EXPECTED ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE 2026 LATEST
UPDATE EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
RELIABLE ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | BRAND NEW !!!
MULTIPLE CHOICES
Question 1
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who arrives with a headache,
dizziness, and shortness of breath. The client's oxygen saturation is 88% on room air.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B) Obtain a stat chest x-ray
C) Start an IV line with 0.9% normal saline
D) Draw arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Answer: A
The client's low oxygen saturation (88%) indicates hypoxemia, which is a life-threatening
finding that requires immediate correction. Airway and breathing are always the priority.
Administering oxygen is the first action to improve oxygenation before further diagnostic
tests or IV access. Chest x-ray and ABGs can be obtained after oxygen therapy is initiated.*
Question 2 (NGN – Bowtie)
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new tracheostomy. Complete the following bowtie
by dragging and dropping the appropriate option to each of the four sections.
(Condition: Tracheostomy tube obstruction)
(Intervention: Suction the tracheostomy tube)
(Sign/Symptom: Inability to pass a suction catheter)
(Outcome: Patent airway)
Answer: Condition = Tracheostomy tube obstruction; Intervention = Suction the
tracheostomy tube; Sign/Symptom = Inability to pass a suction catheter; Outcome = Patent
[1]
,airway
Tracheostomy tube obstruction presents with inability to pass a suction catheter, oxygen
desaturation, respiratory distress, and absent breath sounds. The priority intervention is to
suction the tube to remove the obstruction. If the obstruction cannot be cleared, the
tracheostomy tube must be replaced. The desired outcome is a patent airway and
improved oxygenation.
Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin
(Coumadin). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A) "I will eat more leafy green vegetables to increase vitamin K."
B) "I will use a straight razor when shaving."
C) "I will report any unexplained bruising or bleeding to my provider."
D) "I will take ibuprofen for headaches instead of acetaminophen."
Answer: C
Unexplained bruising or bleeding may indicate excessive anticoagulation (INR too high) and
must be reported. Leafy greens (vitamin K) decrease warfarin effectiveness and should be
eaten consistently, not increased. Electric razors are safer than straight razors to prevent
bleeding. Acetaminophen is safer than NSAIDs (ibuprofen) because NSAIDs increase
bleeding risk.
Question 4 (NGN – Matrix)
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of four clients. Select the client who requires
immediate intervention.
Client A: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L (3.5-5.0) – mild hyperkalemia
Client B: Platelets 18,000/mm³ (150,000-400,000) – severe thrombocytopenia
Client C: Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL (12-16) – mild anemia
Client D: BUN 25 mg/dL (10-20) – mild elevation
Answer: Client B
Platelets of 18,000/mm³ indicate severe thrombocytopenia, placing the client at high risk
for spontaneous bleeding, including intracranial hemorrhage. This finding requires
immediate intervention (platelet transfusion, bleeding precautions). The other values are
less critical: potassium 5.2 is mild hyperkalemia (no ECG changes mentioned), Hgb 10.5 is
[2]
,mild anemia (not immediately life-threatening), BUN 25 is mild elevation (possibly
dehydration).*
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Keep the client's knees flexed at 90 degrees
B) Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities
C) Massage the client's calves every 2 hours
D) Place a pillow under the client's knees
Answer: B
SCDs promote venous return by intermittently compressing the legs, reducing venous
stasis and DVT risk. Knees should be slightly flexed (not 90 degrees) to prevent popliteal
vein compression. Massaging the calves is contraindicated (may dislodge an existing clot).
Pillows under the knees can cause venous stasis and increase DVT risk.
Question 6 (NGN – Cloze)
A nurse is assessing a client who has a head injury. Select the correct Glasgow Coma Scale
(GCS) score for a client who opens eyes to pain, speaks in incomprehensible words, and
withdraws from pain.
