FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING MOCK
EXAMINATION (2026–2027)
PRACTICE EXAMINATION FOR NURSING
FUNDAMENTALS CONTENT MASTERY
Field of Study: Fundamentals of Nursing / Nursing Foundations
Edition: 2026–2027
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a client. Which of the following is the
most important step to ensure safe administration?
A) Checking the medication label against the medication administration record (MAR) three times
B) Asking the client to state their name
C) Using two patient identifiers, such as name and date of birth
D) Verifying the medication dose with another nurse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires the use of at least two patient identifiers before
administering medications or performing procedures. While checking the label (A) and asking the
client's name (B) are important, the standard is to use two identifiers. Verifying the dose with another
nurse (D) is not required for all medications, only high-alert ones.
2. The nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which personal protective equipment
(PPE) should the nurse wear when entering the client's room?
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown and gloves only
D) No mask is required
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the client. An N95
respirator (A) is required for airborne precautions. Gown and gloves (C) are used for contact
precautions and may be added if contact with secretions is anticipated, but the mask is essential for
droplet precautions.
3. A client is found lying on the floor next to the bed. What should the nurse document first after
ensuring the client's safety?
A) That the client fell and was found on the floor
B) The assessment findings, including vital signs and any injuries, and the circumstances of the fall
C) The client's statement about what happened
D) The time the healthcare provider was notified
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a fall, the nurse must first assess the client for injuries and document objective
findings, vital signs, and the situation. The incident report may include the statement but is separate
from the medical record. The medical record should contain only objective assessment data. Option A
is incomplete; C may be part of the documentation but not the primary focus; D is important but
follows assessment.
4. The nurse is inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action best confirms correct placement
before initiating tube feeding?
A) Auscultating for a whooshing sound over the epigastrium when air is injected
B) Checking the pH of gastric aspirate and obtaining a chest X-ray
C) Observing for bubbling at the end of the tube when the client exhales
D) Asking the client to speak
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most reliable methods for confirming NG tube placement are obtaining a chest X-ray
and checking the pH of gastric aspirate (pH ≤5.5 indicates gastric placement). Auscultation (A) is no
,longer considered reliable. Bubbling (C) may indicate the tube is in the trachea. Asking the client to
speak (D) is not a reliable method.
5. A client has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute after receiving morphine. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A) Document the finding
B) Administer naloxone as prescribed
C) Stimulate the client and encourage deep breathing
D) Increase the oxygen flow rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious
adverse effect of opioids. Naloxone is the antidote and should be administered as prescribed.
Stimulating the client (C) may be temporarily effective but does not reverse the opioid effect.
Increasing oxygen (D) does not address the underlying respiratory depression. Documentation (A)
follows intervention.
6. The nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which intervention
is most appropriate?
A) Massage the reddened area to increase circulation
B) Cleanse with normal saline and apply a moisture-retentive dressing
C) Apply hydrogen peroxide and leave open to air
D) Position the client supine to reduce pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss. It should be cleansed with
normal saline and covered with a moisture-retentive dressing to promote healing. Massaging (A) can
damage fragile tissue. Hydrogen peroxide (C) is cytotoxic. Supine positioning (D) places direct
pressure on the sacrum.
, 7. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which item should the nurse offer?
A) Milk
B) Orange juice with pulp
C) Plain gelatin
D) Cream soup
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clear liquids include foods that are transparent and liquid at room temperature, such as
plain gelatin, broth, and clear juices without pulp. Milk (A) and cream soup (D) are full liquids.
Orange juice with pulp (B) is not clear.
8. The nurse is calculating intake and output for a client. The client consumed 4 ounces of juice, 6
ounces of coffee, and 240 mL of water. What is the total intake in mL? (1 oz = 30 mL)
A) 300 mL
B) 400 mL
C) 540 mL
D) 600 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Juice: 4 oz × 30 mL = 120 mL; Coffee: 6 oz × 30 mL = 180 mL; Water: 240 mL. Total: 120
+ 180 + 240 = 540 mL. Options A, B, D are miscalculations.
