NUR 405 EXAM (GRADED A+) 302 QUESTIONS plus correctly explained ANSWERS | 100% GUARANTEED PASS

CHAPTER 12: Sampling and data collection in qualitative studies 1. Sampling may be defined as which of the following? A) Selection of an accessible population for a study B) Selection of a subset of a population to represent the entire population C) Assignment of study participants to treatment groups D) Technique for ensuring that every element in the population has an equal chance of being included in the study Ans: B Feedback: Sampling is the process of selecting elements from a population, which is an entire aggregate of cases. An element is the basic unit of a population—usually humans in nursing research. Eligibility criteria (including both inclusion criteria and exclusion criteria) are used to define population characteristics. Researchers usually sample from an accessible population; a broader target population is the group to which they would like to generalize their results. A key criterion in assessing a sample in a quantitative study is its representativeness —the extent to which the sample is similar to the population and avoids bias. 2. Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to which of the following? A) Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of interest B) Sample selection using nonprobability- type sampling methods C) The margin of error in the data obtained from samples D) Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute vis-a-vis the population Ans: D Feedback: Sampling bias is the systematic overrepresentation or underrepresentation of some segment of the population. Nonprobability sampling (in which elements are selected by nonrandom methods) includes convenience, quota, consecutive, and purposive sampling. A key criterion in assessing a sample in a quantitative study is its representativeness —the extent to which the sample is similar to the population and avoids bias. 3. Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following sampling approaches? A) Systematic B) Purposive C) Quota D) Consecutive Ans: C Feedback: Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience. Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size. In purposive sampling, participants are hand- picked to be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge about the population. Systematic sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list. 4. Which of the following is a probability sampling method? A) Convenience sampling B) Systematic sampling C) Consecutive sampling D) Quota sampling Ans: B Feedback: Systematic sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list and is an example of a probability sampling method. Convenience sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of people. Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience. Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size. 5. The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a representative sample is which of the following? A) Consecutive B) Convenience C) Purposive D) Quota Ans: A Feedback: Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size. Convenience sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of people. In purposive sampling, participants are hand-picked to be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge about the population. Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience. 6. Which of the following types of sample is considered to be the weakest for quantitative studies? A) Convenience B) Quota C) Purposive D) Systematic Ans: A Feedback: Convenience sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of people. The problem with convenience sampling is that people who are readily available might be atypical of the population, and so the price of convenience is the risk of bias. Convenience sampling is the weakest form of sampling, but it is also the most commonly used sampling method in many disciplines. In purposive sampling, participants are hand-picked to be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge about the population. Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience. Systematic sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list. 7. A researcher used a systematic sampling plan. The sample size was 200. The sampling interval was 250. The first element drawn was 196. The second element would be: A) 396 B) 45 C) 446 D) 646 Ans: C Feedback: By dividing the population size by the desired sample size, the researcher establishes the sampling interval, which is the standard distance between the selected elements: 196 (first element) + 250 (sample interval) = 446 (second element). 396, 450, and 646 are incorrect responses. 8. Which of the following is the most widely used data collection method by nurse researchers? A) Records B) Self-reports C) Observation D) Biophysiologic measures Ans: B Feedback: Data collection methods vary in terms of structure, quantifiability, and objectivity. The three principal data collection methods for nurse researchers are self- report, observations, and biophysiologic measures. Self-reports, which involve directly questioning study participants, are the most widely used method of collecting data for nursing studies. 9. A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do which of the following? A) Are easy to construct B) Are analyzed in a straightforward manner C) Encourage in-depth responses D) Are not subject to response biases Ans: B Feedback: Good closed-ended questions are more difficult to construct than open-ended ones but easier to analyze. Closed-ended questions are also more efficient: people can complete more closed-ended questions than open-ended ones in a given amount of time. People may be unwilling to compose lengthy written responses to open-ended questions in questionnaires. A major drawback of closed-ended questions is that researchers might omit some potentially important responses. Closed- ended questions also can be superficial. Open-ended questions allow for richer information if the respondents are verbally expressive and cooperative. Finally, some respondents object to choosing from alternatives that do not reflect their opinions precisely. 10. Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of which of the following? A) They are less expensive B) They yield data that are easier to analyze C) The quality of the data tends to be higher D) They require less training of research personnel Ans: C Feedback: Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because the quality of the data tends to be higher. Researchers using structured self-reports must decide whether to use interviews or self- administered questionnaires. Questionnaires are less costly than interviews and offer the possibility of anonymity, but interviews yield higher response rates, are suitable for a wider variety of people, and provide richer data than questionnaires. 11. Questionnaires have the advantage of which of the following? A) Offering the possibility of anonymity B) Having high response rates C) Reducing the possibility of response set biases D) Being suitable for all types of study participants Ans: A Feedback: Questionnaires are less costly than interviews and offer the possibility of anonymity, but interviews yield higher response rates (which reduce the risk for bias), are suitable for a wider variety of people, and provide richer data than questionnaires. Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because the quality of the data tends to be higher. Researchers using structured self-reports must decide whether to use interviews or self-administered questionnaires. 12. On a five-point Likert scale, a person who strongly agreed with a statement would be scored as which of the following? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) Cannot be determined Ans: D Feedback: Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or disagreement with each statement are scored and summed into a composite score. The term needs to be indicated for each number in order to determine which number represents strongly agree or disagree. 