Updated 2026 CNM CBT Numeracy
Practice Exam Questions and Answers
with Explanations | 50 Questions 100%
Verified A+ Graded Answers
Question one.
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed fioamide. Which finding would be most
concerning to the nurse?
A. Potassium level of 3 8 mill equivalent/l.
B. Blood pressure of 130 over 80 mmg.
C. Weight loss of 1 kilogram in 24 hours.
D. Crackles oscultated in lung bases.
Answer D. Crackles oscultated in lung bases.
This question assesses your understanding of heart failure management and the critical need
for prompt recognition of worsening fluid overload despite diuretic therapy. The keyword most
concerning directs you to identify the finding that indicates an immediate threat or inadequate
treatment. Crackles in the lung bases suggest pulmonary congestion, meaning the fioomide is
not effectively removing excess fluid, which could rapidly escalate into acute pulmonary edema
and respiratory distress. While a slight weight loss is often expected with diuretics and a
potassium level of 3, 8 mill equivalent/l is within normal limits. Though on the lower side for
diuretic therapy, it's not immediately alarming. Persistent crackles indicate a primary problem
that requires immediate intervention. Always prioritize respiratory compromise and fluid
overload in heart failure patients as it can quickly become life-threatening.
Question two,
the nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate. Which instruction is
most important for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan?
A. Take the medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
B. Avoid consuming foods high in tyramine.
C. Maintain a consistent daily sodium intake.
D. Report any tremors or muscle stiffness immediately.
Answer C. Maintain a consistent daily sodium intake.
This question tests your knowledge of lithium therapy and the crucial role of sodium in its
metabolism and excretion. The keyword most important emphasizes a safety aspect unique to
lithium. Lithium is a salt and its levels in the body are significantly affected by sodium intake.
Inconsistent sodium levels can lead to lithium toxicity if sodium decreases or sub therapeutic
levels if sodium increases. While taking medication with food is a general good practice and
reporting side effects is important, maintaining consistent sodium intake directly impacts the
,drug's therapeutic window and prevents serious complications. Avoiding tyramine is relevant for
MAOIs, not lithium. Remember that stability in sodium and fluid intake is key for lithium safety.
Question three.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis, DKA. The nurse anticipates which of the following
arterial blood gas ABG results
A. PH7 50 PCO 230 mm of mercury HC322 mill equivalent/L
B. PH7 20 PCO230 mm of mercury HCO315 mill equivalent/L
C PH7 35 PCO2 240 mm of mercury HC324 mill equivalent/L
D PH748 PCO2 248 mm of mercury HC330 mill equivalent/l L
answer B. PH7 20 PCO230 mm of mercury HC315 mill equivalent/L.
This question assesses your understanding of acid base imbalances specifically in the context
of diabetic ketoacidosis DKA. DKA is characterized by metabolic acidosis, meaning the pH will
be low, acidity, and the bicarbonate HCO3 will also be low as the body tries to compensate. The
keyword anticipates suggests you need to predict the expected physiological response. The low
PAC O2 respiratory compensation indicates the client is hyperventilating cousal respirations to
blow off CO2 and raise the pH but not enough to normalize it. Therefore, a low pH, low HC3 and
compensatory low PAC O2 are the hallmark ABG findings for DKA. Always look for a pH below
7 35 and bicarbonate below 22 mill equivalent/L to identify metabolic acidosis. Then evaluate
respiratory compensation.
Question four.
A client postappendecttomy reports abdominal pain rated 7 out of 10. The nurse finds the client
restless, grimacing, and guarding the abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial nursing
action?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid analesic.
B. Reassess the pain in 30 minutes.
C. Contact the surgeon for new pain orders.
D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Answer. A. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid analesic.
This question tests your prioritization skills in pain management, particularly for acute
postsurgical pain. The keywords most appropriate initial nursing action and the client's high pain
rating 7/10 with objective signs of distress indicate an immediate need for pain relief. Post-
operative pain is expected and nurses should promptly administer ordered analesics as the first
line of intervention when pain is reported and observed. Delaying medication, only reassessing
or attempting non-farmacological methods alone would be inappropriate for severe acute pain.