(Options: 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11)
Answer: 8
GCS scoring: Eye opening to pain = 2 points; Verbal response = incomprehensible words =
2 points; Motor response = withdrawal to pain = 4 points. Total = 8. A GCS of 8 or less
indicates severe brain injury and is an indication for intubation (GCS 8, intubate).*
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria, and weight loss
B) Hypertension and obesity
C) Hypoglycemia and bradycardia
D) Constipation and abdominal pain
[3]
, Answer: A
The classic symptoms of type 1 diabetes are polyphagia (increased hunger), polydipsia
(increased thirst), polyuria (increased urination), and weight loss due to insulin deficiency
and catabolism. Hypertension and obesity are more common in type 2 diabetes.
Hypoglycemia is a complication of treatment, not a presenting sign.
Question 8 (NGN – Enhanced Hot Spot)
A nurse is reviewing a client's ECG strip. Identify the rhythm that shows ventricular
tachycardia (VT). (Description: Wide QRS complexes, rate 150-250 bpm, no discernible P
waves, regular or slightly irregular)
Answer: Wide QRS complexes, rate 180 bpm, no P waves, regular rhythm.
Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by wide QRS complexes (>0.12 sec), rapid rate
(usually >120 bpm), absence of P waves, and regular or slightly irregular rhythm. VT can be
monomorphic (same shape) or polymorphic (torsades de pointes). VT may be pulseless
(emergency, defibrillate) or with a pulse (treat with amiodarone or lidocaine).
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg
subcutaneously daily. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injection
B) Aspirate before injecting to check for blood return
C) Massage the injection site after administration
D) Inject into the abdomen while pinching the skin fold
Answer: D
Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously in the abdomen (best absorption) while pinching the
skin to ensure subcutaneous (not intramuscular) injection. The air bubble in the prefilled
syringe should NOT be expelled (ensures full dose). Do NOT aspirate (hematoma risk). Do
NOT massage (bruising/hematoma risk).
Question 10 (NGN – Matrix)
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is delegating tasks to an LPN/VN and an assistive
personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to the LPN/VN?
[4]
UPDATE EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
RELIABLE ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | BRAND NEW !!!
MULTIPLE CHOICES
Question 1
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who arrives with a headache,
dizziness, and shortness of breath. The client's oxygen saturation is 88% on room air.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B) Obtain a stat chest x-ray
C) Start an IV line with 0.9% normal saline
D) Draw arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Answer: A
The client's low oxygen saturation (88%) indicates hypoxemia, which is a life-threatening
finding that requires immediate correction. Airway and breathing are always the priority.
Administering oxygen is the first action to improve oxygenation before further diagnostic
tests or IV access. Chest x-ray and ABGs can be obtained after oxygen therapy is initiated.*
Question 2 (NGN – Bowtie)
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new tracheostomy. Complete the following bowtie
by dragging and dropping the appropriate option to each of the four sections.
(Condition: Tracheostomy tube obstruction)
(Intervention: Suction the tracheostomy tube)
(Sign/Symptom: Inability to pass a suction catheter)
(Outcome: Patent airway)
Answer: Condition = Tracheostomy tube obstruction; Intervention = Suction the
tracheostomy tube; Sign/Symptom = Inability to pass a suction catheter; Outcome = Patent
[1]
,airway
Tracheostomy tube obstruction presents with inability to pass a suction catheter, oxygen
desaturation, respiratory distress, and absent breath sounds. The priority intervention is to
suction the tube to remove the obstruction. If the obstruction cannot be cleared, the
tracheostomy tube must be replaced. The desired outcome is a patent airway and
improved oxygenation.
Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin
(Coumadin). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A) "I will eat more leafy green vegetables to increase vitamin K."
B) "I will use a straight razor when shaving."
C) "I will report any unexplained bruising or bleeding to my provider."
D) "I will take ibuprofen for headaches instead of acetaminophen."