13. On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range of possible scores is which of the following? A) 0 to 100 B) 20 to 80 C) 20 to 100 D) 0 to 50 Ans: C Feedback: Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or disagreement with each statement are scored and summed into a composite score. 20 items x a score of 1 per item is 20 as the minimum score and 20 items x a score of 5 per item are 100 as the maximum score. 14. A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue is which of the following? A) Observation B) In vivo measurements C) Visual analog scales D) Likert scales Ans: C Feedback: A visual analog scale (VAS) is used to measure subjective experiences (e.g., pain, fatigue) along a 100 mm line designating a bipolar continuum. Observational methods are techniques for acquiring data through the direct observation of phenomena. Data may also be derived from biophysiologic measures, which include in vivo measurements (those performed within or on living organisms) and in vitro measurements (those performed outside the organism's body, such as blood tests). Biophysiologic measures have the advantage of being objective, accurate, and precise. Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or disagreement with each statement are scored and summed into a composite score. 15. The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a problem on scales incorporated into which of the following? A) Mailed anonymous questionnaires B) Face-to-face interviews C) Telephone interviews D) All options are equally susceptible Ans: A Feedback: Social desirability response set bias—a tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits by giving answers that are consistent with prevailing social views—would be least likely to be a problem with mailed anonymous questionnaires, as the anonymity would likely cause people to be less concerned about what others thought of their answers. 16. A person who marked “strongly agree” to all or most items on a Likert scale would best be described as which of the following? A) Socially desirable respondent B) Biased participant C) Nay-sayer D) Yea-sayer Ans: D Feedback: Acquiescence response set bias is a tendency to agree with statements regardless of their content; such responders are known as “yea-sayers.” People who have the opposite tendency— to disagree with statements independently of the question content—are known as nay-sayers and are much less common. Social desirability response set bias is a tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits by giving answers that are consistent with prevailing social views. A yea-sayer is a type of biased participant. 17. When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased because of which of the following? A) Reactivity B) Ethical problems C) Lack of mobility D) Acquiescence response set bias Ans: A Feedback: Researchers do not always tell people they are being observed, because awareness of being observed may cause people to behave atypically. A behavioral distortion due to the known presence of an observer is called reactivity. It is not an ethical problem or lack of mobility. Acquiescence response set bias is a tendency to agree with statements regardless of their content by some people (yea-sayers). The opposite tendency—to disagree with statements independently of the question content—is less common. 18. Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic measures in nursing studies? Select all that apply. A) They are relatively accurate and precise B) They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue C) They are objective, requiring minimal inference D) They are typically cost effective because they are available for clinical purposes Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Nurse researchers have used biophysiologic measures for a wide variety of purposes, and these measures have many advantages. They are relatively accurate and precise, objective, not easily distorted by patients, and valid. However, they cannot effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue; a visual analog scale would be more appropriate for that. 19. Which of the following statements describes a population? A) All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care unit during January 2012 B) Four hundred nurses selected from a membership list of American Nurses' Association (ANA) members C) Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery D) A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently smoke Ans: A Feedback: All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care unit during January 2012 denotes a population. A population is the entire group of interest. The other answers denote only samples or segments of a population. 20. Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small? A) Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two groups B) Lack of control over extraneous variables C) Limits to random sampling D) A weak questionnaire survey tool Ans: A Feedback: Sampling involves selecting a portion of the population to represent the population. A low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two group results from a sample size that is too small. The other answers are not effects of having a sample size that is too small. 21. Which procedure describes a probability sampling method? A) Identification of community organizations and churches in an urban setting and recruiting participants B) Identification of individuals demonstrating the variable(s) of interest to the researcher and recruiting participants C) Identification of the accessible population and selecting study participants based upon the researcher's belief that the participant is representative of the accessible population D) Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population, writing element names on paper, placing the written names in a bowl, and drawing a select number of names from the bowl Ans: D Feedback: Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population, writing element names on paper, placing the written names in a bowl, and drawing a select number of names from the bowl describes a probability sampling method. This is because probability sampling involves random selection of elements from a population, which is achieved in this case by drawing names from a bowl. The other answers do not include random selection. 22. Which statement regarding sampling error and sampling bias is accurate? A) Sampling bias may be defined as the difference between data obtained from a simple random sample and the data that would be obtained if an entire population were measured. B) Sampling bias occurs by chance. C) Sampling error and sampling bias are synonymous. D) Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when the most careful random sampling procedure has been used to obtain the sample. Ans: D Feedback: Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when the most careful random sampling procedure has been used to obtain the sample. There is no guarantee of a representative sample, but random selection does guarantee that differences between the sample and the population (sampling error) are purely a function of chance rather than of sampling bias. Sampling bias does not occur by chance and is not synonymous with sampling error. Sampling error, not sampling bias, is defined as the difference between data obtained from a simple random sample and the data that would be obtained if an entire population were measured. 