NURS 5433 Final Exam Newest The University Of Texas At Arlington UTA Family II
Actual Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With
Rationales | Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is the primary contributor to urge
incontinence?
A) Pelvic floor muscle weakness
B) Urethral hypermobility
C) Detrusor overactivity
D) External sphincter incompetence
E) Decreased bladder compliance
Correct Answer: C) Detrusor overactivity
Rationale: Urge incontinence is characterized by an involuntary loss of urine associated
with a sudden, strong desire to void. This is most commonly caused by detrusor
overactivity, which is involuntary contractions of the detrusor muscle during the filling
phase. This is distinct from stress incontinence, which is typically caused by pelvic floor
weakness or urethral hypermobility.
Question 2
When evaluating a patient for bacterial conjunctivitis, which of the following organisms is NOT
among the top three most common causative pathogens?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Moraxella catarrhalis
Correct Answer: C) Psuedomonas
Rationale: The most common pathogens for bacterial conjunctivitis in the general
population are S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and H. influenzae. Pseudomonas is a significant
pathogen but is usually associated with contact lens wearers or more severe, sight-
threatening infections rather than routine bacterial conjunctivitis.
Question 3
A 19-year-old male presents with bilaterally itchy, red eyes and tearing that occurs intermittently
throughout the year. He notes a "rope-like" discharge and associated clear nasal congestion.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Viral conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
, 2
D) Chlamydial conjunctivitis
E) Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: C) Allergic conjunctivitis
Rationale: Allergic conjunctivitis is typically bilateral and characterized by intense itching
(the hallmark symptom), stringy or rope-like mucoid discharge, and associated allergic
symptoms such as clear rhinorrhea. Intermittent occurrences throughout the year suggest
seasonal or perennial allergies.
Question 4
Which of the following is the most common cause of anterior epistaxis?
A) Uncontrolled hypertension
B) Systemic bleeding disorders
C) Localized nasal mucosa trauma
D) Presence of a foreign body
E) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Correct Answer: C) localized nasal mucosa trauma
Rationale: The vast majority of nosebleeds (epistaxis) occur anteriorly at Kiesselbach's
plexus. The most common cause is localized trauma, which includes nose picking, mucosal
dryness, or vigorous nose blowing. While HTN and coagulopathies are risks, they are less
common than direct mucosal irritation.
Question 5
Ms. Murphy, a 58-year-old female, presents with a sudden left-sided headache and severe left
eye pain. She reports blurred vision. Physical exam reveals a slightly dilated, poorly reactive
pupil and a markedly injected conjunctiva. The eyeball feels firm to palpation. What is the
priority diagnosis?
A) Acute anterior uveitis
B) Open-angle glaucoma
C) Angle-closure glaucoma
D) Herpetic conjunctivitis
E) Cluster headache
Correct Answer: C) angle-closure glaucoma
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ophthalmic emergency. The classic
presentation includes sudden ocular pain, headache, cloudy vision (due to corneal edema),
a mid-dilated non-reactive pupil, and a firm globe due to a rapid spike in intraocular
pressure (IOP). This requires immediate referral to ophthalmology to prevent permanent
vision loss.
, 3
Question 6
During a funduscopic examination of a patient with untreated Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
(POAG), which finding is most likely to be observed?
A) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
B) Excessive cupping of the optic disk
C) Optic disc edema (papilledema)
D) Arteriovenous (AV) nicking
E) Cotton wool spots
Correct Answer: B) excessive cupping of the optic disk
Rationale: POAG causes a slow, progressive increase in intraocular pressure that damages
the optic nerve over time. This leads to the characteristic "cupping," where the central cup
of the optic disc occupies a larger percentage of the disc diameter (cup-to-disc ratio > 0.5).
Question 7
A 22-year-old female presents with a 2mm painful pustule on the lateral border of the right
eyelid margin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Blepharitis
B) Chalazion
C) Hordeolum
D) Preseptal cellulitis
E) Dacryocystitis
Correct Answer: C) Hordeolum
Rationale: A hordeolum (stye) is an acute, painful, abscessed infection of an oil gland in the
eyelid, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It typically appears as a pustule on the
eyelid margin. A chalazion, by contrast, is usually a painless, chronic granulomatous nodule
away from the lid margin.
