Marieb Essentials of Human Anatomy Physiology 10th testbank

Marieb Essentials of Human Anatomy Physiology 10th testbankTEST BANK Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into equal right and left parts is called: 1) A) median (midsagittal) B) oblique C) transverse D) frontal E) coronal 2) Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body: A) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level B) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level C) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level D) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level E) cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level 2) 3) Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm: 3) A) femoral, popliteal, patellar B) brachial, antecubital, carpal C) nasal, oral, occipital D) pelvic, pubic, inguinal E) acromial, sacral, gluteal 4) The muscular system consists of the: 4) A) muscles in the walls of hollow organs B) muscles of the heart and those in the walls of the hollow organs C) skeletal muscles D) skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart E) muscles of the heart 5) The lymphatic system: 5) A) synthesizes vitamin D B) responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands C) secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells D) picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood E) produces heat 6) Which system covers the external surface of the body and manufactures vitamin D: 6) A) endocrine system B) skeletal system C) nervous system D) integumentary system E) lymphatic system 7) Which of these regions are NOT associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head: 7) A) oral B) orbital C) buccal D) nasal E) occiptal 8) Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides: 8) A) respiratory system - digestion B) nervous system - excretion C) muscular system - maintaining boundaries D) integumentary system - movement E) nervous system - responsiveness 9) Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change: 9) A) receptor B) control center C) effector D) stimulus E) efferent pathway 10) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and stomach: 10) A) both of these organs are located medially B) both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant C) the spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right upper quadrant D) both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant E) the spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant 11) Which of these is NOT a survival need: 11) A) oxygen B) water C) reproduction D) body temperature E) nutrients 12) Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system: 12) A) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response B) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response C) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response D) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response E) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response 13) Which of the following activities does not represent an anatomical study: 13) A) viewing muscle tissue through a microscope B) studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses C) observing the parts of a reproducing cell D) examining the surface of a bone E) making a section through the heart to observe its interior 14) The dorsal body cavity houses the: 14) A) heart and lungs B) spinal cord and brain C) tongue D) urinary and reproductive organs E) digestive and reproductive organs 15) The stomach, liver, intestines, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs are housed in the: 15) A) abdominopelvic cavity B) dorsal cavity C) spinal cavity D) cranial cavity E) thoracic cavity 16) Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function: 16) A) nutrients B) maintaining boundaries C) movement D) responsiveness E) metabolism 17) The study of the function of the body and body parts is called: 17) A) homeostasis B) anatomy C) physiology D) irritability E) negative feedback 18) Which of these regions in the abdominopelvic cavity are medial: 18) A) epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions B) umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar regions C) epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac regions D) iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric regions E) right and left iliac (inguinal), and hypogastric regions 19) The region that contains the navel is the: 19) A) umbilical region B) orbital region C) carpal region D) anterior knee E) inguinal region 20) The gluteal region is the: 20) A) posterior knee area B) posterior surface of the head C) shoulder blade region D) buttock E) curve of the shoulder 21) Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans): 21) A) medial and anterior B) superficial and proximal C) posterior and intermediate D) distal and proximal E) medial and distal 22) Your body thermostat is located in a part of the brain called the hypothalamus. Which of the following elements of a control system does this area in the brain represent: A) stimulus B) afferent pathway C) efferent pathway 22) D) effector E) control center 23) The ovary is part of which of the following two systems: 23) A) digestive and respiratory systems B) reproductive and endocrine systems C) digestive and endocrine systems D) reproductive and respiratory systems E) endocrine and respiratory systems 24) Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the: 24) A) digestive and urinary systems B) digestive system C) urinary system D) respiratory system E) digestive and respiratory systems 25) Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection: 25) A) spinal B) pelvic C) abdominal D) cranial E) thoracic 26) The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the: 26) A) digestive system B) nervous system C) endocrine system D) skeletal system E) integumentary system 27) Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity: A) dorsal B) transverse C) sagittal D) coronal E) ventral 27) 28) Which of the following regional terms means the anterior surface of the elbow: 28) A) vertebral region B) antecubital region C) calcaneal region D) scapular region E) gluteal region 29) In describing the relationship of the thoracic and spinal cavities: 29) A) the thoracic cavity is superior to the spinal cavity B) the thoracic cavity is medial to the spinal cavity C) the thoracic cavity is proximal to the spinal cavity D) the thoracic cavity is ventral to the spinal cavity E) the thoracic cavity is inferior to the spinal cavity 30) Which of these structures is the most complex: 30) A) a tissue B) a molecule C) a cell D) organ system E) an organ 31) Sarah fell while ice skating and broke a bone in her carpal region. Where is this region? 31) A) wrist B) shoulder C) lower leg D) hip E) knee 32) In anatomical position: 32) A) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward B) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing forward C) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing backward D) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward E) the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward 33) The lungs and heart are in the body cavity. 