23. Which group represents a convenience sample? A) The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in February B) One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study subjects who are currently in leadership roles C) Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of the accessible population D) Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for a study on gender differences Ans: A Feedback: Convenience sampling entails selecting the most conveniently available people as participants. A nurse who distributes questionnaires about vitamin use to 100 elders at a senior citizens center is sampling by convenience, for example. The problem with convenience sampling is that people who are readily available might be atypical of the population, and so the price of convenience is the risk of bias. Convenience sampling is the weakest form of sampling, but it is also the most commonly used sampling method in many disciplines. In this case, the best example of a convenience sample is “the patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in February,” because the sample includes only those patients who happen to be at the clinic during a short time period. The other answers indicate other sampling designs, including quota and purposive sampling. 24. Which sampling method would be most practical and provide the most reliable data to study the medication errors by registered nurses who work in city, county, and federal prisons? A) Purposive sampling B) Stratified random sampling C) Quota sampling D) Simple random sampling Ans: B Feedback: In stratified random sampling, the population is first divided into two or more strata, from which elements are randomly selected. The aim of stratified sampling is to enhance representativeness; as a type of probability sampling, it is more reliable than nonprobability sampling. This case would be ideal for stratified random sampling, as the population is readily divided into the strata of city, county, and federal prisons. Purposive sampling is based on the belief that researchers' knowledge about the population can be used to hand-pick sample members. Quota sampling occurs when researchers identify population strata and figure out how many people are needed from each stratum. Simple random sampling is the most basic probability sampling. 25. If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the researcher seeks a systematic random sample of 50, the sampling interval would be which of the following? A) 116 B) 600 C) 212 D) 53 Ans: C Feedback: To obtain the sampling interval, the size of the population is divided by the size of the desired sample. 26. When is a small sample size appropriate for a research study? A) Many uncontrolled variables are present. B) The population is very homogenous. C) Large differences are expected in members of the population on the variable of interest. D) The population must be divided into subgroups. Ans: C Feedback: When expected differences are large, a large sample is not needed to reveal group differences statistically; but when small differences are predicted, large samples are necessary. In general, however, a larger sample size leads to less bias and greater reliability. 27. A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following statement: “The overall hospital experience that I received during my hospital stay considered my needs as an individual.” They were asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of which scale? A) Social scale B) Likert scale C) Visual analog scale D) Differential scale Ans: B Feedback: A Likert scale consists of several declarative statements (items) that express a viewpoint on a topic. Respondents are asked to indicate how much they agree or disagree with the statement. This is an example of a Likert scale. Visual analog scales measure subjective experiences. There are no “social” or “differential” scales mentioned in this chapter. 28. The nurse researcher is conducting a study on a nonpharmacologic nursing intervention for the treatment of pain. Which data collection instrument would provide the most sensitive measurement of pain? A) Differential scale B) Physiologic measures C) Likert scale D) Visual analog scale Ans: D Feedback: A visual analog scale would provide the most sensitive measurement of pain, because it measures subjective experiences. Physiologic measures and the Likert scale do not effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain. There is no “differential scale.” 29. Which of the following is an advantage of observation as a method of data collection in a study? A) Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed. B) Respondents can remain anonymous. C) It is less time consuming than a questionnaire. D) It directly captures an event and behaviors. Ans: D Feedback: Observation directly captures an event and behaviors. Observational methods can be used to gather such information as the conditions of individuals, verbal communication, nonverbal communication, activities, and environmental conditions. Subject anxiety is not an advantage but a disadvantage of observation and may be eliminated by concealment. Respondents are not anonymous when observed, and observation is not less time consuming than a questionnaire. 30. Which of the following are advantages to biophysiologic measures? A) Biophysiologic measurements are subjective and accurate. B) Patients cannot distort the measurements and have objective measures. C) Biophysiologic measurements are self- reported. D) Biophysiologic measurements effectively indicate pain levels. Ans: B Feedback: An advantage of biophysiologic measures is that patients cannot distort the measurements and they include objective measures. Biophysiologic measures include both in vivo and in vitro measures. Biophysiologic measures are accurate, precise, and objective. They are not self- reported and cannot effectively indicate pain levels. CHAPTER 16 1 The first major step that a researcher must undertake in a qualitative analysis is which of the following? A) A search for major themes B) A search for appropriate metaphors C) The use of quasi-statistics D) Developing a system for organizing and indexing the data Ans: D Feedback: A first step in analyzing qualitative data is to organize and index the materials for easy retrieval, typically by coding the content of the data according to a category scheme. The actual analysis of data begins with a search for patterns and themes, which involves the discovery not only of commonalities across participants, but also of natural variation in the data. Some qualitative analysts use metaphors or figurative comparisons to evoke a visual and symbolic analogy. Another analytic step involves validation of the thematic analysis. Some researchers use quasi- statistics, a tabulation of the frequency with which certain themes or relations are supported by the data. In a final step, analysts try to weave the thematic strands together into an integrated picture of the phenomenon under investigation. 2. Before the advent of computer software for qualitative analysis, the main procedure for managing qualitative data was the development of which of the following? A) Conceptual files B) Core categories C) Memos D) Themes Ans: A Feedback: Traditionally, researchers have organized their data by developing conceptual files, which are physical files in which coded excerpts of data for specific categories are placed. Memos, themes, and core categories have not traditionally been used for management of qualitative data; rather they are current methods of analyzing qualitative data. Now, however, computer programs (CAQDAS) are widely used to perform basic indexing functions and to facilitate data analysis. 