100% Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP)
Barkley Post-Test Fall 2025
Comprehensive Final Exam with Verified
Rationales Practice Questions and
Answers 2026 with complete solution
Q1. What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old
soccer player signify?
• A) Normal knee
• B) Instability of the knee
• C) Swelling on the knee
• D) Injury to the meniscus
,,,,answer,,,: B) Instability of the knee
Rationale: The drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or
anteroposterior plane instability of the knee. The anterior drawer test
evaluates the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The test is performed
with the patient supine and the knee at 90-degree flexion. Grasping the
posterior aspect of the tibia and applying steady force to push the lower
leg forward and backward; anterior or posterior movement is a positive
finding .
,Q2. A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer, reporting rolling
the foot inward while falling with immediate pain and swelling of the
lateral part of the joint. The patient is able to bear weight and denies
hearing an audible sound at the time of injury. What does this history
indicate?
• A) Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
• B) Mild ankle injury without fracture
• C) Mild soft tissue injury only
• D) Serious ankle injury with certain fracture
,,,,answer,,,: A) Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
Rationale: Immediate swelling of the joint raises the index of suspicion
for a fracture or substantial joint involvement. Without radiographs, none
of these possibilities can be confirmed. The mechanism described
(inversion injury with lateral pain and swelling) is classic for a lateral
ankle sprain, but the degree of swelling warrants radiographic
evaluation .
Q3. A patient who is a distance runner reports pain in one heel that is
worse in the morning and seems to improve with exercise. The
provider notes localized swelling and a bony prominence at the heel.
What is the initial treatment for this condition?
• A) Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
• B) Crutches and partial weight bearing
• C) Physical therapy for ultrasound therapy
• D) Referral to an orthopedist for MRI and evaluation
,,,,,answer,,,: A) Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
Rationale: This patient has symptoms consistent with Achilles
tendonitis. Immediate cessation of sports and exercise is the first step in
management. Crutches and partial weight bearing may be indicated if
symptoms do not improve with rest and NSAIDs .
Q4. All of the following factors are associated with a higher risk of
osteopenia and osteoporosis EXCEPT:
• A) Excessive alcohol intake and cigarette smoking
• B) Asian or Caucasian ancestry
• C) Obesity
• D) Older age
,,,,answer,,,: C) Obesity
Rationale: Obesity is not a risk factor for bone loss. Being female, older
age, being in menopause, having a small thin frame, being of Caucasian
or Asian race, family history of osteoporosis, excessive alcohol use, and
long-term cigarette smoking are established risk factors. Higher body
weight is actually protective due to increased mechanical loading and
higher estrogen levels .
Q5. A 36-year-old man presents with complaints of cervical and
upper back pain for many months. On examination, range of motion
of the patient's spine is limited, especially with lateral flexion. Other
, joints are normal. Lab results show increased ESR, negative ANA,
and negative rheumatoid factor. Which condition is best described?
• A) Rheumatoid arthritis
• B) Lupus erythematosus
• C) Degenerative joint disease of the spine
• D) Ankylosing spondylitis
,,,,answer,,,: D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Rationale: Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a lifelong autoimmune disease
causing inflammation, pain, and stiffness, mainly in the spinal joints. The
typical patient is a young adult. In early stages, pain and stiffness often
start in the lower back but may move up the spine. There is no specific
lab test for AS; ESR is increased by inflammation. There is a high risk of
uveitis (red eyes, blurred vision, photophobia, floaters) .
Q6. A 36-year-old woman complains of fatigue and headaches with
widespread muscle and joint pain for 6 months. She reports insomnia
and feeling tired even with adequate sleep. She was diagnosed with
major depression 1 year ago. Physical exam reveals bilateral tender
points on neck, jaw, shoulders, chest, upper back, and greater
trochanter. These findings are highly suggestive of:
• A) Rheumatoid arthritis
• B) Osteoarthritis
• C) Fatigue syndrome
• D) Fibromyalgia
,,,,answer,,,: D) Fibromyalgia
Barkley Post-Test Fall 2025
Comprehensive Final Exam with Verified
Rationales Practice Questions and
Answers 2026 with complete solution
Q1. What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old
soccer player signify?