Always remember to act first. Assess later when dealing with immediate patient discomfort,
especially when a PRN order is available.
Question five.
The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child admitted with dehydration. Which finding would be
most indicative of severe dehydration?
, A. Increased urine output.
B. Moist mucous membranes.
C. Sunken fontel.
D. Presence of tears when crying.
Answer. C. Sun sunken fontel.
This question evaluates your knowledge of pediatric dehydration assessment focusing on key
indicators of severity. For a 4-year-old, the keyword most indicative of severe dehydration points
to a sign that reflects significant fluid volume deficit. And a sunken fontineel is a classic sign of
severe dehydration in infants and young children, indicating decreased intraanial fluid.
Increased urine output, moist mucous membranes, and the presence of tears are all signs of
adequate hydration or mild dehydration, not severe. Always look for objective signs like reduced
urine output, dry mucous membranes, absent tears, and depressed fontels when assessing
dehydration in children.
Question six.
A client receiving a blood transfusion suddenly develops dispnnea, chills, and lower back pain.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate.
B. Administer an antihistamine.
C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
D. Obtain a urine specimen.
Answer C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
This question assesses your critical response to an acute transfusion reaction. The sudden
onset of dispnnea, chills, and lower back pain are classic signs of an acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction, which is life-threatening. The keyword priority action means you must
identify the most immediate and crucial step to ensure patient safety. Stopping the transfusion
immediately prevents further infusion of incompatible blood and is the first step in managing any
suspected severe transfusion reaction. Subsequent actions would include notifying the provider,
maintaining four access with normal saline, and collecting specimens, but stopping the
transfusion is paramount. Always remember, if you suspect a serious adverse reaction during a
transfusion, stop the infusion first.
Question seven,
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular IM injection to a client. Which site is
generally considered the safest for adults?
A dorsoglial,
B. Deltoid,
C. Vasis lateralis,
D ventrogladial.
Answer D. Ventrodial.
Practice Exam Questions and Answers
with Explanations | 50 Questions 100%
Verified A+ Graded Answers
Question one.
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed fioamide. Which finding would be most
concerning to the nurse?
A. Potassium level of 3 8 mill equivalent/l.
B. Blood pressure of 130 over 80 mmg.
C. Weight loss of 1 kilogram in 24 hours.
D. Crackles oscultated in lung bases.
Answer D. Crackles oscultated in lung bases.
This question assesses your understanding of heart failure management and the critical need
for prompt recognition of worsening fluid overload despite diuretic therapy. The keyword most
concerning directs you to identify the finding that indicates an immediate threat or inadequate
treatment. Crackles in the lung bases suggest pulmonary congestion, meaning the fioomide is
not effectively removing excess fluid, which could rapidly escalate into acute pulmonary edema
and respiratory distress. While a slight weight loss is often expected with diuretics and a
potassium level of 3, 8 mill equivalent/l is within normal limits. Though on the lower side for
diuretic therapy, it's not immediately alarming. Persistent crackles indicate a primary problem
that requires immediate intervention. Always prioritize respiratory compromise and fluid
overload in heart failure patients as it can quickly become life-threatening.
Question two,
the nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate. Which instruction is
most important for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan?
A. Take the medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
B. Avoid consuming foods high in tyramine.
C. Maintain a consistent daily sodium intake.
D. Report any tremors or muscle stiffness immediately.
Answer C. Maintain a consistent daily sodium intake.
This question tests your knowledge of lithium therapy and the crucial role of sodium in its
metabolism and excretion. The keyword most important emphasizes a safety aspect unique to
lithium. Lithium is a salt and its levels in the body are significantly affected by sodium intake.
Inconsistent sodium levels can lead to lithium toxicity if sodium decreases or sub therapeutic
levels if sodium increases. While taking medication with food is a general good practice and
reporting side effects is important, maintaining consistent sodium intake directly impacts the
,drug's therapeutic window and prevents serious complications. Avoiding tyramine is relevant for
MAOIs, not lithium. Remember that stability in sodium and fluid intake is key for lithium safety.