3. Which of the following statements is true? A) Narrative materials tend to be linear, which simplifies the coding process. B) Qualitative researchers typically develop a category scheme before they collect their data. C) CAQDAS is available for coding, organizing, and retrieving qualitative data. D) Content analysis is the analytic method used in phenomenologic studies. Ans: C Feedback: Computer assisted qualitative data analysis software (CAQDAS) can help to remove some of the work of cutting and pasting pages of narrative material. Software cannot, however, do the coding, and it cannot tell the researcher how to analyze the data.. Narrative materials usually are not linear, a fact that complicates coding. For example, paragraphs from transcribed interviews may contain elements relating to three or four different categories, embedded in a complex fashion. A preliminary category system is sometimes drafted before data collection, but more typically qualitative analysts develop category schemes based on a scrutiny of actual data. Qualitative content analysis involves analyzing the content of narrative data to identify prominent themes and patterns among the themes; this approach is not used in phenomenologic studies, which have alternate analytic methods. 4. Steps generally employed in the management and analysis of qualitative data include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Testing hypotheses B) Searching for recurrent themes and patterns C) Validating themes and patterns D) Developing a category scheme Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Glaser's grounded theory method is concerned with the generation of categories and hypotheses rather than testing them. A first step in analyzing qualitative data is to organize and index the materials for easy retrieval, typically by coding the content of the data according to a category scheme that is developed. The actual analysis of data begins with a search for patterns and themes and continues with the validation of these patterns and themes.. 5. Quasi-statistics are essentially a method of which of the following? A) Statistical analysis B) Validation C) Thematic generation D) Constant comparison Ans: B Feedback: Validation concerns whether the themes accurately represent the perspectives of the participants. In validating and refining themes, some researchers introduce quasi- statistics—a tabulation of the frequency with which certain themes or insights are supported by the data. Statistical analysis is a method used in analyzing quantitative studies. In a final step of theme generation, analysts try to weave the thematic strands together into an integrated picture of the phenomenon under investigation. Grounded theory uses the constant comparative method of data analysis, a method that involves comparing elements present in one data source (e.g., in one interview) with those in another. 6. Spradley's method includes which type of data analysis? Select all that apply. A) Domain analysis B) Taxonomic analysis C) Componential analysis D) Statistical analysis Ans: A, B, C Feedback: One analytic approach is Spradley's method, which involves four levels of analysis: domain analysis (identifying domains, or units of cultural knowledge); taxonomic analysis (selecting key domains and constructing taxonomies); componential analysis (comparing and contrasting terms in a domain); and a theme analysis (to uncover cultural themes). Statistical analysis is a method used in analyzing quantitative studies and is not included in Spradley's method. 7. Validation of themes by conferring with study participants was specifically considered inappropriate by whom? A) Colaizzi B) Giorgi C) Glaser D) Strauss Ans: B Feedback: Phenomenologists search for common patterns shared by particular instances. There are, however, some important differences among these approaches. Colaizzi's method, for example, is the only one that calls for a validation of results by querying study participants. Giorgi's view is that it is inappropriate either to return to participants to validate findings or to use external judges to review the analysis. The grounded theory method emerged in the 1960s in connection with research that focused on dying in hospitals by two sociologists, Glaser and Strauss. The two co-originators eventually split and developed divergent schools of thought, which have been called the “Glaserian” and “Straussian” versions of grounded theory. 8. An alternative to Spradley's approach to produce and analyze ethnographic data was developed by whom? A) Leininger B) Van Manen C) Colaizzi D) Giorgi Ans: A Feedback: Approaches to ethnographic analysis other than Spradley's have also been developed. For example, in their ethnonursing research method, Leininger and McFarland (2006) provided ethnographers with a four-phase ethno nursing data analysis guide. Van Manen, Colaizzi, and Giorgi were all phenomenologists. Phenomenologists from the Utrecht School, such as Van Manen (1997), combine characteristics of descriptive and interpretive phenomenology. Colaizzi's method is the only one that calls for a validation of results by querying study participants. Giorgi's view is that it is inappropriate either to return to participants to validate findings or to use external judges to review the analysis. 9. Diekelmann and colleagues proposed a 7- stage process of hermeneutic analysis that includes the identification of which of the following? A) An appropriate metaphor B) A constitutive pattern C) A hermeneutic circle D) An exemplar Ans: B Feedback: Diekelmann's team method of hermeneutic analysis calls for the discovery of a constitutive pattern that expresses the relationships among themes. Benner's approach consists of three processes: searching for paradigm cases, thematic analysis, and analysis of exemplars. Some qualitative analysts use metaphors or figurative comparisons to evoke a visual and symbolic analogy. Central to analyzing data in a hermeneutic study is the notion of the hermeneutic circle, which signifies a process in which there is continual movement between the parts and the whole of the text under analysis. 10. The process referred to as constant comparison involves which of the following? A) Comparing two researchers' interpretation of the data B) Comparing the researchers' interpretation of the data against study participants' interpretation C) Comparing elements present in one data source with those in another D) Comparing data from the study with data and categories from other similar studies Ans: C Feedback: Grounded theory uses the constant comparative method of data analysis, a method that involves comparing elements present in one data source (e.g., in one interview) with those in another, not comparing two researchers' interpretation of the data, researchers' interpretation of the data against study participants' interpretation, or data from the study with data and categories from other similar studies. 11. In the Strauss and Corbin approach to grounded theory, the initial process of breaking down, categorizing, and coding the data is often referred to as which of the following? A) Axial coding B) Core coding C) Open coding D) Selective coding Ans: C Feedback: The Strauss and Corbin grounded theory approach involves three types of coding: open (in which categories are generated), axial coding (where categories are linked with subcategories), and selective (in which the findings are integrated and refined). Substantive coding involves open coding to capture what is going on in the data, and then selective coding, in which only variables relating to a core category are coded. There is no core coding. 12. Level III codes, in the Glaser and Strauss approach to grounded theory, are which of the following? A) Axial codes B) In vivo codes C) Open codes D) Theoretical constructs Ans: D Feedback: In the Glaserian method, open codes begin with level I (in vivo) codes, which are collapsed into a higher level of abstraction in level II codes. Level II codes are then used to formulate level III codes, which are theoretical constructs. Axial coding is one of the three types of coding used in the Strauss and Corbin grounded theory method, not in the Glaser and Strauss method. 13. Selective coding in Glaserian approach to grounded theory studies begins when which of the following occurs? A) Constant comparison has ended B) Data saturation has occurred C) Memos have been prepared D) A core category has been identified Ans: D Feedback: Open coding ends when the core category is discovered, and then selective coding begins, not when data saturation has occurred or when memos have been prepared. Grounded theory uses the constant comparative method of data analysis, a method that involves comparing elements present in one data source (e.g., in one interview) with those in another. 