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Certified Asthma Educator (AE-C) Practice Examination Questions & 100% Verified Answers # Ace Your 2026 RN ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam with Confidence!

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Certified Asthma Educator (AE-C) Practice Examination Questions & 100% Verified Answers # Ace Your 2026 RN ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam with Confidence!

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Certified Asthma Educator (AE-C) Practice
Examination Questions & 100% Verified
Answers # Ace Your 2026 RN ATI Med-Surg
Proctored Exam with Confidence!

Question 1.
Which of the following best describes the primary pathophysiologic mechanism in
asthma?
A. Destruction of alveolar walls leading to loss of elastic recoil
B. Chronic airway inflammation with variable airflow obstruction and bronchial
hyperresponsiveness
C. Progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma
D. Bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy without inflammation


Answer: B
Rationale: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways
characterized by variable and recurring symptoms, airflow obstruction, bronchial
hyperresponsiveness, and underlying inflammation. Emphysema involves alveolar
destruction; fibrosis is characteristic of interstitial lung diseases.




Question 2.

,A 10 year old child with asthma has a forced expiratory volume in 1 second
(FEV₁) of 75% predicted before bronchodilator and an FEV₁/FVC ratio of 0.70. After
albuterol, FEV₁ increases by 15% and 250 mL. This indicates:
A. Restrictive lung disease
B. Significant bronchodilator reversibility
C. Poorly controlled asthma without reversibility
D. Fixed airway obstruction


Answer: B
Rationale: A ≥12% and ≥200 mL increase in FEV₁ after bronchodilator
confirms reversible airflow obstruction, a hallmark of asthma. A low FEV₁/FVC
ratio with improvement supports asthma diagnosis.




Question 3.
Which cells play the central role in the chronic inflammation of asthma?
A. Neutrophils and macrophages
B. Eosinophils, mast cells, and T helper 2 lymphocytes
C. Fibroblasts and type II pneumocytes
D. Squamous epithelial cells


Answer: B
Rationale: Eosinophils, mast cells, and Th2 lymphocytes release mediators
(leukotrienes, histamine, cytokines) that drive airway inflammation, mucus
hypersecretion, and bronchoconstriction in asthma.

, Question 4.
The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) Expert Panel
Report 3 (EPR 3) classifies asthma severity based on:
A. Frequency of exacerbations only
B. Impairment and risk domains
C. Spirometry values alone
D. The number of emergency department visits in the past year


Answer: B
Rationale: Asthma severity is determined by both impairment (current
symptoms, lung function, functional limitations) and risk (future exacerbations,
decline in lung function, adverse medication effects). Treatment is stepped
accordingly.




Question 5.
A hallmark symptom of asthma that helps distinguish it from other respiratory
conditions is:
A. Productive cough with purulent sputum
B. Wheezing, chest tightness, and cough that vary over time and in intensity
C. Constant shortness of breath independent of triggers
D. Hemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain

, Answer: B
Rationale: Variable and episodic symptoms (wheezing, dyspnea, chest
tightness, cough) triggered by allergens, exercise, viral infections, or irritants are
characteristic of asthma. Purulent sputum and hemoptysis suggest infection or
other diseases.




Question 6.
Which tool is a validated questionnaire for assessing asthma control over the past
4 weeks in patients 12 years and older?
A. GOLD Assessment
B. Asthma Control Test (ACT)
C. COPD Assessment Test (CAT)
D. Nijmegen Questionnaire


Answer: B
Rationale: The ACT is a 5 item patient completed tool assessing frequency of
symptoms, rescue medication use, effect on daily functioning, and self rated
control. Scores ≤19 indicate poorly controlled asthma.




Question 7.
A peak expiratory flow (PEF) meter is primarily used to:

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