CARDIAC-VASCULAR NURSING BOARD CERTIFIED (CV-BC) EXAMINATION
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES | LATEST VERSION PDF
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 68-year-old male patient presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to the back.
His blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg in the right arm and 110/70 mmHg in the left arm. Which diagnostic test
is most definitive for the suspected condition?
A. Chest X-ray
B. 12-lead Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C. Computed Tomography (CT) Angiography
D. Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: CT angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing acute aortic dissection due to its high
sensitivity and specificity in visualizing the intimal flap. A discrepancy in blood pressure between arms is a
classic sign, and while other tests may suggest the diagnosis, they are not as definitive.
2. A patient is being discharged after a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with a drug-eluting stent.
To prevent stent thrombosis, which antiplatelet regimen is standardly recommended for the initial 6-12
months?
A. Aspirin alone
B. Clopidogrel alone
C. Aspirin and Dipyridamole
D. Aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor (e.g., Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor)
,🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) with aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor is the standard of care to
prevent stent thrombosis following drug-eluting stent placement. The duration of DAPT depends on the
patient's bleeding and ischemic risks.
3. During a cardiac catheterization, a patient develops severe bradycardia and hypotension. The nurse
anticipates the administration of which medication?
A. Adenosine
B. Atropine
C. Amiodarone
D. Epinephrine
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used as first-line treatment for symptomatic
bradycardia. It works by blocking the vagal effects on the sinoatrial node, thereby increasing the heart rate.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient about heart failure management. Which statement indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will weigh myself every morning before breakfast."
B. "It's okay to take an extra diuretic if my ankles are more swollen."
C. "I should limit my fluid intake as recommended."
D. "I will avoid eating foods high in sodium."
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Patients should not adjust their diuretic dosages without consulting their healthcare provider.
Doing so can lead to rapid fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be dangerous.
5. A patient with infective endocarditis is being discharged on long-term intravenous antibiotics via a
peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). What is the most critical nursing intervention to prevent a
,major complication?
A. Daily PICC line dressing changes
B. Flushing the PICC line with sterile saline
C. Monitoring for signs of heart failure
D. Strict aseptic technique during line access and dressing changes
🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: The most critical intervention is preventing catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSI).
Strict aseptic technique is the primary defense against this serious complication. While other options are
important, they are secondary to preventing infection.
6. Which ECG finding is most characteristic of hypokalemia?
A. Tall, peaked T-waves
B. Prominent U-waves
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Prolonged PR interval
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypokalemia characteristically causes prominent U-waves, which are best seen in the precordial
leads. Tall, peaked T-waves are a sign of hyperkalemia.
7. A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse monitors the patient for which
potential adverse effect?
A. Hypotension
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Liver failure
D. Bleeding
🟢D
, 🔴 RATIONALE: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation, which increases the risk
of bleeding. The nurse should monitor for signs of hemorrhage such as bleeding gums, ecchymosis, or
gastrointestinal bleeding.
8. In the context of cardiac rehabilitation, what is the primary purpose of Phase I?
A. To maintain and improve cardiovascular fitness through exercise training
B. To provide education on lifestyle modification and risk factor reduction
C. To promote early mobilization and provide education during the acute hospitalization
D. To maintain the gains made in previous phases and transition to independent community-based exercise
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: Phase I of cardiac rehabilitation occurs in the hospital immediately after a cardiac event. Its
focus is on early ambulation, self-care, and patient/family education, preparing the patient for discharge.
9. A nurse notes a new, loud, holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border in a patient who had an anterior
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) two days ago. The nurse suspects which complication?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Pericarditis
C. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
D. Mitral valve prolapse
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: A new holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border in a patient post-STEMI is highly
suggestive of a ventricular septal defect, a mechanical complication of a large infarction. This requires
immediate attention as it can lead to rapid hemodynamic deterioration.
10. A patient with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. The nurse should assess for which early sign of
digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES | LATEST VERSION PDF
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 68-year-old male patient presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to the back.
His blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg in the right arm and 110/70 mmHg in the left arm. Which diagnostic test
is most definitive for the suspected condition?
A. Chest X-ray
B. 12-lead Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C. Computed Tomography (CT) Angiography
D. Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE)
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: CT angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing acute aortic dissection due to its high
sensitivity and specificity in visualizing the intimal flap. A discrepancy in blood pressure between arms is a
classic sign, and while other tests may suggest the diagnosis, they are not as definitive.
2. A patient is being discharged after a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with a drug-eluting stent.
To prevent stent thrombosis, which antiplatelet regimen is standardly recommended for the initial 6-12
months?
A. Aspirin alone
B. Clopidogrel alone
C. Aspirin and Dipyridamole
D. Aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor (e.g., Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor)
,🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) with aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor is the standard of care to
prevent stent thrombosis following drug-eluting stent placement. The duration of DAPT depends on the
patient's bleeding and ischemic risks.
3. During a cardiac catheterization, a patient develops severe bradycardia and hypotension. The nurse
anticipates the administration of which medication?
A. Adenosine
B. Atropine
C. Amiodarone
D. Epinephrine
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used as first-line treatment for symptomatic
bradycardia. It works by blocking the vagal effects on the sinoatrial node, thereby increasing the heart rate.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient about heart failure management. Which statement indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will weigh myself every morning before breakfast."
B. "It's okay to take an extra diuretic if my ankles are more swollen."
C. "I should limit my fluid intake as recommended."
D. "I will avoid eating foods high in sodium."
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Patients should not adjust their diuretic dosages without consulting their healthcare provider.
Doing so can lead to rapid fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be dangerous.
5. A patient with infective endocarditis is being discharged on long-term intravenous antibiotics via a
peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). What is the most critical nursing intervention to prevent a
,major complication?
A. Daily PICC line dressing changes
B. Flushing the PICC line with sterile saline
C. Monitoring for signs of heart failure
D. Strict aseptic technique during line access and dressing changes
🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: The most critical intervention is preventing catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSI).
Strict aseptic technique is the primary defense against this serious complication. While other options are
important, they are secondary to preventing infection.
6. Which ECG finding is most characteristic of hypokalemia?
A. Tall, peaked T-waves
B. Prominent U-waves
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Prolonged PR interval
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypokalemia characteristically causes prominent U-waves, which are best seen in the precordial
leads. Tall, peaked T-waves are a sign of hyperkalemia.
7. A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse monitors the patient for which
potential adverse effect?
A. Hypotension
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Liver failure
D. Bleeding
🟢D
, 🔴 RATIONALE: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet aggregation, which increases the risk
of bleeding. The nurse should monitor for signs of hemorrhage such as bleeding gums, ecchymosis, or
gastrointestinal bleeding.
8. In the context of cardiac rehabilitation, what is the primary purpose of Phase I?
A. To maintain and improve cardiovascular fitness through exercise training
B. To provide education on lifestyle modification and risk factor reduction
C. To promote early mobilization and provide education during the acute hospitalization
D. To maintain the gains made in previous phases and transition to independent community-based exercise
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: Phase I of cardiac rehabilitation occurs in the hospital immediately after a cardiac event. Its
focus is on early ambulation, self-care, and patient/family education, preparing the patient for discharge.
9. A nurse notes a new, loud, holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border in a patient who had an anterior
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) two days ago. The nurse suspects which complication?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Pericarditis
C. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
D. Mitral valve prolapse
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: A new holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border in a patient post-STEMI is highly
suggestive of a ventricular septal defect, a mechanical complication of a large infarction. This requires
immediate attention as it can lead to rapid hemodynamic deterioration.
10. A patient with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. The nurse should assess for which early sign of
digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