14. Constructivist grounded theory is an approach developed by whom? A) Charmaz B) Glaser C) Strauss D) Corbin Ans: A Feedback: In Charmaz's constructivist grounded theory, coding can be word by word, line by line, or incident by incident. Initial coding leads to focused coding, which is then followed by theoretical coding. One grounded theory approach is the Glaser and Strauss (Glaserian) method, in which there are two broad types of codes: substantive codes (in which the empirical substance of the topic is conceptualized) and theoretical codes (in which the relationships among the substantive codes are conceptualized). The Strauss and Corbin (2008) approach to grounded theory analysis differs from the original Glaser and Strauss method with regard to method, processes, and outcomes. 15. Which of the following is a significant challenge in qualitative analysis? A) Mastering the standard procedures for analyzing qualitative data B) Lack of narrative materials to analyze C) Reducing data for reporting purposes D) Deducing particulars from a universal Ans: C Feedback: Qualitative data analysis is challenging, for several reasons. First, the absence of standard procedures makes it difficult to explain how to do such analyses. A second challenge is that qualitative analysts must organize and make sense of hundreds or even thousands of pages of narrative materials. A third challenge is that doing qualitative analysis well requires creativity, sensitivity, and strong inductive skills (inducing universals from particulars). A good qualitative analyst must be skillful in discerning patterns and weaving them together into an integrated whole. Another challenge comes in reducing data for reporting purposes. Quantitative results can often be summarized in a few tables. Qualitative researchers, by contrast, must balance the need to be concise with the need to maintain the richness and evidentiary value of their data. 16. Which of the following best describes the purpose of constant comparison? A) To identify commonalities among elements present in one data source with those in another B) To describe the essential nature of an experience C) To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants D) To fit concepts with the incidents they are representing Ans: A Feedback: Constant comparison is a method that involves comparing elements present in one data source (e.g., in one interview) with those in another. The process continues until the content of all sources has been compared so that commonalities are identified. To describe the essential nature of an experience is the goal of phenomenological analysis. To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants is the goal of ethnographers. To fit concepts with the incidents they are representing (fit) is another element in grounded analysis theory. 17. In qualitative data analysis, which element can be used as an analytic strategy? A) Management B) Metaphors C) Conceptualization D) Constructivism Ans: B Feedback: Some qualitative researchers use metaphors as an analytic strategy. A metaphor is a symbolic comparison, using figurative language to evoke a visual analogy. Management, conceptualization and constructivism are all valid components of qualitative analysis, but none constitutes an analytic strategy. 18. Which of the following is an activity involved in qualitative content analysis? Select all that apply. A) Breaking down data into smaller units B) Coding and naming units according to the content they represent C) Collecting information on participants D) Grouping coded material based on shared concepts Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Qualitative content analysis involves breaking down data into smaller units, coding and naming the units according to the content they represent, and grouping coded material based on shared concepts. Collecting information on participants is not associated with the process of content analysis. 19. Phenomenology most fundamentally involves a search for which of the following? A) A core category from open coding B) Intersubjective agreement among judges C) Thematic descriptions from artistic sources D) Common patterns shared by particular instances Ans: D Feedback: The basic outcome of all three methods of phenomenology is the description of the essential nature of an experience, often through the identification of essential themes. Phenomenologists search for common patterns shared by particular instances. Van Manen, a phenomenologist from the Utrecht School, called for gleaning thematic descriptions from artistic sources, such as literature, painting, and other art forms, claiming that they can provide rich experiential data that can increase insights into the essential meaning of the experience being studied. This, however, is not the fundamental goal of phenomenology. Discovery of a core category as a result of open coding is part of constant comparison, a method used in grounded theory research, not phenomenology. Intersubjective agreement among judges is a requirement of the method of Van Kaam, a phenomenologist of the Duquesne School; again, this is not the fundamental object of search in phenomenology. 20. The Duquesne School of Phenomenology is based on the philosophy of which of the following? A) Colaizzi B) Van Kaam C) Husserl D) Giorgi Ans: C Feedback: Three frequently used methods for descriptive phenomenology are the methods of Colaizzi (1978), Giorgi (1985), and Van Kaam (1966), all of whom are from the Duquesne School of phenomenology, based on Husserl's philosophy. 21. Which of the following is the first stage of Diekelmann, Allen, and Tanner's (1989) process of data analysis in hermeneutics? A) Interpretive summaries of each interview are written. B) A team of researchers analyzes selected transcribed interviews or texts. C) All the interviews or texts are read for an overall understanding. D) Common meanings and shared practices are identified by comparing and contrasting the text. Ans: C Feedback: Diekelmann and colleagues' stages include the following: 1. All the interviews or texts are read for an overall understanding. 2. Interpretive summaries of each interview are written. 3. A team of researchers analyzes selected transcribed interviews or texts. 4. Any disagreements on interpretation are resolved by going back to the text. 5. Common meanings and shared practices are identified by comparing and contrasting the text. 6. Relationships among themes emerge. 7. A draft of the themes along with exemplars from texts are presented to the team. Responses or suggestions are incorporated into the final draft. 22. What is the primary outcome of Strauss and Corbin's (2008) approach to grounded theory? A) A theory of how a social problem is processed B) A full conceptual description C) A central category D) A core category Ans: B Feedback: The outcome of the Strauss and Corbin approach is a full conceptual description. The original grounded theory method, by contrast, generates a theory that explains how a basic social problem that emerged from the data is processed in a social setting. Deciding on the central category (sometimes called the core category), which is the main category of the research, is the first step in integrating the findings in the Strauss and Corbin approach. 