9. A client with a history of falls is admitted. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Apply restraints
B) Raise all four side rails
C) Place the call light within reach and keep the bed in the lowest position
D) Administer a sedative
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fall prevention begins with non-restrictive measures: call light accessibility, bed in low
EXAMINATION (2026–2027)
PRACTICE EXAMINATION FOR NURSING
FUNDAMENTALS CONTENT MASTERY
Field of Study: Fundamentals of Nursing / Nursing Foundations
Edition: 2026–2027
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a client. Which of the following is the
most important step to ensure safe administration?
A) Checking the medication label against the medication administration record (MAR) three times
B) Asking the client to state their name
C) Using two patient identifiers, such as name and date of birth
D) Verifying the medication dose with another nurse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires the use of at least two patient identifiers before
administering medications or performing procedures. While checking the label (A) and asking the
client's name (B) are important, the standard is to use two identifiers. Verifying the dose with another
nurse (D) is not required for all medications, only high-alert ones.
2. The nurse is caring for a client on droplet precautions. Which personal protective equipment
(PPE) should the nurse wear when entering the client's room?
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown and gloves only
D) No mask is required
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the client. An N95
respirator (A) is required for airborne precautions. Gown and gloves (C) are used for contact
precautions and may be added if contact with secretions is anticipated, but the mask is essential for
droplet precautions.
3. A client is found lying on the floor next to the bed. What should the nurse document first after
ensuring the client's safety?
A) That the client fell and was found on the floor
B) The assessment findings, including vital signs and any injuries, and the circumstances of the fall
C) The client's statement about what happened
D) The time the healthcare provider was notified
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a fall, the nurse must first assess the client for injuries and document objective
findings, vital signs, and the situation. The incident report may include the statement but is separate
from the medical record. The medical record should contain only objective assessment data. Option A
is incomplete; C may be part of the documentation but not the primary focus; D is important but
follows assessment.
4. The nurse is inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action best confirms correct placement
before initiating tube feeding?
A) Auscultating for a whooshing sound over the epigastrium when air is injected
B) Checking the pH of gastric aspirate and obtaining a chest X-ray
C) Observing for bubbling at the end of the tube when the client exhales
D) Asking the client to speak
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most reliable methods for confirming NG tube placement are obtaining a chest X-ray
and checking the pH of gastric aspirate (pH ≤5.5 indicates gastric placement). Auscultation (A) is no
,longer considered reliable. Bubbling (C) may indicate the tube is in the trachea. Asking the client to
speak (D) is not a reliable method.
5. A client has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute after receiving morphine. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A) Document the finding
B) Administer naloxone as prescribed
C) Stimulate the client and encourage deep breathing
D) Increase the oxygen flow rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious
adverse effect of opioids. Naloxone is the antidote and should be administered as prescribed.
Stimulating the client (C) may be temporarily effective but does not reverse the opioid effect.
Increasing oxygen (D) does not address the underlying respiratory depression. Documentation (A)
follows intervention.
6. The nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which intervention
is most appropriate?
A) Massage the reddened area to increase circulation
B) Cleanse with normal saline and apply a moisture-retentive dressing
C) Apply hydrogen peroxide and leave open to air
D) Position the client supine to reduce pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss. It should be cleansed with
normal saline and covered with a moisture-retentive dressing to promote healing. Massaging (A) can
damage fragile tissue. Hydrogen peroxide (C) is cytotoxic. Supine positioning (D) places direct
pressure on the sacrum.
, 7. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which item should the nurse offer?
A) Milk
B) Orange juice with pulp
C) Plain gelatin
D) Cream soup
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clear liquids include foods that are transparent and liquid at room temperature, such as
plain gelatin, broth, and clear juices without pulp. Milk (A) and cream soup (D) are full liquids.
Orange juice with pulp (B) is not clear.
8. The nurse is calculating intake and output for a client. The client consumed 4 ounces of juice, 6
ounces of coffee, and 240 mL of water. What is the total intake in mL? (1 oz = 30 mL)
A) 300 mL
B) 400 mL
C) 540 mL
D) 600 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Juice: 4 oz × 30 mL = 120 mL; Coffee: 6 oz × 30 mL = 180 mL; Water: 240 mL. Total: 120
+ 180 + 240 = 540 mL. Options A, B, D are miscalculations.
9. A client with a history of falls is admitted. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A) Apply restraints
B) Raise all four side rails
C) Place the call light within reach and keep the bed in the lowest position
D) Administer a sedative
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fall prevention begins with non-restrictive measures: call light accessibility, bed in low
