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NR580 Final Exam Actual Exam Style V2 | NR 580 Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Capstone and Intensive | Chamberlain

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NR580 Final Exam Actual Exam Style V2 | NR 580 Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Capstone and Intensive | Chamberlain

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NR580 Final Exam Actual Exam Style V2 |
NR 580 Adult-Gerontology Primary Care
Capstone and Intensive | Chamberlain
1. A 78-year-old male with a history of hypertension and falls is prescribed a new medication

for insomnia. According to the Beers Criteria, which class of medication should be avoided in

this patient?

A. Melatonin receptor agonists


B. Proton pump inhibitors


C. Short-acting beta-agonists


D. Benzodiazepines


Answer: D


Rationale: The Beers Criteria identifies benzodiazepines as potentially inappropriate for

older adults because they increase the risk of cognitive impairment, delirium, and falls. In a

patient with a prior history of falls, these medications significantly elevate the hazard for

fractures. Alternative non-pharmacological treatments or safer agents like melatonin

should be considered first.


2. Which physical examination finding is most characteristic of a patient with aortic stenosis?

A. Holosystolic murmur at the apex


B. Diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border

,C. Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border


D. Mid-systolic click with a late systolic murmur


Answer: C


Rationale: Aortic stenosis typically presents as a harsh, crescendo-decrescendo systolic

murmur heard best at the right second intercostal space. This murmur often radiates to the

carotid arteries as the valve narrowing progresses. Clinicians should monitor these

patients for symptoms such as syncope, chest pain, and heart failure.


3. A 66-year-old female presents for a follow-up on her Type 2 Diabetes. Her current A1c is

8.2% despite Metformin 1000mg BID. Her eGFR is 35 mL/min/1.73m2. Which medication

change is most appropriate?

A. Reduce Metformin dose and consider an SGLT2 inhibitor


B. Add a high-dose Sulfonylurea


C. Increase Metformin to 2550mg daily


D. Discontinue Metformin and start Insulin


Answer: A


Rationale: Metformin dosage should be adjusted when the eGFR falls between 30 and 45

mL/min/1.73m2 to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis. While SGLT2 inhibitors provide

cardiovascular and renal benefits, they must also be used cautiously based on specific eGFR

thresholds. Monitoring renal function every 3 to 6 months is standard practice for geriatric

patients on these agents.

, 4. Which assessment tool is considered the gold standard for identifying delirium in the

clinical setting?

A. Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)


B. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)


C. PHQ-9


D. Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)


Answer: A


Rationale: The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) is specifically designed to distinguish

delirium from other types of cognitive impairment. It focuses on four features: acute onset

and fluctuating course, inattention, disorganized thinking, and altered level of

consciousness. Identifying the underlying cause of delirium is a priority for the primary

care provider to prevent permanent decline.


5. A 72-year-old patient has a DEXA scan result showing a T-score of -2.6 at the femoral neck.

How should this be classified?

A. Normal bone density


B. Osteoporosis


C. Osteopenia


D. Severe Osteoporosis


Answer: B

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