33) A) spinal B) thoracic C) abdominopelvic D) cranial E) dorsal 34) The ribs are located in the: 34) A) right and left iliac regions B) right and left hypochondriac regions C) right and left pubic regions D) right and left lumbar regions E) right and left inguinal regions 35) Positive feedback systems: 35) A) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases B) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced C) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases D) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced E) regulate heart and breathing rates 36) Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans): 36) A) superior and caudal B) inferior and cephalad C) anterior and dorsal D) inferior and cranial E) anterior and ventral 37) The system that takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide to the exterior is the: 37) A) muscular system B) respiratory system C) urinary system D) cardiovascular system E) reproductive system 38) In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions: 38) A) the patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region B) the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region C) the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region D) the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region E) the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 39) A cut that is made along the midline is called a section. 39) Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 40) Label E points to the cavity. 40) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 41) A control mechanism that responds to a stimulus by decreasing its intensity is called a mechanism. 41) 42) The larynx is an organ of the system. 42) Median Abdominal Negative respiratory Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 43) Label A points to the region. 43) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 44) The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions is referred to as . 44) 45) The abdominal cavity has quadrants and regions. 45) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 46) The navel is to the spine. 46) 47) is the process of breaking down ingested food in preparation for absorption. 47) epigastric Homeostasis 4 9 anterior digestion Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 48) Label E points to the region. 48) Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 49) Label B points to the cavity. 49) 50) Label F points to the cavity. 50) spinal hypogastric pelvic 51) Ventral is a directional term synonymous with in humans. 51) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 52) Groups of cells that have a common function are termed . 52) Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 53) Label A points to the cavity. 53) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 54) The central region of the thoracic cavity containing the heart is called the . 54) 55) The system that functions in the storage of minerals, such as calcium, is called the system. 55) 56) The component of a control system that provides the means for the control center's response (output) is called the . 56) 57) The thoracic cavity is to the abdominopelvic cavity. 57) 58) The system is composed of kidneys, bladder, ureters, and urethra. 58) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 59) The ability to sense changes and react to them is termed or . 59) 60) The armpit area is called the region. 60) 61) The epigastric region is to the right hypochondriac region of the abdominopelvic cavity. 61) anterior tissues cranial mediastinum skeletal effector superior Urinary irritability responsiveness axillary medial Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 62) Label B points to the region. 62) 63) Label C points to the region. 63) 64) Blood is categorized as a because it is compared of similar cells with a common function. 64) 65) The patellar region is to the popliteal region. 65) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 66) The cranial and spinal cavities are subdivisions of the cavity. 66) 67) The function of the system is to control body activities via hormones. 67) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 68) refers to all of the chemical reactions in the body. 68) right hypochondriac umbilical tissue anterior dorsal endocrine metabolism Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 69) Label D points to the . 69) Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 70) Label F points to the region. 70) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 71) The study of the body's small structures using a microscope is called . 71) diaphragm right iliac microscopic anatomy Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 72) Label D points to the region. 72) Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 73) Label C points to the cavity. 73) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: right lumbar thoracic 74) The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the region. 74) 75) The breakdown of ingested foods into simple molecules that can then be absorbed into the bloodstream is termed . 75) 76) The three medial regions of the abdominopelvic cavity are , , and . 76) 77) Blood clotting and the birth of a baby are examples of the feedback mechanism. 77) TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 78) The heel of the foot constitutes the plantar region. 78) 79) The lymphatic system collects fluids leaked by the cardiovascular system and returns them to the bloodstream. 79) 80) The spleen and the tonsils are part of the digestive system. 80) 81) The endocrine system is the fast-acting body control system. 81) 82) The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm. 82) 83) The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into four quadrants and nine regions. 83) 84) As body temperature drops below normal, chemical reactions proceed too rapidly and body proteins begin to break down. 84) 85) The spinal cavity is part of the ventral body cavity. 85) 86) The hypogastric region is directly superior to the umbilical region. 86) 87) There is no physical structure that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity. 87) 88) The highest level of structural organization in humans is the organ level. 88) 89) Most homeostatic control mechanisms are negative feedback reactions. 89) 90) Proximal means farther from the origin of a body part. 90) 91) The sacral region is on the ventral (anterior) body surface. 91) 92) Excretion is the process of removing wastes from the body. 92) MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 93) Tarsal A) ankle 93) 94) Inguinal B) area where thigh meets body trunk 94) 95) Umbilical C) navel 95) hypogastric digestion epigastric umbilical hypogastric positive F T F F T F F F F T F T F F T A B C Match the following: 96) Dorsal A) behind 96) 97) Ventral B) toward the side 97) 98) Lateral C) in front of 98) 99) Superior D) above 99) Match the following. 100) Regulation of water and electrolytes A) urinary system 100) Match the following: 101) Popliteal A) posterior knee area 101) 102) Oral B) mouth 102) Match the following. 103) Heat production A) nervous system 103) 104) Responds to stimuli (internal and B) muscular system 104) external) Match the following: 105) Proximal A) close to the origin of the body part or the 105) point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk Match the following. 106) Site of hematopoiesis A) skeletal system 106) Match the following: 107) Patellar A) armpit 107) 108) Axillary B) anterior knee 108) Match the following: 109) Deep A) toward the body surface 109) B) away from the body surface Match the following: 110) Femoral A) thigh 110) Match the following: 111) Distal A) farther from the origin of a body part or 111) the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk A C B D A A B B A A A B A B A A Match the following: 112) Coxal A) hip 112) Match the following. 113) Houses blood cells involved in immunity A) lymphatic system 113) B) respiratory system Match the following: 114) Orbital A) eye area 114) Match the following: 115) Inferior A) below 115) Match the following. 