NR293 Final Exam Actual Exam Style V1 |
NR 293 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
| Chamberlain
1. A nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the
following assessments is a priority before administration?
A. Respiratory rate for 30 seconds
B. Apical pulse for one full minute
C. Daily weight measurement
D. Blood pressure assessment
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate while increasing the
force of contraction. Before administration, the nurse must assess the apical pulse for one
full minute to ensure it is above 60 beats per minute. If the heart rate is below 60, the
medication should be withheld and the provider notified to prevent further bradycardia.
2. A patient is prescribed Furosemide for the management of edema. Which electrolyte
imbalance should the nurse monitor for most closely?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
,D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of sodium, water, and
potassium. Hypokalemia is a frequent and potentially dangerous side effect that can lead to
cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should encourage the intake of potassium-rich foods and
monitor laboratory values frequently during therapy.
3. When administering Albuterol to a patient with asthma, which side effect should the nurse
expect the patient to report?
A. Lethargy
B. Bradycardia
C. Constipation
D. Tachycardia
Answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used as a rescue inhaler for
bronchodilation. Because it stimulates beta receptors, it commonly causes sympathetic
nervous system effects such as tachycardia and tremors. Patients should be educated that
these effects are temporary but should be reported if they become severe or persistent.
4. A patient is starting Warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which lab value is used to
monitor the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A. aPTT
, B. Platelet count
C. PT/INR
D. White blood cell count
Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting
factors. The PT/INR (Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio) is the standard
test used to measure the blood’s clotting ability and adjust the dosage. A typical therapeutic
INR range for a patient on Warfarin is between 2.0 and 3.0.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient about Rifampin for tuberculosis. What should be included in
the teaching regarding side effects?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Orange discoloration of body fluids
C. Extreme sensitivity to sunlight
D. Muscle weakness and pain
Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin is a key antitubercular medication that can cause a harmless but
alarming orange-red discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears. Patients should be warned
about this so they are not frightened by the change in color. They should also be advised
that this can permanently stain soft contact lenses.
NR 293 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
| Chamberlain
1. A nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the
following assessments is a priority before administration?
A. Respiratory rate for 30 seconds
B. Apical pulse for one full minute
C. Daily weight measurement
D. Blood pressure assessment
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate while increasing the
force of contraction. Before administration, the nurse must assess the apical pulse for one
full minute to ensure it is above 60 beats per minute. If the heart rate is below 60, the
medication should be withheld and the provider notified to prevent further bradycardia.
2. A patient is prescribed Furosemide for the management of edema. Which electrolyte
imbalance should the nurse monitor for most closely?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
,D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of sodium, water, and
potassium. Hypokalemia is a frequent and potentially dangerous side effect that can lead to
cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should encourage the intake of potassium-rich foods and
monitor laboratory values frequently during therapy.
3. When administering Albuterol to a patient with asthma, which side effect should the nurse
expect the patient to report?
A. Lethargy
B. Bradycardia
C. Constipation
D. Tachycardia
Answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used as a rescue inhaler for
bronchodilation. Because it stimulates beta receptors, it commonly causes sympathetic
nervous system effects such as tachycardia and tremors. Patients should be educated that
these effects are temporary but should be reported if they become severe or persistent.
4. A patient is starting Warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which lab value is used to
monitor the therapeutic effect of this medication?
A. aPTT
, B. Platelet count
C. PT/INR
D. White blood cell count
Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting
factors. The PT/INR (Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio) is the standard
test used to measure the blood’s clotting ability and adjust the dosage. A typical therapeutic
INR range for a patient on Warfarin is between 2.0 and 3.0.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient about Rifampin for tuberculosis. What should be included in
the teaching regarding side effects?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Orange discoloration of body fluids
C. Extreme sensitivity to sunlight
D. Muscle weakness and pain
Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin is a key antitubercular medication that can cause a harmless but
alarming orange-red discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears. Patients should be warned
about this so they are not frightened by the change in color. They should also be advised
that this can permanently stain soft contact lenses.
