CEA Exam Prep 2025/2026:
Comprehensive Practice Questions and
Verified Answers Test Bank
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view
shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the
following diagnoses?
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He
has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
medication to prescribe him?
Page 1 of 90
,Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed
with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
A pediatric male is present with his mother, who states that he is extremely restless at night
and constantly scratches his anal area. Which diagnostic procedure would confirm a diagnosis
of pinworm infestation?
Examination of transparent tape sample from perianal skin
Rationale: Scotch Tape Test (Cellophane Tape Test):
This is a common diagnostic method where a piece of transparent adhesive tape (such as Scotch
tape) is pressed against the perianal skin in the morning before bathing or using the toilet.
The tape is then carefully placed on a glass slide or slide labeled with the patient's name and
date of collection and submitted to a laboratory for examination under a microscope.
The presence of pinworm eggs or occasionally adult worms clinging to the tape can confirm the
diagnosis.
A Caucasian male patient with fair skin and green eyes is at a particularly high risk for which
of the following serious skin conditions?
Skin cancer
Rationale: Although wrinkles, sunburn, and keratoacanthoma are skin conditions, none of them
are serious nor predisposed from this patient's profile. Skin cancer risk is very high for this
patient.
During the preadmission history and physical, you examine your patient and find a new
multicolored mole measuring 9mm with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Melanoma
Rationale: These are all classic findings for melanoma: irregular borders, diameter over 6mm,
multicolor, and new or rapidly evolved.
Your patient presents with darkened, velvety creases of the groin, neck, and axilla with skin
tags present. What does this possibly indicate?
Evidence of insulin resistance
Rationale: Acanthosis nigricans is described as the presence of darkened, velvety creases of the
groin, neck, and axilla with skin tags present. This is suggestive of increased insulin resistance
and metabolic syndrome.
Page 2 of 90
,An adult male presents complaining of a left ankle injury that occurred 2 days ago while he
was playing basketball. The patient cannot bear weight and ROM is limited by pain. What
acute injuries would be included in the differential diagnosis for this patient?
Ankle sprain, ankle fracture
Rationale: An ankle fracture results in severe pain, swelling, and bruising around the ankle,
often with visible deformity or misalignment of the joint. It can lead to an inability to bear
weight on the affected leg and severe tenderness at the fracture site. Immediate medical
evaluation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
An ankle sprain typically causes sudden pain and swelling around the ankle joint, often
accompanied by bruising and tenderness, especially along the outer ankle. There may be a
feeling of instability and difficulty moving the ankle due to pain and swelling.
An adolescent football player presents to the urgent care with an acute knee injury. He heard
a pop when his knee buckled. The nurse practitioner notes a positive anterior drawer test.
The most likely diagnosis is injury to the:
anterior cruciate ligament.
Rationale: A positive anterior drawer test is commonly associated with the diagnosis of an
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury in the knee. The ACL is one of the major ligaments that
provides stability to the knee joint, and injury to this ligament is common, especially in sports-
related activities or trauma.
Which of the following distinguishes plantar fasciitis from other common foot problems?
Pain with initial step after rising in the morning
Rationale: A hallmark of plantar fasciitis is severe pain upon waking or after periods of rest,
which tends to improve with movement as the fascia stretches out.
Which of the following is a urate lowering drug that may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs
in treating gouty arthritis?
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Rationale: Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces the production of uric acid in
the body. It inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is involved in the metabolism of
purines (substances that contribute to uric acid formation). Allopurinol is commonly used as a
long-term maintenance therapy to prevent recurrent gout attacks and to reduce the risk of
complications associated with chronic hyperuricemia, such as tophi (deposits of urate crystals in
joints and other tissues).
For primary prevention of osteoporosis in females, the US Preventative Task Force
recommends bone density screening:
Page 3 of 90
, At least once after age 65
Rationale: Women at higher risk of osteoporosis, such as those with a family history, early
menopause, or certain medical conditions, should discuss bone density screening (DEXA scan)
with their healthcare provider.