116) Slow-acting body control system A) digestive system 116) B) endocrine system Match the following: 117) Medial A) toward the midline 117) ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 118) Describe anatomical position. Explain why anatomical position is used. 119) Explain the difference between homeostatis and metabolism. 120) List and explain the eight necessary human life functions. 121) Explain how scratching an itch is an example of the negative feedback mechanism. 122) Describe the role of the effector in the negative feedback system. 123) List, and briefly define, the human body's organization levels from smallest to largest. 124) List and explain the three major body planes and sections. 125) Distinguish between anatomy and physiology. 126) Identify the two dorsal body cavities, and state their locations and the organs contained therein. 127) List the four quadrants and nine regions of the abdominopelvic cavity. Explain why this cavity has these subdivisions. 128) List and explain the five survival needs of humans. A A A A B A 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) E 8) E 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) E 37) B 38) B 39) midsagittal or median 40) abdominal 41) negative feedback 42) respiratory 43) epigastric 44) homeostasis 45) 4; 9 46) ventral or anterior 47) Digestion 48) hypogastric 49) spinal 50) pelvic 51) anterior 52) tissues 53) cranial 54) mediastinum 55) skeletal 56) effector 57) superior 58) urinary or excretory 59) irritability; responsiveness 60) axillary 61) medial 62) right hypochondriac 63) umbilical 64) tissue 65) ventral or anterior 66) dorsal 67) endocrine 68) Metabolism 69) diaphragm 70) right iliac (inguinal) 71) microscopic anatomy 72) right lumbar 73) thoracic 74) hypogastric 75) digestion 76) epigastric region, umbilical region, hypogastric region 77) positive 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) D 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) B 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) B 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) A 115) A 116) B 117) A 118) Anatomical position is defined as standing erect, feet parallel to the arms, palms facing forward. Anatomical position is used because it is a standard position; it also helps us to avoid confusion. Additionally, anatomical position is a reference point that helps us accurately describe body parts and position. 119) Homeostasis is the body's attempt to maintain balance during which time internal conditions may vary. Metabolism is all chemical reactions that occur in the body. 120) 1. Maintenance of boundaries—keeps the internal environment distinct from the external environment; membranes perform this function at the cellular level and skin performs this function for the organism. 2. Movement—includes a change in the position of the body or the propelling of a substance (such as blood, urine, or food) through the body organs; constitutes a major role of the muscular system. 3. Responsiveness (irritability)—the ability to react to stimuli; constitutes a major role of the nervous system. 4. Metabolism—includes all the chemical reactions that occur within the body's cells. 5. Excretion—elimination of carbon dioxide by the lungs and nitrogenous wastes by the kidneys. 6. Digestion—the process of breaking down ingested foodstuffs into simpler molecules that can then be absorbed into the blood for delivery to the body's cells. 7. Growth—an increase in size, which is usually accompanied by an increase in the number of cells. 8. Reproduction—the production of new cells for growth and repair, and also the production of offspring. 121) 1. Stimulus or input is the itch. 2. A receptor carries the information about the stimulus (itch) to the brain via an afferent pathway. 3. Control center (brain) analyzes this information an turns on an effector which will cancel the stimulus. 4. Information reaches the effector via the efferent pathway from the brain. Muscles move the hand to scratch the itch. 5. Scratching continues until the itch goes away. The brain shuts off the effector once homeostatis is restored. 122) The effector is the control center's output and response to the stimulus. The effector's job is to cancel or shut off the control mechanism. 123) 1. chemical level: a. atoms are the basic building blocks of matter b. molecules are units formed by atoms combining 2. cellular level: cells are the smallest living unit in living organisms 3. tissue level: tissues are groupings of cells performing a common function 4. organ level: an organ is a structure consisting of two or more tissue types 5. organ system level: an organ system describes a group of organs functioning cooperatively for a common purpose 6. organism level: a human organism consists of all of the organ systems of the ody working together to promote healthy functioning b (homeostasis) 124) 1. Sagittal—cut is made along the longitudinal (lengthwise) plane of the body (or an organ), dividing it into right and left parts. 2. Frontal (coronal)—cut is made along the longitudinal (lengthwise) plane of the body (or an organ), dividing it into anterior and posterior parts. 3. Transverse (cross-section)—cut is made along the transverse (horizontal) plane, dividing the body into superior and inferior parts. 125) Anatomy is the study of the structure and shape of the body and body parts, and their relationships to one another. Physiology is the study of how the body and its parts work or function. 126) 1. Cranial cavity—the superior posterior space inside the bony skull that houses the brain. 2. Spinal cavity—the inferior posterior space inside the bony vertebral column that houses the spinal cord. 127) 1. The four quadrants are: a. right upper quadrant b. right lower quadrant c. left upper quadrant d. right lower quadrant 2. The nine regions are: a. epigastric region b. umbilical region c. hypogastric region d. right hypochondriac region e. left hypochondriac region f. right lumbar region g. left lumbar region h. right iliac region i. left iliac region This cavity has been subdivided into these quadrants and regions because it is large and has many organs. 128) 1. Nutrients—include carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which are taken in via the diet for energy and cell building. 2. Oxygen—required to release energy from food. 3. Water—accounts for over 60% of the body weight, and provides the basis for various body fluids. 4. Appropriate body temperature—when too high or too low, physiological activities cease, primarily because molecules are destroyed or become nonfunctional. 5. Appropriate atmospheric pressure—the force exerted on the surface of the body by the weight of air; is essential for normal operation of the respiratory system and breathing. Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Ninety-six percent of the human body is composed of the elements: 1) A) carbon, calcium, sodium, and oxygen B) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, and sulfur C) calcium, magnesium, potassium, and iron D) carbon, oxygen, iron, and potassium E) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen 2) Triglycerides: 2) A) include cholesterol, bile salts, vitamin D, sex hormones, and adrenal cortical hormones B) have a three-dimensional structure that can be easily destroyed by heat, causing them to be denatured and no longer capable of performing their physiological roles C) are found in fat deposits (e.g., subcutaneous tissue around organs), and serve to protect and insulate body organs; they are the major source of stored energy in the body D) are found in the cell membrane and participate in the transport of lipids in plasma; they are also abundant in the brain and in nervous tissue where they help to form insulating white matter E) include lipoid substances such as fat-soluble vitamins (e.g., vitamins A, E, and K), prostaglandins, and lipoproteins 3) Enzymes: 3) A) increase the rates of chemical reactions by at least a millionfold B) are essential to virtually every biochemical reaction in the body C) when absent or destroyed, cause all biochemical reactions to cease D) help regulate growth and development E) are highly specialized proteins that recognize, bind with, and inactivate bacteria, toxins, and some viruses 4) The simplest atom—containing one proton, one electron, and no neutrons—is: 4) A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) carbon D) sodium E) oxygen 5) An atom that has lost two electrons is called a(n): 5) A) isotope B) proton C) radioisotope D) cation E) anion 6) An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons is a(n): 6) A) anion B) cation C) isotope D) molecule E) radioisotope 7) In order to break a disaccharide down into simple sugar units: 7) A) water molecules and carbon atoms must be removed from each bond B) carbon atoms must be added to each bond C) water molecules must be removed from each bond D) carbon atoms must be removed from each bond E) water molecules must be added to each bond 8) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrical charge of subatomic particles: A) protons are positively charged, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are neutral B) protons are positively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged C) protons are negatively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged D) protons are neutral, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are positively charged E) protons are negatively charged, electrons are positively charged, and neutrons are neutral 8) 9) Which of the following substances below is matched with its correct organic group: 9) A) steroids - carbohydrates B) enzymes - proteins C) DNA - lipids D) monosaccharides - nucleic acids E) glycerol - proteins 10) Which of the following is the role of magnesium: 10) A) it is the major extracellular cation in its ionic form, and is important for water balance, conduction of nerve impulses, and muscle contraction B) it is a major extracellular anion in its ionic form C) it is present in bone, and is an important cofactor for enzyme activity in a number of metabolic reactions D) it is a component of the functional hemoglobin molecule that transports oxygen within red blood cells, as well as a component of some enzymes E) it is needed to make functional thyroid hormones 11) The organic compounds that function in building tissues and acting as enzymes are the: 11) A) salts B) lipids C) proteins D) carbohydrates E) nucleic acids 12) Which one of the following DNA bases are complementary: 12) A) adenine and guanine B) adenine and thymine C) cytosine and adenine D) guanine and uracil E) thymine and guanine 13) Atomic mass is equivalent to the number of in an atom. 13) A) protons B) neutrons C) protons and electrons D) protons and neutrons E) electrons 14) Isotopes have different numbers of ; thus they also have different . 14) A) neutrons; atomic masses B) electrons; atomic numbers C) protons; atomis masses D) neutrons; atomic numbers E) protons; atomic numbers 15) Inactive energy is referred to as: 15) A) mechanical energy B) electrical energy C) radiant energy D) potential energy E) kinetic energy 16) Which of the following groups of chemicals includes ONLY monosaccharides: 16) A) maltose, sucrose, lactose B) glucose, fructose, maltose C) fructose, maltose, lactose D) glucose, fructose, galactose E) fructose, maltose, sucrose Figure 2.2 17) What is the atomic number of the atom in Figure 2.2: 17) A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 3 E) 4 18) Which of the following statements about ATP is false: 18) A) it provides the energy needed to drive energy-absorbing chemical reactions B) it drives the transport of certain solutes (e.g., amino acids) across cell membranes C) its energy is captured in high-energy hydrogen bonds D) it activates contractile proteins in muscle cells so that cells can shorten and perform mechanical work E) it is a modified nucleotide Figure 2.3 19) What type of chemical bond is pictured in Figure 2.3: 19) A) single covalent bond B) nonpolar covalent bond C) double covalent bond D) polar covalent bond E) ionic bond 20) Glycogen is the storage form of in animals. 20) A) glucose B) lipids C) DNA D) protein E) amino acids 21) Vitamin D and sex hormones are both: 21) A) nucleic acids B) steroids C) proteins D) polysaccharides E) enzymes 22) Which of these examples is a compound: 22) A) B) C) 2H D) E) 23) When a pair of electrons is shared equally between two atoms, the bond formed is called a(n): 23) A) ionic bond B) hydrogen bond C) polar covalent bond D) nonpolar covalent bond E) carbon bond 24) The reaction A + B - AB is an example of a(n): 24) A) decomposition reaction B) dehydration reaction C) synthesis reaction D) denaturation reaction E) exchange reaction 25) A solution with a pH of 7: 25) A) releases more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions into solution B) is acidic C) releases more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions into solution D) is basic E) is neutral 26) The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together by: 26) A) hydrogen bonds B) carbon bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) nonpolar covalent bonds E) ionic bonds 27) Which of these elements composes bone: 27) A) calcium B) chlorine C) sulfur D) iodine E) iron 28) The most abundant element in the human body is: 28) A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) calcium E) hydrogen 29) The sugar found in DNA is: 29) A) deoxyribose B) lactose C) starch D) ribose E) sucrose 30) are simple sugars containing between 3 and 7 carbon atoms. 30) A) Steroids B) Proteins C) Polysaccharides D) Saturated fats E) Monosaccharides 31) Which of the following statements about RNA is true: 31) A) RNA is composed of cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine B) RNA is single stranded C) RNA is found only in the nucleus of the cell D) RNA contains deoxyribose E) RNA is a double helix 32) Vitamin D can be described as: 32) A) derivatives of fatty acids found in cell membranes; various functions include the stimulation of uterine contractions, the regulation of blood pressure, and the control of motility of the gastrointestinal tract B) taken in via plant products such as wheat germ and green leafy vegetables; may promote wound healing and contribute to fertility (though not proven in humans) C) made available largely by the action of intestinal bacteria; also prevalent in a wide variety of foods, and necessary for the proper clotting of blood D) produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation; necessary for normal bone growth and function E) a constituent of orange-pigmented vegetables (carrots) and fruits (tomatoes), and part of the photoreceptor pigment involved in vision 33) The movement of ions across cell membranes is an example of: 33) A) potential energy B) radiant energy C) mechanical energy D) electrical energy E) chemical energy 34) Shell 1 of an atom can hold a maximum of electron(s). 