23. Which of the following accurately describes a task that computer-assisted qualitative data analysis software can accomplish? Select all that apply. A) Code interview portions and observational records B) Facilitate examination of relationships between codes C) Inform the researcher of how best to analyze the data D) Allow retrieval of portions of text corresponding to specified codes for analysis Ans: B, D Feedback: Computer assisted qualitative data analysis software (CAQDAS) can help to remove some of the work of cutting and pasting pages of narrative material. Dozens of CAQDAS have been developed. These programs permit an entire data set to be entered onto the computer, each portion of an interview or observational record coded, and then portions of the text corresponding to specified codes retrieved for analysis. The software can also be used to examine relationships between codes. Software cannot, however, do the coding, and it cannot tell the researcher how to analyze the data. 24. The primary goal of ethnography is which of the following? A) To identify and categorize descriptors B) To abstract major themes C) To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants D) To collect, describe, and record data Ans: C Feedback: Analysis typically begins the moment ethnographers set foot in the field. Ethnographers are continually looking for patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants, comparing one pattern against another, and analyzing many patterns simultaneously. Identifying and categorizing descriptors, abstracting major themes, and collecting, describing, and recording data are all phases in the ethnonursing research method, which is one approach to ethnographic analysis. 25. Which of the following is the final phase of Leininger and McFarland's (2006) ethnonursing data analysis guide? A) Abstract major themes and present findings B) Identify and categorize descriptors C) Analyze data to discover repetitive patterns in their context D) Collect, describe, and record data Ans: A Feedback: In their ethnonursing research method, Leininger and McFarland (2006) provided ethnographers with a four-phase ethnonursing data analysis guide. In the first phase ethnographers collect, describe, and record data. The second phase involves identifying and categorizing descriptors. In phase 3, data are analyzed to discover repetitive patterns in their context. The fourth and final phase involves. 26. Which of the following is the correct order of tasks in organizing and managing narrative data for qualitative analysis? A) 1. Organize the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4. check the accuracy of transcribed data B) 1. Develop a category scheme; 2. check the accuracy of transcribed data; 3. read and code the data; 4. organize the data C) 1. Check the accuracy of transcribed data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4. organize the data D) 1. Read and code the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. check the accuracy of transcribed data; 4. organize the data Ans: C Feedback: A key first step in qualitative analysis is checking the accuracy of transcribed data. Subsequent steps, in order, include developing a category scheme, reading and coding the data, and organizing the data. 27. Which of the following can best facilitate researchers' search for themes? A) Charting devices B) Detailed coding C) Quasi-statistics D) Computer software Ans: A Feedback: Researchers' search for themes, regularities, and patterns in the data can sometimes be facilitated by charting devices that enable them to summarize the evolution of behaviors, events, and processes. Detailed coding and computer software are tasks involved in data management and organization, not in the search for themes. Quasi-statistics are used to validate and refine themes, not to facilitate the search for them. 28. Why does a researcher introduce quasi- statistics? A) As an analytic strategy B) To validate and refine themes C) As a taxonomic analysis D) To provide an overall structure Ans: B Feedback: In validating and refining themes, some researchers introduce quasi-statistics—a tabulation of the frequency with which certain themes or insights are supported by the data. The use of quasi-statistics does not provide overall structure or taxonomic analysis and it is not an analytic strategy in and of itself. CHAPTER 9 QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH DESIGNS 1 The research design for a quantitative study involves decisions with regard to which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Which conceptual framework to use B) Whether there will be an intervention C) What types of comparisons will be made D) How many times data will be collected Ans: B, C, D Feedback: The research design is the overall plan for answering research questions. In quantitative studies, the design designates whether there is an intervention, the nature of any comparisons, methods for controlling confounding variables, whether there will be blinding, and the timing and location of data collection. Choosing a conceptual framework is not a significant part of the research design for quantitative studies but is more important in qualitative studies. 2. Which of the following are key criteria for making causal inferences about the relationship between two variables? Select all that apply. A) Lack of temporal ambiguity about which variable occurred first B) Statistical confirmation that a relationship between the two exists C) The ability to randomly assign study participants to groups D) The ability to rule out other factors as potential causes of the outcome Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Key criteria for inferring causality include: (1) a cause (independent variable) must precede an effect (outcome); (2) there must be a detectable relationship between a cause and an effect; and (3) the relationship between the two does not reflect the influence of a third (confounding) variable. The ability to randomly assign study participants to groups is not a key criterion for causality but rather is a method of preventing systematic bias. 3. An important function of a rigorous research design in a quantitative study is to have control over which of the following? A) Outcome variables B) Mediating variables C) Carryover variables D) Confounding variables Ans: D Feedback: Key criteria for inferring causality include: (1) a cause (independent variable) must precede an effect (outcome); (2) there must be a detectable relationship between a cause and an effect (mediating); and (3) the relationship between the two does not reflect the influence of a third (confounding) variable. A crossover design has the advantage of ensuring the highest possible equivalence among the people exposed to different conditions. Such designs are inappropriate for certain research questions, however, because of possible carryover effects. Outcome variables are not to be controlled but are the effect that is under study. Mediating variables are those through which another variable has an effect on the outcome variable. They do not need to be controlled. 4. A true experiment requires which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Control B) Intervention C) Blinding D) Randomization Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Experiments (or randomized controlled trials, RCTs) involve an intervention (the researcher manipulates the independent variable by introducing an intervention; control (including the use of a control group that is not given the intervention and represents the comparative counterfactual); and randomization or random assignment (with participants allocated to experimental and control groups at random to make the groups comparable at the outset). Blinding is a means of controlling external sources of bias, but is not required or even feasible for all experiments. By keeping data collectors and others unaware of group allocation or study hypotheses, researchers minimize the risk that other people involved in the study will influence the results. 