• A) Normal knee
• B) Instability of the knee
• C) Swelling on the knee
• D) Injury to the meniscus
,,,,answer,,,: B) Instability of the knee
Rationale: The drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or
anteroposterior plane instability of the knee. The anterior drawer test
evaluates the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The test is performed
with the patient supine and the knee at 90-degree flexion. Grasping the
posterior aspect of the tibia and applying steady force to push the lower
leg forward and backward; anterior or posterior movement is a positive
finding .
,Q2. A patient injures an ankle while playing soccer, reporting rolling
the foot inward while falling with immediate pain and swelling of the
lateral part of the joint. The patient is able to bear weight and denies
hearing an audible sound at the time of injury. What does this history
indicate?
• A) Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
• B) Mild ankle injury without fracture
• C) Mild soft tissue injury only
• D) Serious ankle injury with certain fracture
,,,,answer,,,: A) Likely ankle sprain with a possible fracture
Rationale: Immediate swelling of the joint raises the index of suspicion
for a fracture or substantial joint involvement. Without radiographs, none
of these possibilities can be confirmed. The mechanism described
(inversion injury with lateral pain and swelling) is classic for a lateral
ankle sprain, but the degree of swelling warrants radiographic
evaluation .
Q3. A patient who is a distance runner reports pain in one heel that is
worse in the morning and seems to improve with exercise. The
provider notes localized swelling and a bony prominence at the heel.
What is the initial treatment for this condition?
• A) Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
• B) Crutches and partial weight bearing
• C) Physical therapy for ultrasound therapy
• D) Referral to an orthopedist for MRI and evaluation
,,,,,answer,,,: A) Cessation of all sports activities and exercise
Rationale: This patient has symptoms consistent with Achilles
tendonitis. Immediate cessation of sports and exercise is the first step in
management. Crutches and partial weight bearing may be indicated if
symptoms do not improve with rest and NSAIDs .
Q4. All of the following factors are associated with a higher risk of
osteopenia and osteoporosis EXCEPT:
• A) Excessive alcohol intake and cigarette smoking
• B) Asian or Caucasian ancestry
• C) Obesity
• D) Older age
,,,,answer,,,: C) Obesity
Rationale: Obesity is not a risk factor for bone loss. Being female, older
age, being in menopause, having a small thin frame, being of Caucasian
or Asian race, family history of osteoporosis, excessive alcohol use, and
long-term cigarette smoking are established risk factors. Higher body
weight is actually protective due to increased mechanical loading and
higher estrogen levels .
Q5. A 36-year-old man presents with complaints of cervical and
upper back pain for many months. On examination, range of motion
of the patient's spine is limited, especially with lateral flexion. Other
, joints are normal. Lab results show increased ESR, negative ANA,
and negative rheumatoid factor. Which condition is best described?
• A) Rheumatoid arthritis
• B) Lupus erythematosus
• C) Degenerative joint disease of the spine
• D) Ankylosing spondylitis
,,,,answer,,,: D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Rationale: Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a lifelong autoimmune disease
causing inflammation, pain, and stiffness, mainly in the spinal joints. The
typical patient is a young adult. In early stages, pain and stiffness often
start in the lower back but may move up the spine. There is no specific
lab test for AS; ESR is increased by inflammation. There is a high risk of
uveitis (red eyes, blurred vision, photophobia, floaters) .
Q6. A 36-year-old woman complains of fatigue and headaches with
widespread muscle and joint pain for 6 months. She reports insomnia
and feeling tired even with adequate sleep. She was diagnosed with
major depression 1 year ago. Physical exam reveals bilateral tender
points on neck, jaw, shoulders, chest, upper back, and greater
trochanter. These findings are highly suggestive of:
• A) Rheumatoid arthritis
• B) Osteoarthritis
• C) Fatigue syndrome
• D) Fibromyalgia
,,,,answer,,,: D) Fibromyalgia