Question three.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis, DKA. The nurse anticipates which of the following
arterial blood gas ABG results
A. PH7 50 PCO 230 mm of mercury HC322 mill equivalent/L
B. PH7 20 PCO230 mm of mercury HCO315 mill equivalent/L
C PH7 35 PCO2 240 mm of mercury HC324 mill equivalent/L
D PH748 PCO2 248 mm of mercury HC330 mill equivalent/l L
answer B. PH7 20 PCO230 mm of mercury HC315 mill equivalent/L.
This question assesses your understanding of acid base imbalances specifically in the context
of diabetic ketoacidosis DKA. DKA is characterized by metabolic acidosis, meaning the pH will
be low, acidity, and the bicarbonate HCO3 will also be low as the body tries to compensate. The
keyword anticipates suggests you need to predict the expected physiological response. The low
PAC O2 respiratory compensation indicates the client is hyperventilating cousal respirations to
blow off CO2 and raise the pH but not enough to normalize it. Therefore, a low pH, low HC3 and
compensatory low PAC O2 are the hallmark ABG findings for DKA. Always look for a pH below
7 35 and bicarbonate below 22 mill equivalent/L to identify metabolic acidosis. Then evaluate
respiratory compensation.
Question four.
A client postappendecttomy reports abdominal pain rated 7 out of 10. The nurse finds the client
restless, grimacing, and guarding the abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial nursing
action?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid analesic.
B. Reassess the pain in 30 minutes.
C. Contact the surgeon for new pain orders.
D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Answer. A. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid analesic.
This question tests your prioritization skills in pain management, particularly for acute
postsurgical pain. The keywords most appropriate initial nursing action and the client's high pain
rating 7/10 with objective signs of distress indicate an immediate need for pain relief. Post-
operative pain is expected and nurses should promptly administer ordered analesics as the first
line of intervention when pain is reported and observed. Delaying medication, only reassessing
or attempting non-farmacological methods alone would be inappropriate for severe acute pain.
Always remember to act first. Assess later when dealing with immediate patient discomfort,
especially when a PRN order is available.
Question five.
The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child admitted with dehydration. Which finding would be
most indicative of severe dehydration?
, A. Increased urine output.
B. Moist mucous membranes.
C. Sunken fontel.
D. Presence of tears when crying.
Answer. C. Sun sunken fontel.
This question evaluates your knowledge of pediatric dehydration assessment focusing on key
indicators of severity. For a 4-year-old, the keyword most indicative of severe dehydration points
to a sign that reflects significant fluid volume deficit. And a sunken fontineel is a classic sign of
severe dehydration in infants and young children, indicating decreased intraanial fluid.
Increased urine output, moist mucous membranes, and the presence of tears are all signs of
adequate hydration or mild dehydration, not severe. Always look for objective signs like reduced
urine output, dry mucous membranes, absent tears, and depressed fontels when assessing
dehydration in children.
Question six.
A client receiving a blood transfusion suddenly develops dispnnea, chills, and lower back pain.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate.
B. Administer an antihistamine.
C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
D. Obtain a urine specimen.
Answer C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
This question assesses your critical response to an acute transfusion reaction. The sudden
onset of dispnnea, chills, and lower back pain are classic signs of an acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction, which is life-threatening. The keyword priority action means you must
identify the most immediate and crucial step to ensure patient safety. Stopping the transfusion
immediately prevents further infusion of incompatible blood and is the first step in managing any
suspected severe transfusion reaction. Subsequent actions would include notifying the provider,
maintaining four access with normal saline, and collecting specimens, but stopping the
transfusion is paramount. Always remember, if you suspect a serious adverse reaction during a
transfusion, stop the infusion first.
Question seven,
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular IM injection to a client. Which site is
generally considered the safest for adults?
A dorsoglial,
B. Deltoid,
C. Vasis lateralis,
D ventrogladial.
Answer D. Ventrodial.