5. The use of a random numbers table for assigning subjects to groups eliminates which of the following? A) Selection threat B) Intervention fidelity C) Attrition D) Carryover effects Ans: A Feedback: A selection threat reflects biases stemming from preexisting differences between groups; use of random assignment via a random numbers table eliminates selection threat. Careful researchers pay attention to intervention fidelity—that is, they take steps to monitor that an intervention is faithfully delivered in accordance with its plan and that the intended treatment was actually received. Longitudinal studies are typically expensive, time-consuming, and subject to the risk of attrition (loss of participants over time), but yield valuable information about time-related phenomena. A crossover design has the advantage of ensuring the highest possible equivalence among the people exposed to different conditions. Such designs are inappropriate for certain research questions, however, because of possible carryover effects—that is, when subjects are exposed to two different treatments, they may be influenced in the second condition by their experience in the first. Random assignment does not eliminate intervention fidelity, attrition, or carryover effects. 6. Which of the following is invariably present in quasi-experimental research? A) A control group B) An intervention C) Matching of subjects D) Randomization Ans: B Feedback: Quasi-experiments (trials without randomization) involve an intervention but lack randomization and, sometimes, a control group. Strong quasi-experimental designs introduce controls to compensate for these missing components. Matching of subjects is a method of controlling confounding variables by consciously forming comparable groups, which is used in some, but not all, quasi-experiments. 7. A one-group pretest-posttest design is an example of which of the following? A) A crossover design B) A true experimental design C) A quasi-experimental design D) A retrospective design Ans: C Feedback: Quasi-experiments involve an intervention but lack randomization and sometimes even a comparison group. Strong quasi- experimental designs introduce controls to compensate for these missing components. In crossover designs, people are exposed to more than one experimental condition in random order and serve as their own controls. Experiments involve an intervention; control; and randomization or random assignment. Retrospective designs involve collecting data about an outcome in the present and then looking back in time for possible causes. 8. A pretest is to a posttest as which of the following? A) The placebo effect is to the Hawthorne effect B) A baseline measure is to a final outcome measure C) Blinding is to matching D) Attrition is to a mortality threat Ans: B Feedback: In pretest-posttest designs, data are collected both before the intervention (at baseline) and after it (outcome). The control group can undergo various conditions, including no treatment; an alternative treatment; a placebo or pseudo intervention; standard treatment at different treatment doses; or a wait-list condition. In the Hawthorne effect, various environmental conditions vary to determine their effect on worker productivity. Blinding is another means of controlling external sources of bias. Matching is deliberately making groups comparable on some extraneous variables. Longitudinal studies are typically expensive, time-consuming, and subject to the risk of attrition (loss of participants over time). Mortality is the threat that arises from attrition in groups being compared. If different kinds of people remain in the study in one group versus another, then these differences, rather than the independent variable, could account for group differences in outcomes. 9. One weakness associated with cause- probing correlational research is which of the following? A) Artificiality of the settings in which it occurs B) Difficulty in linking the research to a theoretical framework C) Problem of self-selection into groups D) Inability to generalize the findings beyond the sample Ans: C Feedback: Correlational studies are susceptible to faulty interpretation because groups being compared have formed through self- selection (also called selection bias). When researchers study the effect of a cause they cannot manipulate, they use correlational designs that examine relationships between variables. A correlation is an interrelationship or association between two variables, that is, a tendency for variation in one variable to be related to variation in another. Correlations can be detected through statistical analyses. 10. Which of the following research designs is weakest in terms of the researcher's ability to establish causality? A) Experimental B) Retrospective case-control C) Prospective cohort D) Quasi-experimental Ans: B Feedback: Retrospective designs (case-control designs) involve collecting data about an outcome in the present and then looking back in time for possible causes. Experiments are considered the gold standard because they come closer than any other design in meeting the criteria for inferring causal relationships. In prospective cohort designs, researchers begin with a possible cause, and then subsequently collect data about outcomes. Prospective studies are more costly, but much stronger, than retrospective studies. For one thing, any ambiguity about the temporal sequence of phenomena is resolved in prospective research (i.e., smoking is known to precede the lung cancer). Quasi-experiments (trials without randomization) involve an intervention but lack a comparison group or randomization. Strong quasi-experimental designs introduce controls to compensate for these missing components, and thus are generally stronger than non- experimental designs (including retrospective designs). 11. If a researcher wanted to describe the relationship between women's age and frequency of performing breast self- examination, the study would be classified as which of the following? A) Descriptive correlational B) Quasi-experimental C) Longitudinal D) Experimental Ans: A Feedback: Nonexperimental (observational) research includes descriptive research—studies that summarize the status of phenomena—and correlational studies that examine relationships among variables but involve no intervention or attempt to infer causal connections. Quasi-experiments (trials without randomization) involve an intervention but lack a comparison group or randomization. Longitudinal designs involve data collection at two or more times over an extended period. Experiments (or randomized controlled trials, RCTs) involve an intervention (the researcher manipulates the independent variable by introducing an intervention; control (including the use of a control group that is not given the intervention and represents the comparative counterfactual); and randomization or random assignment (with participants allocated to experimental and control groups at random to make the groups comparable at the outset). 12. Studies that collect data at one point in time are called which of the following? A) Time series B) Cross-sectional studies C) Longitudinal studies D) Crossover studies Ans: B Feedback: Cross-sectional designs involve the collection of data at one time period, whereas longitudinal designs involve data collection at two or more times over an extended period. In a time-series design, outcome data are collected over a period of time before and after the intervention, usually for a single group. In crossover designs, people are exposed to more than one experimental condition in random order and serve as their own controls. 13. A study that followed, over a 20-year period, 500 users and 500 non-users of oral contraceptives to determine if there were any long-term side effects would be which of the following? A) Time series B) Retrospective study C) Prospective study D) Crossover study Ans: C Feedback: In prospective cohort designs, researchers begin with a possible cause, and then subsequently collect data about outcomes. Retrospective designs (case-control designs) involve collecting data about an outcome in the present and then looking back in time for possible causes. In a time- series design, outcome data are collected over a period of time before and after the intervention, usually for a single group. In crossover designs, people are exposed to more than one experimental condition in random order and serve as their own controls. 