34) A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 18 35) The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behavior of atoms are the: 35) A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons D) ions E) isotopes 36) Carbohydrates are built up from their basic building blocks by the: 36) A) removal of a carbon atom B) addition of a water molecule between each unit C) removal of a water molecule between every two units D) addition of a carbon atom E) process termed "hydrolysis" 37) Which of the following solutions is the weakest acid: 37) A) a solution with a pH of 8.6 B) a solution with a pH of 5.2 C) a solution with a pH of 2.4 D) a solution with a pH of 6.4 E) a solution with a pH of 10.1 38) An atom with an atomic number of 14 will have electrons in its valence shell. 38) A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10 E) 14 39) An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Its atomic mass is: 39) A) 20 B) 2 C) 14 D) 6 E) 8 40) The joining of amino acids to form a protein is an example of: 40) A) a hydrolysis reaction B) a decomposition reaction C) a synthesis reaction D) an exchange reaction E) a denaturation reaction 41) Enzymes are classified as: 41) A) triglycerides B) antibodies C) structural proteins D) functional proteins E) hormones 42) The atomic number of an atom reveals the number of: 42) A) neutrons plus electrons B) protons plus electrons C) protons in the atomic nucleus D) protons plus neutrons E) electrons in the atomic nucleus 43) Water is useful in body processes because: 43) A) it is a product in hydrolysis reactions B) it is a good solvent C) it acts as an enzyne D) it has a low heat capacity E) it is chemically inert 44) Glucose and starch are examples of: 44) A) proteins B) triglycerides C) carbohydrates D) steroids E) phospholipids 45) Which of the following is an example of an inorganic molecule: 45) A) an amino acid B) RNA C) cholesterol D) sodium chloride E) a fatty acid 46) Which of these factors will not increase the rate of a chemical reaction: 46) A) increased temperature B) increased concentration of reacting particles C) decrease in particle size D) presence of catalysts E) decreased temperature 47) Trans fats are oils that have been solidified by the addition of: 47) A) hydrogen atoms B) oxygen atoms C) phosphorus-containing groups D) nitrogen atoms E) carbon atoms 48) Which of the following statements about enzymes is true: 48) A) they are carbohydrates B) they are required in large amounts in order to be effective C) they are biological catalysts D) they are not reuseable E) they are stable at high temperatures 49) Which of these substances is an enzyme: 49) A) glucose B) omega-3 fatty acid C) triglyceride D) oxidase E) nucleotide 50) Saturated fats: 50) A) are formed from 4 interlocking carbon rings B) exist as liquids and are derived from plants C) contain many double bonds D) exist as solids at room temperature E) have two fatty acid chains SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 51) Describe the role of the electron in chemical bond formation. 51) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 52) Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of they possess. 52) 53) All have an amine (N ) group. 53) 54) An acid is a molecule that releases (donates) . State the answer in two ways. 54) 55) Compounds that contain carbon-hydrogen bonding are collectively termed compounds. 55) 56) Decomposition of a protein produces . 56) 57) The outermost shell of an atom is called the shell. 57) 58) The building blocks of nucleic acids are called . 58) Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 59) The structure of the polysaccharide is . 59) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 60) The universal energy compound that provides visible energy to cells is . 60) 61) Glycogen and starch are examples of a specific category of carbohydrates called . 61) 62) A solution with a pH of 11.7 is times more acidic than a solution with a pH of 8.7. 62) 63) Enzymes are examples of proteins. State the answer in two ways. 63) Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 64) The structure of the monosaccharide is . 64) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 65) Polar molecules, like water, result when electrons are shared . 65) 66) When a change in matter alters the basic nature of the substance, it is called a change. 66) 67) Cholesterol is an example of a , a specific category of lipids. 67) 68) Inactive or stored energy is called energy. 68) Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 69) The structure of the functional protein is . 69) 70) The structure of the nucleotide is . 70) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 71) The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom is called the . 71) TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 72) Atoms are the smallest particles of a compound that still retain the properties of that compound. 72) 73) Negatively charged atoms are called cations. 73) 74) Every atom in a molecule has a full valence shell. 74) 75) Water is the single most abundant inorganic compound in the human body. 75) 76) Inactive or stored energy is called kinetic energy. 76) 77) When a solution produces equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, it is said to be neutral. 77) 78) Stored energy is called potential energy. 78) 79) Estrogen and cholesterol are both steroids. 79) 80) Carbon is found in all inorganic compounds. 80) 81) The lower the pH, the greater the number of hydrogen ions. 81) 82) The normal pH of blood occupies a narrow range around 7.35-7.45. 82) 83) Enzymes decrease the rates of chemical reactions. 83) 84) Calcium is one of the major elements composing the human body. 84) 85) Disruption of the hydrogen bonds of functional proteins leads to their denaturation. 85) 86) Compounds that ionize completely, producing large numbers of hydrogen ions (protons), are termed weak bases. 86) MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 87) Nucleotides form the building blocks of these organic compounds A) carbohydrates 87) 88) Glycogen, glucose, and lactose are examples of these organic compounds B) nucleic acids 88) Match the following: 89) The particle(s) contributing to the atomic number A) proton(s) 89) 90) The particle(s) contributing to the atomic mass B) protons and neutrons 90) Match the following: 91) A bond in which electrons are shared unequally A) polar covalent bond 91) B) nonpolar covalent bond Match the following: 92) The particle(s) that differ between isotopes A) neutron(s) 92) Match the following: 93) A type of bond important in holding different parts of the same molecule together in three-dimensional structure 94) Type of bond exhibited by carbon dioxide A) polar covalent bond 93) B) nonpolar covalent bond C) double bond 94) D) hydrogen bond Match the following: 95) DNA, RNA, and ATP are types of these organic compounds A) nucleic acids 95) Match the following: 96) The number of protons is equal to the number of these subatomic particles A) electron(s) 96) Match the following: 97) Building block is the monosaccharide A) lipids 97) 98) Most of this organic compound group are water insoluble B) carbohydrates 98) 99) Triglycerides, steroids, and fatsoluble vitamins are types of these organic compounds 99) Match the following: 100) A type of covalent bond formed when atoms share two pairs of electrons A) ionic bond 100) B) single covalent bond Match the following: 101) Building blocks of these organic compounds are amino acids A) proteins 101) Match the following: 102) The particle(s) shared during covalent bond formation A) electron(s) 102) Match the following: 103) Antibodies, some hormones, and enzymes are types of these organic compounds A) proteins 103) Match the following: 104) The particle(s) lost during cation formation A) electron(s) 104) Match the following: 105) A bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved A) covalent bond 105) B) ionic bond Match the following: 106) The particle(s) located within the nucleus A) protons and neutrons 106) ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 107) Explain why a denatured protein no longer functions. 