Your patient has presented with an acute GI bleed. In working up potential causes, which of
the following scenarios is most probable as a reason for the bleed?
Four days of high dose of naproxen sodium for joint pain after a long hike
Rationale: Acute high dose use of NSAID is a risk of developing a stomach ulcer and subsequent
GI bleeding. Topical use of NSAID is not associated with systemic absorption over 1-2% and
accordingly does not carry the prostaglandin inhibition risks to the gut lining. Use of prednisone
does not predispose to bleeding, nor does acetaminophen use.
A 25-year-old athlete presents with shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities.
Physical examination suggests impingement syndrome. What is the most appropriate initial
treatment?
Physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening
Rationale: Exercises to improve shoulder strength and flexibility, focusing on the rotator cuff and
scapular stabilizers is an important initial treatment. Physical therapy may include stretching
and strengthening exercises, as well as techniques to improve shoulder mechanics.
A 75-year-old presents with depression. The patient also has osteoarthritis of both knees that
interferes with mobility. Which antidepressant may also benefit osteoarthritis?
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Rationale: For individuals with both osteoarthritis and depression, duloxetine offers the
advantage of addressing both conditions simultaneously, potentially improving overall quality of
life. Its dual action can also be beneficial in managing chronic pain and associated emotional
distress often experienced by patients with osteoarthritis.
Which of the following treatments is most successful for patients with chronic fatigue
syndrome?
Graded exercise program
Rationale: A graded exercise program (GEP) for chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS), also known as
myalgic encephalomyelitis (ME), is a structured approach to physical activity aimed at gradually
increasing exercise tolerance and improving overall function. Here are key components and
considerations for implementing a GEP:
Individualized Assessment: Before starting a GEP, it's crucial to conduct a thorough assessment
of the individual's current physical capabilities, symptom severity, and any specific limitations or
Page 4 of 90
Comprehensive Practice Questions and
Verified Answers Test Bank
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view
shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the
following diagnoses?
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He
has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
medication to prescribe him?
Page 1 of 90
,Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed
with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
A pediatric male is present with his mother, who states that he is extremely restless at night
and constantly scratches his anal area. Which diagnostic procedure would confirm a diagnosis
of pinworm infestation?
Examination of transparent tape sample from perianal skin
Rationale: Scotch Tape Test (Cellophane Tape Test):
This is a common diagnostic method where a piece of transparent adhesive tape (such as Scotch
tape) is pressed against the perianal skin in the morning before bathing or using the toilet.
The tape is then carefully placed on a glass slide or slide labeled with the patient's name and
date of collection and submitted to a laboratory for examination under a microscope.
The presence of pinworm eggs or occasionally adult worms clinging to the tape can confirm the
diagnosis.
A Caucasian male patient with fair skin and green eyes is at a particularly high risk for which
of the following serious skin conditions?
Skin cancer
Rationale: Although wrinkles, sunburn, and keratoacanthoma are skin conditions, none of them
are serious nor predisposed from this patient's profile. Skin cancer risk is very high for this
patient.
During the preadmission history and physical, you examine your patient and find a new
multicolored mole measuring 9mm with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Melanoma
Rationale: These are all classic findings for melanoma: irregular borders, diameter over 6mm,
multicolor, and new or rapidly evolved.
Your patient presents with darkened, velvety creases of the groin, neck, and axilla with skin
tags present. What does this possibly indicate?
Evidence of insulin resistance
Rationale: Acanthosis nigricans is described as the presence of darkened, velvety creases of the
groin, neck, and axilla with skin tags present. This is suggestive of increased insulin resistance
and metabolic syndrome.
Page 2 of 90
,An adult male presents complaining of a left ankle injury that occurred 2 days ago while he
was playing basketball. The patient cannot bear weight and ROM is limited by pain. What
acute injuries would be included in the differential diagnosis for this patient?
