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NUR 170 / NUR170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 2 Practice Test Actual 2025/2026 with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded

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NUR 170 / NUR170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 2 Practice Test Actual 2025/2026 – Real-Style Exam Questions | 100% Correct Answers | Cardiovascular & Respiratory Disorders | Gastrointestinal & Renal Systems | Neurological & Musculoskeletal Conditions | Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders | Immune & Inflammatory Responses | Pain Management & Comfort | Detailed Rationales | Graded A+ Verified | Pass Guaranteed – Instant Download

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Institution
NUR 170
Module
NUR 170

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NUR 170 / NUR170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical
Nursing Exam 2 Practice Test Actual 2025/2026 with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded



SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (12 Questions)


Q1: A patient with heart failure has a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 30%.
The nurse understands this patient has:

A. Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)

B. Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) [CORRECT]

C. Diastolic dysfunction only

D. Normal cardiac function

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct because HFrEF is defined as an LVEF of 40% or less; an LVEF of
30% indicates significant systolic dysfunction requiring guideline-directed medical
therapy including ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and diuretics.



Q2: A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for
which common adverse effect?

A. Hypoglycaemia

B. Hyperkalaemia and dry cough [CORRECT]

,C. Bradycardia

D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors like lisinopril commonly cause a dry,
nonproductive cough due to bradykinin accumulation and can cause hyperkalaemia
by reducing aldosterone-mediated potassium excretion in the distal nephron.



Q3: A patient with coronary artery disease is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for
angina. The nurse should instruct the patient to:

A. Take one tablet and call 911 if pain is not relieved after 5 minutes; may repeat
every 5 minutes up to 3 doses [CORRECT]

B. Swallow the tablet with water for faster absorption

C. Take all three tablets at once for severe pain

D. Take the tablet only after eating a large meal

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct because nitroglycerin dosing for angina is one sublingual tablet
every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses; if pain persists after 3 doses, emergency medical
services should be contacted due to concern for acute coronary syndrome.



Q4: A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) reports calf pain when walking
that resolves with rest. This symptom is called:

A. Peripheral neuropathy

B. Intermittent claudication [CORRECT]

,C. Rest pain

D. Compartment syndrome

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct because intermittent claudication is reproducible ischaemic
muscle pain precipitated by exercise and relieved by rest, caused by inadequate
arterial blood flow to the lower extremities due to atherosclerotic stenosis.



Q5: A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse knows that the
therapeutic INR range for most indications is:

A. 1.5–2.0

B. 2.0–3.0 [CORRECT]

C. 3.0–4.0

D. 4.0–5.0

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct because the target INR for warfarin therapy in atrial fibrillation and
most venous thromboembolism indications is 2.0–3.0, balancing stroke prevention
with bleeding risk.



Q6: A patient with acute decompensated heart failure has crackles in both lung
bases, jugular venous distension, and 3+ pitting oedema in the lower extremities.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?

A. Furosemide (Lasix) [CORRECT]

B. Dopamine

, C. Atropine

D. Epinephrine

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct because furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload
in acute decompensated heart failure by promoting diuresis, relieving pulmonary
congestion, and reducing peripheral oedema.



Q7: A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving tissue plasminogen
activator (tPA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

A. Blood pressure of 140/88 mmHg

B. Heart rate of 92 bpm

C. Sudden severe headache with a drop in Glasgow Coma Scale [CORRECT]

D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct because tPA is a thrombolytic agent with a significant risk of
intracranial haemorrhage; sudden severe headache or altered mental status requires
immediate discontinuation of the infusion and emergency neuroimaging.



Q8: A patient with atherosclerosis asks the nurse which lipid is considered "good"
cholesterol. The nurse should identify:

A. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

B. Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)

C. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) [CORRECT]

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