HESI LPN-ADN ENTRANCE EXAM 200 MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (2026-27 NEWEST VERSION)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Q1–Q30)
Q1. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Which sign indicates
a potential transfusion reaction that requires immediate action?
A) Mild itching at the IV site
B) Flushing and feeling warm
C) Chills, fever, and back pain
D) Slight increase in heart rate
ANSWER: C) Chills, fever, and back pain
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain are classic signs of a hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion
immediately, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the
provider. Mild itching or flushing may occur but are less urgent.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a patient on fall precautions. Which
intervention is most effective in preventing falls?
A) Keeping the bed in the lowest position
B) Using bed alarms for all patients
C) Placing the call light within reach
D) All of the above
,ANSWER: D) All of the above
Rationale: Fall prevention requires multiple interventions: bed in
lowest position, bed/chair alarms, call light within reach, non-slip
footwear, and frequent rounding. A multifactorial approach is most
effective.
Q3. Which vital sign finding would the nurse report immediately in
a postoperative patient?
A) Heart rate 88 bpm
B) Blood pressure 118/72 mmHg
C) Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min with crackles
D) Temperature 99.2°F (37.3°C)
ANSWER: C) Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min with crackles
Rationale: Tachypnea (RR 28) with crackles suggests pulmonary
edema or fluid overload, a serious postoperative complication. This
requires immediate provider notification. The other vital signs are
within normal limits.
Q4. Which of the following is the correct sequence for donning
personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
B) Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
,C) Mask, eye protection, gown, gloves
D) Eye protection, mask, gown, gloves
ANSWER: B) Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
Rationale: The correct sequence for donning PPE is gown first, then
mask, eye protection, and gloves last. This ensures the most
contaminated items are applied last. Removal sequence is gloves, eye
protection, gown, mask.
Q5. A patient is on strict intake and output monitoring. The nurse
should record which of the following as output?
A) Oral fluids consumed
B) IV fluids infused
C) Urine, emesis, and wound drainage
D) Tube feeding volume
ANSWER: C) Urine, emesis, and wound drainage
Rationale: Output includes urine, emesis, diarrhea, wound drainage,
and chest tube output. Oral fluids and IV fluids are input, not output.
Accurate I&O is critical for fluid balance assessment.
Q6. Which dietary modification is appropriate for a patient with a
new colostomy?
A) Increase high-fiber foods
, B) Avoid gas-producing foods initially
C) Increase dairy products
D) Decrease fluid intake
ANSWER: B) Avoid gas-producing foods initially
Rationale: Patients with a new colostomy should initially avoid gas-
producing foods (beans, broccoli, cabbage, onions) and gradually
reintroduce them to assess tolerance. High-fiber foods should be
introduced slowly to prevent obstruction.
Q7. A patient is prescribed NPO (nothing by mouth) status. What is
the primary reason for this order?
A) To promote rest of the digestive system
B) To prevent aspiration during procedures
C) To reduce nausea
D) To decrease metabolic rate
ANSWER: B) To prevent aspiration during procedures
Rationale: NPO status is primarily ordered to prevent aspiration of
gastric contents during surgery, procedures, or when the patient has
a decreased level of consciousness. It reduces the risk of pulmonary
aspiration, a life-threatening complication.
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (2026-27 NEWEST VERSION)
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Q1–Q30)
Q1. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Which sign indicates
a potential transfusion reaction that requires immediate action?
A) Mild itching at the IV site
B) Flushing and feeling warm
C) Chills, fever, and back pain
D) Slight increase in heart rate
ANSWER: C) Chills, fever, and back pain
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain are classic signs of a hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion
immediately, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the
provider. Mild itching or flushing may occur but are less urgent.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a patient on fall precautions. Which
intervention is most effective in preventing falls?
A) Keeping the bed in the lowest position
B) Using bed alarms for all patients
C) Placing the call light within reach
D) All of the above
,ANSWER: D) All of the above
Rationale: Fall prevention requires multiple interventions: bed in
lowest position, bed/chair alarms, call light within reach, non-slip
footwear, and frequent rounding. A multifactorial approach is most
effective.
Q3. Which vital sign finding would the nurse report immediately in
a postoperative patient?
A) Heart rate 88 bpm
B) Blood pressure 118/72 mmHg
C) Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min with crackles
D) Temperature 99.2°F (37.3°C)
ANSWER: C) Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min with crackles
Rationale: Tachypnea (RR 28) with crackles suggests pulmonary
edema or fluid overload, a serious postoperative complication. This
requires immediate provider notification. The other vital signs are
within normal limits.
Q4. Which of the following is the correct sequence for donning
personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
B) Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
,C) Mask, eye protection, gown, gloves
D) Eye protection, mask, gown, gloves
ANSWER: B) Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
Rationale: The correct sequence for donning PPE is gown first, then
mask, eye protection, and gloves last. This ensures the most
contaminated items are applied last. Removal sequence is gloves, eye
protection, gown, mask.
Q5. A patient is on strict intake and output monitoring. The nurse
should record which of the following as output?
A) Oral fluids consumed
B) IV fluids infused
C) Urine, emesis, and wound drainage
D) Tube feeding volume
ANSWER: C) Urine, emesis, and wound drainage
Rationale: Output includes urine, emesis, diarrhea, wound drainage,
and chest tube output. Oral fluids and IV fluids are input, not output.
Accurate I&O is critical for fluid balance assessment.
Q6. Which dietary modification is appropriate for a patient with a
new colostomy?
A) Increase high-fiber foods
, B) Avoid gas-producing foods initially
C) Increase dairy products
D) Decrease fluid intake
ANSWER: B) Avoid gas-producing foods initially
Rationale: Patients with a new colostomy should initially avoid gas-
producing foods (beans, broccoli, cabbage, onions) and gradually
reintroduce them to assess tolerance. High-fiber foods should be
introduced slowly to prevent obstruction.
Q7. A patient is prescribed NPO (nothing by mouth) status. What is
the primary reason for this order?
A) To promote rest of the digestive system
B) To prevent aspiration during procedures
C) To reduce nausea
D) To decrease metabolic rate
ANSWER: B) To prevent aspiration during procedures
Rationale: NPO status is primarily ordered to prevent aspiration of
gastric contents during surgery, procedures, or when the patient has
a decreased level of consciousness. It reduces the risk of pulmonary
aspiration, a life-threatening complication.