Ankle sprain, ankle fracture
Rationale: An ankle fracture results in severe pain, swelling, and bruising around the ankle,
often with visible deformity or misalignment of the joint. It can lead to an inability to bear
weight on the affected leg and severe tenderness at the fracture site. Immediate medical
evaluation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
An ankle sprain typically causes sudden pain and swelling around the ankle joint, often
accompanied by bruising and tenderness, especially along the outer ankle. There may be a
feeling of instability and difficulty moving the ankle due to pain and swelling.
An adolescent football player presents to the urgent care with an acute knee injury. He heard
a pop when his knee buckled. The nurse practitioner notes a positive anterior drawer test.
The most likely diagnosis is injury to the:
anterior cruciate ligament.
Rationale: A positive anterior drawer test is commonly associated with the diagnosis of an
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury in the knee. The ACL is one of the major ligaments that
provides stability to the knee joint, and injury to this ligament is common, especially in sports-
related activities or trauma.
Which of the following distinguishes plantar fasciitis from other common foot problems?
Pain with initial step after rising in the morning
Rationale: A hallmark of plantar fasciitis is severe pain upon waking or after periods of rest,
which tends to improve with movement as the fascia stretches out.
Which of the following is a urate lowering drug that may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs
in treating gouty arthritis?
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Rationale: Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces the production of uric acid in
the body. It inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is involved in the metabolism of
purines (substances that contribute to uric acid formation). Allopurinol is commonly used as a
long-term maintenance therapy to prevent recurrent gout attacks and to reduce the risk of
complications associated with chronic hyperuricemia, such as tophi (deposits of urate crystals in
joints and other tissues).
For primary prevention of osteoporosis in females, the US Preventative Task Force
recommends bone density screening:
Page 3 of 90
, At least once after age 65
Rationale: Women at higher risk of osteoporosis, such as those with a family history, early
menopause, or certain medical conditions, should discuss bone density screening (DEXA scan)
with their healthcare provider.
Your patient has presented with an acute GI bleed. In working up potential causes, which of
the following scenarios is most probable as a reason for the bleed?
Four days of high dose of naproxen sodium for joint pain after a long hike
Rationale: Acute high dose use of NSAID is a risk of developing a stomach ulcer and subsequent
GI bleeding. Topical use of NSAID is not associated with systemic absorption over 1-2% and
accordingly does not carry the prostaglandin inhibition risks to the gut lining. Use of prednisone
does not predispose to bleeding, nor does acetaminophen use.
A 25-year-old athlete presents with shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities.
Physical examination suggests impingement syndrome. What is the most appropriate initial
treatment?
Physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening
Rationale: Exercises to improve shoulder strength and flexibility, focusing on the rotator cuff and
scapular stabilizers is an important initial treatment. Physical therapy may include stretching
and strengthening exercises, as well as techniques to improve shoulder mechanics.
A 75-year-old presents with depression. The patient also has osteoarthritis of both knees that
interferes with mobility. Which antidepressant may also benefit osteoarthritis?
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Rationale: For individuals with both osteoarthritis and depression, duloxetine offers the
advantage of addressing both conditions simultaneously, potentially improving overall quality of
life. Its dual action can also be beneficial in managing chronic pain and associated emotional
distress often experienced by patients with osteoarthritis.
Which of the following treatments is most successful for patients with chronic fatigue
syndrome?
Graded exercise program
Rationale: A graded exercise program (GEP) for chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS), also known as
myalgic encephalomyelitis (ME), is a structured approach to physical activity aimed at gradually
increasing exercise tolerance and improving overall function. Here are key components and
considerations for implementing a GEP:
Individualized Assessment: Before starting a GEP, it's crucial to conduct a thorough assessment
of the individual's current physical capabilities, symptom severity, and any specific limitations or
Page 4 of 90