Answer: C
Unexplained bruising or bleeding may indicate excessive anticoagulation (INR too high) and
must be reported. Leafy greens (vitamin K) decrease warfarin effectiveness and should be
eaten consistently, not increased. Electric razors are safer than straight razors to prevent
bleeding. Acetaminophen is safer than NSAIDs (ibuprofen) because NSAIDs increase
bleeding risk.
Question 4 (NGN – Matrix)
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of four clients. Select the client who requires
immediate intervention.
Client A: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L (3.5-5.0) – mild hyperkalemia
Client B: Platelets 18,000/mm³ (150,000-400,000) – severe thrombocytopenia
Client C: Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL (12-16) – mild anemia
Client D: BUN 25 mg/dL (10-20) – mild elevation
Answer: Client B
Platelets of 18,000/mm³ indicate severe thrombocytopenia, placing the client at high risk
for spontaneous bleeding, including intracranial hemorrhage. This finding requires
immediate intervention (platelet transfusion, bleeding precautions). The other values are
less critical: potassium 5.2 is mild hyperkalemia (no ECG changes mentioned), Hgb 10.5 is
[2]
,mild anemia (not immediately life-threatening), BUN 25 is mild elevation (possibly
dehydration).*
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Keep the client's knees flexed at 90 degrees
B) Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities
C) Massage the client's calves every 2 hours
D) Place a pillow under the client's knees
Answer: B
SCDs promote venous return by intermittently compressing the legs, reducing venous
stasis and DVT risk. Knees should be slightly flexed (not 90 degrees) to prevent popliteal
vein compression. Massaging the calves is contraindicated (may dislodge an existing clot).
Pillows under the knees can cause venous stasis and increase DVT risk.
Question 6 (NGN – Cloze)
A nurse is assessing a client who has a head injury. Select the correct Glasgow Coma Scale
(GCS) score for a client who opens eyes to pain, speaks in incomprehensible words, and
withdraws from pain.
(Options: 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11)
Answer: 8
GCS scoring: Eye opening to pain = 2 points; Verbal response = incomprehensible words =
2 points; Motor response = withdrawal to pain = 4 points. Total = 8. A GCS of 8 or less
indicates severe brain injury and is an indication for intubation (GCS 8, intubate).*
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria, and weight loss
B) Hypertension and obesity
C) Hypoglycemia and bradycardia
D) Constipation and abdominal pain
[3]
, Answer: A
The classic symptoms of type 1 diabetes are polyphagia (increased hunger), polydipsia
(increased thirst), polyuria (increased urination), and weight loss due to insulin deficiency
and catabolism. Hypertension and obesity are more common in type 2 diabetes.
Hypoglycemia is a complication of treatment, not a presenting sign.
Question 8 (NGN – Enhanced Hot Spot)
A nurse is reviewing a client's ECG strip. Identify the rhythm that shows ventricular
tachycardia (VT). (Description: Wide QRS complexes, rate 150-250 bpm, no discernible P
waves, regular or slightly irregular)
Answer: Wide QRS complexes, rate 180 bpm, no P waves, regular rhythm.
Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by wide QRS complexes (>0.12 sec), rapid rate
(usually >120 bpm), absence of P waves, and regular or slightly irregular rhythm. VT can be
monomorphic (same shape) or polymorphic (torsades de pointes). VT may be pulseless
(emergency, defibrillate) or with a pulse (treat with amiodarone or lidocaine).
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg
subcutaneously daily. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injection
B) Aspirate before injecting to check for blood return
C) Massage the injection site after administration
D) Inject into the abdomen while pinching the skin fold
Answer: D
Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously in the abdomen (best absorption) while pinching the
skin to ensure subcutaneous (not intramuscular) injection. The air bubble in the prefilled
syringe should NOT be expelled (ensures full dose). Do NOT aspirate (hematoma risk). Do
NOT massage (bruising/hematoma risk).
Question 10 (NGN – Matrix)
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is delegating tasks to an LPN/VN and an assistive
personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to the LPN/VN?
[4]