108) Explain why enzymes are specific to their substrates. 109) Compare DNA and RNA from the standpoint of their location, role(s), number of chains, arrangement of nucleotides, and sugars and bases present. 110) Differentiate between a molecule and a compound. 111) Distinguish between a dehydration synthesis and a hydrolysis reaction. 112) Discuss the major properties of water that make it so vital to the proper functioning of the body. 113) Explain why hydrolysis (decomposition) reactions require the addition of water. 114) Explain why ATP is classified as a nucleic acid. 115) Explain how saturated fats are different from unsaturated fats. 116) List the three parts of a nucleotide. 117) Describe the difference between a polar and a nonpolar covalent bond. Give and explain an example of each type of bond. 118) Name this type of reaction and briefly explain what is happening in this reaction: glucose + fructose - water + sucrose 1) E 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) E 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) D 51) When the valence shell of an atom contains fewer than 8 electrons, an atom will tend to gain, lose, or share electrons with other atoms to reach a stable state. As a result, chemical bonds such as covalent bonds or ionic bonds are formed. 52) neutrons 53) amino acids 54) protons; hydrogen ions 55) organic 56) amino acids 57) valence 58) nucleotides 59) C 60) ATP (adenosine triphosphate) 61) polysaccharides 62) 1000 63) globular; functional 64) A 65) unequally 66) chemical 67) steroids 68) potential 69) B 70) E 71) atomic mass number 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) B 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) B 95) A 96) A 97) B 98) A 99) A 100) B 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) B 106) A 107) Denaturation results when the three-dimensional shape of a protein is destroyed. The function of a protein depends on its structure. The presence of an active site on the surface of a protein that interacts with other molecules must be intact for the enzyme to work properly. 108) Exzymes, like other proteins, have active sites on their surfaces that chemically interact with other molecules of complementary shape and charge. These active sites must "fit" with the substrate. Enzymes bind to the reacting substrates and structural changes result in a new product. 109) 1. Location—DNA is located inside the nucleus of the cell; RNA is located inside and outside the nucleus of the cell. 2. Role(s)—DNA undergoes replication prior to cell division to pass on heredity information, and provides instructions for the building of all protein; RNA carries out the orders for protein synthesis issued by DNA. 3. Number of chains—DNA consists of a double chain of nucleotides in the form of a double helix; RNA is a single chain of nucleotides. 4. Arrangement of nucleotides—DNA consists of sugar and phosphate molecules that form uprights of a ladderlike structure, and each rung is formed by two joined bases; in RNA, a base projects from each sugar-phosphate unit in the chain of nucleotides. 5. Sugar—the sugar in DNA is deoxyribose; the sugar in RNA is ribose. 6. Bases—in DNA the bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C); in RNA the bases are adenine (A), uracil (U), guanine (G) and cytosine (C). 110) Molecules are formed when two or more atoms of the same element combine chemically. Compounds result when two or more different atoms bind together to form a molecule. 111) In a dehydration synthesis reaction, a more complex molecule is formed from two simpler ones, and a water molecule is lost as each bond forms. An example of dehydration synthesis is seen when a disaccharide is formed from two monosaccharides. Hydrolysis is the breakdown of a more complex molecule into its building blocks. A water molecule is added to each bond, the bond is broken, and simpler molecules are formed. In the process, water is split into a hydrogen ion and a hydroxyl ion. An example of hydrolysis is seen when a disaccharide is broken down into two monosaccharides. 112) 1. It has a high heat capacity, and absorbs and releases large amounts of heat before its temperature changes appreciably. Therefore, it helps maintain homeostatic body temperature. 2. Because of its polarity, it is an excellent solvent in which electrolytes can ionize. Nutrients, respiratory gases, and wastes can dissolve in water, thereby allowing water to act as a transport and exchange medium in the body. Water is also used as a solvent in specialized molecules that lubricate the body, such as mucus that eases the movement of feces in the digestive tube, saliva that moistens food and prepares it for digestion, and synovial fluids that lubricate bone ends. 3. Water is a reactant in some types of chemical reactions, such as digestion and the breakdown of large biological molecules. Water is added to the bonds of the larger molecules in specific reactions termed hydrolysis reactions. 4. Water serves a protective function by forming a watery cushion (e.g., cerebrospinal fluid cushions the brain and amniotic fluid cushions the fetus). 113) Water molecules are added to the bonds of large organic molecules. When water is added to each bond, the bond is broken, and the molecule is broken down. 114) ATP is a modified nucleotide. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids. ATP consists of a base (adenine), a sugar (ribose), and three phosphate groups. 115) Saturated fats: 1. tend to be animal fats 2. have all single bonds between carbon atoms 3. may be solid Unsaturated fats: 1. tend to be plant oils 2. have some double or triple bonds between carbon atoms 3. may be liquid 116) Nucleotides contain: 1. a nitrogen-containing base 2. a pentose (5-carbon) sugar 3. a phosphate group 117) 1. In polar covalent bonds, electrons are not shared equally. For instance, water is an example of a polar covalent bond. The electron pairs shared in water spend more time with the oxygen atom causing that end of the molecule to become slightly negative and the hydrogen end to become slightly positive. 2. In nonpolar covalent bonds, electrons are shared equally. For example, the electron pairs in carbon dioxide orbit the entire molecule. 118) Glucose and fructose are two monosaccharides. Sucrose is a disaccharide. Glucose and fructose are combining to form sucrose. This is an example of a dehydration synthesis reaction. A water molecule is lost from the two simple sugars as the bond forms to create the double sugar. Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT connective tissue: 1) A) skeletal muscle B) cartilage C) bone D) adipose E) blood Figure 3.3 2) The tissue shown in Figure 3.3 most likely: 2) A) transmits electrochemical impulses B) stores fat C) covers and lines body surfaces D) contracts to produce movement E) contains a matrix 3) Which type of tissue conducts electrochemical impulses: 3) A) nervous tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) dense tissue E) epithelial tissue 4) Goblet cells are found in: 4) A) stratified squamous epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) transitional epithelium E) simple columnar epithelium 5) The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is: A) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) skeletal muscle D) cardiac muscle E) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle 5) 6) The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is: 6) A) messenger RNA (mRNA) B) transfer RNA (tRNA) C) DNA D) ATP E) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) 7) The site where ribosomes assemble prior to their migration into the cytoplasm is the: 7) A) plasma membrane B) chromatin C) chromosomes D) nuclear membrane E) nucleolus 8) Which cell structure forms an internal framework inside the cell and is made of microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments: A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) mitochondria D) cytoplasm E) cytoskeleton 8) 9) The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive extracellular matrix is called: 9) A) connective tissue B) brain tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue E) epithelial tissue 10) Which of the following do not involve the movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lower concentration: A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) osmosis E) filtration 10) 11) Two types of passive transport are: 11) A) endocytosis and diffusion B) exocytosis and endocytosis C) diffusion and filtration D) osmosis and endocytosis E) filtration and exocytosis 12) The three major components of the cytoplasm are the: 12) A) cytosol, organelles, and inclusions B) cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli C) organelles, inclusions, and ribosomes D) organelles, inclusions, and nucleoli E) cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli 13) The type of tissue with a matrix that consists of rows of fibroblasts that manufacture collagen fibers is: A) adipose tissue B) areolar tissue C) loose connective tissue D) osseous tissue E) dense connective tissue 14) A patient arrives in the hospital extremely dehydrated. In order to fill his cells with fluid, he should be hooked to a(n) intravenous drip. A) hypotonic B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) either hypertonic or hypotonic E) either isotonic or hyertonic 13) 14) 15) A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is: 15) A) intravenous B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) Ringer's lactate E) isotonic 16) DNA replication takes place during: 16) A) prophase B) interphase C) metaphase D) telophase E) anaphase 17) If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA is GTA-GCA, the sequence of bases on its complementary DNA strand would be: A) CAT-CGT B) CAU-CGU C) GAU-GCU D) ACG-ATT E) GAT-GCT 18) The molecules in the cell membrane that serve as receptors or binding sites for hormones or other chemical messengers are the: A) cholesterol molecules B) glycoproteins C) lipids D) proteins E) carbohydrates 17) 18) 19) Identify the type of tissue that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow: 19) A) dense connective tissue B) areolar tissue C) osseous tissue D) adipose tissue E) reticular connective tissue 20) Cells that are specialized to fight disease are called: 20) A) macrophages B) epithelial cells C) oocytes D) nerve cells E) fibroblasts 21) The molecule that contains anticodons is: 21) A) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) B) transfer RNA (tRNA) C) DNA D) messenger RNA (mRNA) E) ATP 22) The DNA segment that carries information coding for a particular amino acid is a: 22) A) gene B) nucleotide C) phosphate group D) deoxyribose sugar E) triplet 23) Which type of epithelial tissue is found lining kidney tubules: 23) A) simple columnar B) simple cuboidal C) simple squamous D) pseudostratified columnar E) stratified squamous 24) Perform transcription on this partial sequence of DNA into mRNA: TTA-GCT-ACT 24) A) GGC-TAG-TAG B) AAT-CGA-TGA C) UUT-CGU-TGU D) UUA-CGU-AGU E) AAU-CGA-UGA 25) The last step in the process of tissue regeneration is: 25) A) scab formation B) surface epithelium regenerates C) granulation tissue forms D) blood clot forms E) capillaries become very permeable 26) The phase of cell division during which the chromatids are pulled apart and move to the opposite ends of the cell is: A) telophase B) interphase C) prophase D) metaphase E) anaphase 26) 27) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are 27) classified as: A) ceruminous B) sebaceous C) endocrine D) sudoriferous E) exocrine 28) Fat is: 28) A) adipose tissue B) loose connective tissue C) osseous tissue D) areolar tissue E) dense connective tissue 29) A cancer drug interferes with the development of mitotic spindle fibers during cell division. Which phase is directly affected: A) interphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prophase E) anaphase 30) A cell whose job is to detoxify harmful or poisonous substances such as alcohol would have many: A) peroxisomes B) lysosomes C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) nuclei E) flagella 29) 30) 31) Which of the following statements about DNA is incorrect: 31) A) it contains 2 chains B) it has the base uracil instead of thymine C) it contains deoxyribose sugars D) it is replicated in preparation for cell division E) it never leaves the nucleus 32) Microvilli are apt to be found in cells that are specialized for: 32) A) division B) contraction C) absorption D) insulation E) protection 33) The movement of fluid through the cell membrane from a high pressure area to a lower pressure area is called: A) active transport B) bulk transport C) osmosis D) filtration 33) E) diffusion 34) Ribosomes are found: 34) A) in the cytoplasm B) on the Golgi apparatus C) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum D) in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum E) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum 35) Which of the following processes require the use of carrier molecules: 35) A) osmosis and filtration B) filtration and cellular secretion C) facilitated diffusion and bulk transport D) bulk transport and osmosis E) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping 36) Which organelle uses molecular oxygen to convert and detoxify harmful substances such as alcohol and free radicals: A) secretory vesicles B) lysosomes C) ribosomes D) peroxisomes E) Golgi apparatus 36) 37) Two types of endocytosis are: 37) A) solute pumping and active transport B) pinocytosis and passive transport C) cellular secretion and solute pumping D) phagocytosis and pinocytosis E) active transport and phagocytosis 38) The molecule that is made during transcription is: 38) A) transfer RNA (tRNA) B) ATP C) messenger RNA (mRNA) D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) DNA 39) Looking into a microscope, you notice cells swimming, propelled by a long tail. What cell structure must these cells have in order to be mobile: A) smooth ER B) flagella C) ribosomes D) cytoplasm E) peroxisomes 39) 40) The events of prophase seem to be opposite of those that occur during: 40) A) anaphase B) metaphase C) cytokinesis D) interphase E) telophase 41) The molecules that make the cell surface fuzzy, sticky, and sugar-rich are the: 41) A) glycoproteins B) lipid molecules C) cholesterol molecules D) proteins E) phospholipids 42) Which one of the following is NOT true about the cell membrane: 42) A) it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily B) its lipid components are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol C) it consists of two lipid layers D) it regulates the entry and exit of cell materials E) it contains proteins for specialized functions 43) A cell ingests bacteria. What type of transport is likely responsible for this process: 43) A) filtration B) osmosis C) diffusion D) exocytosis E) endocytosis 44) The epithelial tissue found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse, such as the esophagus, is: A) transitional B) simple squamous epithelium C) pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) simple columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium 44) 45) Which of these characteristics best describes cardiac muscle tissue: 45) A) single nucleus and spindle-shaped cells B) attached to the skeleton C) movement is involuntary and cells possess striations D) multinucleate and long, cylindrical cells E) movement is voluntary and cells possess striations 46) Which of the following is NOT an active transport process: 46) A) facilitated diffusion B) endocytosis C) pinocytosis D) phagocytosis E) exocytosis 47) What are the correct base-pairing rules for DNA: 47) A) adenine bonds to guanine and thymine bones to cytosine B) adenine bonds to uracil and guanine bonds to cytosine C) adenine bonds to thymine and guanine bonds to cytosine D) adenine bonds to adenine and guanine bonds to guanine E) adenine bonds to cytosine and thymine bonds to guanine 48) The correct order of phases of the cell cycle is: 48) A) telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase 49) The tiny finger-like projections that increase the surface are of the cell for quicker absorption are called: A) gap junctions B) microvilli C) inclusions D) tight junctions E) desmosomes 49) 50) Facilitated diffusion requires the use of: 50) A) lysosomes B) protein channels or molecules C) Golgi apparatus D) ATP E) vacuoles 51) A cell would plump with water and possibly lyse in which of the following solutions: 51) A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) intravenous D) Ringer's E) hypertonic SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 52) The cell type found in nervous tissue is the . 52) Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 53) The illustration of cardiac muscle tissue is . 53) 54) The type of connective tissue that contains fat stored in adipocytes is called . 54) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 55) The membrane connections that prevent the leaking of fluid between cells are called . 55) 56) Whiplike cellular extensions that move substances along the cell surface are called . 56) 57) The DNA segment that carries information for building one protein or polypeptide chain is called a . 57) 58) The type of muscle tissue that can be controlled voluntarily is called muscle. 58) 59) The phospholipid tails are , which make the plasma membrane impermeable to water. Figure 3.1 59) Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 60) The illustration of stratified squamous epithelium is . 60) 61) List, describe, and state the functions of the three types of membrane junctions. 61) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 62) The specialized cellular compartments within the cytosol of the cell are collectively call ed . 62) 63) The random movement of molecules (and ions) down their concentration gradient is called . Figure 3.1 63) Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 64) The illustration of simple squamous epithelium is . 64) 65) The illustration of skeletal muscle tissue is . 65) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 66) The step, during protein synthesis, of assembling proteins by decoding the information in messenger RNA is called . 66) 67) The rod-shaped bodies that lie at right angles to each other and internally are made up of fine microtubing called . 67) 68) After DNA replication has occurred, each of the two strands making up a chromosome is called a . 68) 69) Tiny finger-like projections of the plasma membrane that increase its surface area are called . 69) 70) Epithelial tissue consisting of one layer of cells flattened like fish scales is called a epithelium. 70) 71) The movement of substances through the cell membrane against their concentration gradient is called . 71) 72) Many layers of cube-shaped cells should be termed epithelial tissue. 72) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 73) The component of a solution that is present in the smaller amount and is dissolved is the . Figure 3.2 73) 74) The cell shown in Figure 3.2 has been placed into a(n) solution. 74) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 75) In cell division, the term that refers to division of the cytoplasm is . 75) 76) The period of the cell cycle when the cell grows and performs its metabolic activities is . 76) 77) The type of tissue consisting of cells embedded in an extracellular matrix is tissue. 77) 78) The network of nuclear threads, composed of DNA and protein, that condense to form chromosomes during mitosis is called . 78) Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 79) The illustration of simple cuboidal epithelium is . 79) Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 80) The nucleoplasm and cytosol make up the fluid. 80) 81) This type of epithelial tissue found lining organs of the digestive system such as the small intestines is the . 81) 82) tissue contains cells called fibroblasts that make fibers such as collagen. 82) 83) Tendons and ligaments are common to this type of connective tissue called . 83) TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 84) When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution it will swell and may rupture. 84) 85) Stratified epithelium consists of one layer of epithelial cells. 85) 86) The nonpolar tails of the plasma membrane are hydrophobic. 86) 87) Protein synthesis cannot proceed without ribosomes. 87) 88) Translation is the stage in protein synthesis during which a complementary mRNA molecule is synthesized from a DNA template. 88) 89) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleated spindle-shaped cells that are voluntary. 89) 90) The movement of substances from an area of higher hydrostatic pressure to an area of lower hydrostatic pressure is called diffusion. 90) 91) The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery matrix. 91) 92) The four primary tissue types are epithelium, muscle, cutaneous, and connective. 92) 93) Anaphase is the stage of cell division when the cleavage furrow first appears. 93) 94) Desmosomes are junctions that allow cell communication. 94) 95) Mitotic spindles guide the separation of chromosomes. 95) 96) The Golgi apparatus consists of a stack of flattened membranous sacs associated with swarms of tiny vesicles that are found close to the nucleus. 96) 97) The process of facilitated diffusion requires energy. 97) 98) The greater the osmotic pressure, the greater the tendency of water to move into that area. 98) MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 99) Mitochondria A) captures energy to produce ATP 99) Match the following: 100) Type of tissue that consists of living cells surrounded by an extracellular matrix A) connective tissue 100) Match the following: 101) Centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell A) prophase 101) Match the following: 102) Lysosome A) uses oxygen to detoxify harmful substances 102) 103) Peroxisomes B) 103) digests worn-out or nonusable cell structures Match the following: 104) Nucleoli appear in each daughter cell A) telophase 104) Match the following: 105) Protein A) synthesized during translation 105) 106) mRNA A) synthesized during transcription and contains the codons 106) Match the following: 107) Type of tissue whose two functional characteristics are irritability and conductivity A) nervous tissue 107) B) 108) Type of tissue that can be classified as "loose" or "dense" connective tissue 108) Match the following: 109) Ribosome A) site of protein synthesis 109) Match the following: 110) Type of tissue that can be described as voluntary or involuntary A) muscle tissue 110) Match the following: 111) Nucleolus A) site of ribosome synthesis 111) Match the following: 112) Type of tissue that can be simple or stratified A