-driven 27. Which type of DSS focuses on retrieval and management of unstructured documents? a) communications-driven b) data-driven c) document-driven d) knowledge-driven e) model-driven 28. Expert systems (ES), artificial intelligence applications, and data mining tools would be an example of which type of DSS? a) communications-driven b) data-driven c) document-driven d) knowledge-driven e) model-driven 29. Which type of DSS provides special problem-solving tools that help decision making by suggesting or recommending actions to users? a) communications-driven b) data-driven c) document-driven d) knowledge-driven e) model-driven 30. A is a system of organizations, people, technology, activities, information, and resources involved in moving a product or service from supplier to customer. a) value chain b) business process c) logistic d) enterprise resource management system e) supply chain 31. One way to integrate the departments and functions across an organization is to use software. a) executive information systems (EIS) b) document management systems (DMS) c) enterprise resource planning (ERP) d) logistics management systems (LMS) 32. Which system tracks materials and other assets upon arrival into the warehouse and inventory? a) executive information systems (EIS) b) document management systems (DMS) c) enterprise resource planning (ERP) d) logistics management systems (LMS) 33. constantly monitor the supply of finished goods to ensure that enough supply is on hand to meet demand. a) Inventory management systems (IMS) b) Transportation management systems (TMS) c) Human resource information systems (HRIS) d) Logistics management systems (LMS) 34. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of SaaS? a) Clients no longer have to develop or maintain the applications. b) Applications are available anywhere clients can gain access to the Web. c) Satisfaction of the employees and customers are increased. d) Costs are reduced, as clients pay for only what they use and for only as long as they use the service. 35. Which of the following are examples of SaaS that are delivered by Google? a) Gmail b) Google Docs c) None of the above d) All of the above 36. A(n) is an online technology company that develops and del