Question 8
In the context of oral cancer screening, which of the following is considered an independent and
significant risk factor?
A) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 16
B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 11
C) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 6
D) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 26
E) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 1
Correct Answer: A) human papillomavirus type 16
Rationale: HPV type 16 is a high-risk strain and a well-established independent risk factor
for oropharyngeal and oral cancers, particularly in younger populations who may not have
a significant history of tobacco or alcohol use.
, 4
Question 9
Which of the following organisms is NOT among the top two most common causative pathogens
for Otitis Externa?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Proteus Enterobacteriaceae
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Candida albicans
Correct Answer: C) proteus Enterobacteriaceae
Rationale: Pseudomonas (swimmer's ear) and Staph aureus are the two most common
pathogens found in culture-positive otitis externa. While Proteus and fungi like Candida
can cause the condition, they are significantly less prevalent in standard cases.
Question 10
A patient presents with Otitis Externa accompanied by cellulitis of the surrounding pinna. Which
oral antibiotic is the most appropriate outpatient therapy?
A) Azithromycin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Cephalexin
D) Amoxicillin
E) Doxycycline
Correct Answer: B) Ciprofloxacin
Rationale: If otitis externa involves the surrounding soft tissue (cellulitis), oral therapy is
needed. Ciprofloxacin is the drug of choice because it provides excellent coverage against
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is a primary pathogen in the ear canal that is not covered
by standard first-generation cephalosporins or penicillins.
Question 11
Stage 3 Lyme disease, which is characterized by joint pain and neuropsychiatric symptoms,
typically manifests at what point following the initial infection?
A) 2-4 weeks
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
E) 5 years
Correct Answer: D) 1 year
Rationale: Lyme disease progresses in stages. Stage 1 is the localized erythema migrans;
Stage 2 is early disseminated (heart blocks, Bell's palsy); Stage 3 is late persistent disease,
Actual Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With
Rationales | Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is the primary contributor to urge
incontinence?
A) Pelvic floor muscle weakness
B) Urethral hypermobility
C) Detrusor overactivity
D) External sphincter incompetence
E) Decreased bladder compliance
Correct Answer: C) Detrusor overactivity
Rationale: Urge incontinence is characterized by an involuntary loss of urine associated
with a sudden, strong desire to void. This is most commonly caused by detrusor
overactivity, which is involuntary contractions of the detrusor muscle during the filling
phase. This is distinct from stress incontinence, which is typically caused by pelvic floor
weakness or urethral hypermobility.
Question 2
When evaluating a patient for bacterial conjunctivitis, which of the following organisms is NOT
among the top three most common causative pathogens?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Moraxella catarrhalis
Correct Answer: C) Psuedomonas
Rationale: The most common pathogens for bacterial conjunctivitis in the general
population are S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and H. influenzae. Pseudomonas is a significant
pathogen but is usually associated with contact lens wearers or more severe, sight-
threatening infections rather than routine bacterial conjunctivitis.
Question 3
A 19-year-old male presents with bilaterally itchy, red eyes and tearing that occurs intermittently
throughout the year. He notes a "rope-like" discharge and associated clear nasal congestion.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Viral conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
, 2
D) Chlamydial conjunctivitis
E) Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: C) Allergic conjunctivitis
Rationale: Allergic conjunctivitis is typically bilateral and characterized by intense itching
(the hallmark symptom), stringy or rope-like mucoid discharge, and associated allergic
symptoms such as clear rhinorrhea. Intermittent occurrences throughout the year suggest
seasonal or perennial allergies.
Question 4
Which of the following is the most common cause of anterior epistaxis?
A) Uncontrolled hypertension
B) Systemic bleeding disorders
C) Localized nasal mucosa trauma
D) Presence of a foreign body
E) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Correct Answer: C) localized nasal mucosa trauma
Rationale: The vast majority of nosebleeds (epistaxis) occur anteriorly at Kiesselbach's
plexus. The most common cause is localized trauma, which includes nose picking, mucosal
dryness, or vigorous nose blowing. While HTN and coagulopathies are risks, they are less
common than direct mucosal irritation.