14. Constancy of conditions is often enhanced through which of the following? A) Collect data at the same time every day B) Using a crossover design C) Maximizing the external validity of the study D) Avoiding carryover effects Ans: A Feedback: Various external factors, such as the research environment, can affect outcomes. In carefully controlled quantitative research, steps are taken to minimize situational contaminants (i.e., to achieve constancy of conditions) so that researchers can be confident that outcomes reflect the influence of the independent variable and not the study context. Collecting data at the same time every day is an example of this. A crossover design involves exposing people to more than one treatment. Such designs are inappropriate for certain research questions, however, because of possible carryover effects. External validity concerns inferences about whether relationships found for study participants might hold true for different people, conditions, and settings. These other answers do not enhance constancy of conditions. 15. Using homogeneity as a strategy for controlling confounding variables can reduce which of the following? A) Construct validity B) External validity C) Intervention fidelity D) Internal validity Ans: B Feedback: External validity concerns inferences about whether relationships found for study participants might hold true for different people, conditions, and settings —in other words, generalizability. Using a homogeneous sample is easy, but one problem is limited generalizability. Indeed, one problem with this approach is that researchers may exclude people who are extremely ill or incapacitated, which means that the findings cannot be generalized to the very people who perhaps are most in need of interventions. Construct validity involves inferences from the particulars of the study to the higher-order constructs they are intended to represent. If studies contain construct errors, there is a risk that the evidence will be misleading. Intervention fidelity helps to avert biases and gives potential benefits a full opportunity to be realized. Internal validity is the extent to which it can be inferred that the independent variable is truly causing the outcome. 16. Which of the following is the most effective method for controlling participant factors? A) Using a homogeneous sample B) Statistical control C) Matching subjects D) Randomization Ans: D Feedback: Techniques for controlling subject characteristics include homogeneity (restricting participants to reduce variability on confounding variables); matching (deliberately making groups comparable on some extraneous variables); statistical procedures; and randomization—the most effective method because it controls all possible confounding variables without researchers having to identify them. 17. In a case-control design, a frequently used method of controlling confounding variables is which of the following? A) Using participants as their own controls B) Matching of cases and controls on confounding variables C) Randomization to groups D) Homogeneity of the sample Ans: B Feedback: Techniques for controlling subject characteristics include homogeneity (restricting participants to reduce variability on confounding variables); matching (deliberately making groups comparable on some extraneous variables); statistical procedures; and randomization—the most effective method because it controls all possible confounding variables without researchers having to identify them. 18. The researcher does not have to know in advance which confounding variables have to be controlled for which of the following procedures? A) Matching B) Randomization C) Statistical control D) Homogeneity Ans: B Feedback: Techniques for controlling subject characteristics include homogeneity (restricting participants to reduce variability on confounding variables); matching (deliberately making groups comparable on some extraneous variables); statistical procedures; and randomization—the most effective method because it controls all possible confounding variables without researchers having to identify them. 19. The threat to internal validity that occurs when external co-occurring events or conditions affect outcomes is the threat known as which of the following? A) Maturation B) Selection C) Testing D) History Ans: D Feedback: The history threat is the occurrence of events concurrent with the independent variable that can affect the outcome. The maturation threat arises from processes occurring as a result of time (e.g., growth, fatigue) rather than the independent variable. The selection threat reflects biases stemming from preexisting differences between groups. RCTs have a clear superiority for testing causal hypotheses. Internal validity is the extent to which it can be inferred that the independent variable is truly causing the outcome. 20. In a nonequivalent control group design, the most serious threat to internal validity is which of the following? A) Testing B) Selection C) Maturation D) History Ans: B Feedback: The selection threat reflects biases stemming from preexisting differences between groups. Selection bias is the most challenging threat to the internal validity of studies not using an experimental design (e.g., nonequivalent control group designs, case-control designs), but can be partially addressed using control mechanisms described in the previous section. The history threat is the occurrence of events concurrent with the independent variable that can affect the outcome. The maturation threat arises from processes occurring as a result of time (e.g., growth, fatigue) rather than the independent variable. RCTs have a clear superiority for testing causal hypotheses. Internal validity is the extent to which it can be inferred that the independent variable is truly causing the outcome. 21. In an RCT, the most serious threat to internal validity typically is which of the following? A) Mortality B) Selection C) Maturation D) History Ans: A Feedback: Mortality is the threat that arises from attrition in groups being compared. If different kinds of people remain in the study in one group versus another, then these differences, rather than the independent variable, could account for group differences in outcomes. The selection threat reflects biases stemming from preexisting differences between groups. Selection bias is the most challenging threat to the internal validity of studies not using an experimental design (e.g., nonequivalent control group designs, case-control designs), but can be partially addressed using control mechanisms described in the previous section. The history threat is the occurrence of events concurrent with the independent variable that can affect the outcome. In RCTs, history is not typically a threat because external events are as likely to affect one randomized group as another. The maturation threat arises from processes occurring as a result of time (e.g., growth, fatigue) rather than the independent variable. One-group pretest- posttest designs are especially vulnerable to the maturation threat. 22. A study is internally valid to the extent that which of the following has taken place? A) All alternative explanations to the independent variable as the cause of outcomes can be ruled out B) A true experimental design was used C) Intervention fidelity was maintained D) A strong counterfactual was established Ans: A Feedback: Internal validity is the extent to which it can be inferred that the independent variable is truly causing the outcome. Experiments (or randomized controlled trials, RCTs) involve an intervention (the researcher manipulates the independent variable by introducing an intervention; control (including the use of a control group that is not given the intervention and represent