Question 5
Ms. Murphy, a 58-year-old female, presents with a sudden left-sided headache and severe left
eye pain. She reports blurred vision. Physical exam reveals a slightly dilated, poorly reactive
pupil and a markedly injected conjunctiva. The eyeball feels firm to palpation. What is the
priority diagnosis?
A) Acute anterior uveitis
B) Open-angle glaucoma
C) Angle-closure glaucoma
D) Herpetic conjunctivitis
E) Cluster headache
Correct Answer: C) angle-closure glaucoma
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ophthalmic emergency. The classic
presentation includes sudden ocular pain, headache, cloudy vision (due to corneal edema),
a mid-dilated non-reactive pupil, and a firm globe due to a rapid spike in intraocular
pressure (IOP). This requires immediate referral to ophthalmology to prevent permanent
vision loss.
, 3
Question 6
During a funduscopic examination of a patient with untreated Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
(POAG), which finding is most likely to be observed?
A) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
B) Excessive cupping of the optic disk
C) Optic disc edema (papilledema)
D) Arteriovenous (AV) nicking
E) Cotton wool spots
Correct Answer: B) excessive cupping of the optic disk
Rationale: POAG causes a slow, progressive increase in intraocular pressure that damages
the optic nerve over time. This leads to the characteristic "cupping," where the central cup
of the optic disc occupies a larger percentage of the disc diameter (cup-to-disc ratio > 0.5).
Question 7
A 22-year-old female presents with a 2mm painful pustule on the lateral border of the right
eyelid margin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Blepharitis
B) Chalazion
C) Hordeolum
D) Preseptal cellulitis
E) Dacryocystitis
Correct Answer: C) Hordeolum
Rationale: A hordeolum (stye) is an acute, painful, abscessed infection of an oil gland in the
eyelid, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It typically appears as a pustule on the
eyelid margin. A chalazion, by contrast, is usually a painless, chronic granulomatous nodule
away from the lid margin.
Question 8
In the context of oral cancer screening, which of the following is considered an independent and
significant risk factor?
A) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 16
B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 11
C) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 6
D) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 26
E) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) type 1
Correct Answer: A) human papillomavirus type 16
Rationale: HPV type 16 is a high-risk strain and a well-established independent risk factor
for oropharyngeal and oral cancers, particularly in younger populations who may not have
a significant history of tobacco or alcohol use.
, 4
Question 9
Which of the following organisms is NOT among the top two most common causative pathogens
for Otitis Externa?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Proteus Enterobacteriaceae
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Candida albicans
Correct Answer: C) proteus Enterobacteriaceae
Rationale: Pseudomonas (swimmer's ear) and Staph aureus are the two most common
pathogens found in culture-positive otitis externa. While Proteus and fungi like Candida
can cause the condition, they are significantly less prevalent in standard cases.
Question 10
A patient presents with Otitis Externa accompanied by cellulitis of the surrounding pinna. Which
oral antibiotic is the most appropriate outpatient therapy?
A) Azithromycin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Cephalexin
D) Amoxicillin
E) Doxycycline
Correct Answer: B) Ciprofloxacin
Rationale: If otitis externa involves the surrounding soft tissue (cellulitis), oral therapy is
needed. Ciprofloxacin is the drug of choice because it provides excellent coverage against
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is a primary pathogen in the ear canal that is not covered
by standard first-generation cephalosporins or penicillins.
Question 11
Stage 3 Lyme disease, which is characterized by joint pain and neuropsychiatric symptoms,
typically manifests at what point following the initial infection?
A) 2-4 weeks
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
E) 5 years
Correct Answer: D) 1 year
Rationale: Lyme disease progresses in stages. Stage 1 is the localized erythema migrans;
Stage 2 is early disseminated (heart blocks, Bell's palsy); Stage 3 is late persistent disease,
