1
NR 567/ NR567
NR 567/ NR567 FINAL Exam (Latest 2026/
2027) Advanced Pharmacology for the
AGACNP | Q/A | Grade A | Chamberlain
Subject: Advanced Pharmacology for the AGACNP
Source: Chamberlain University
Format: Exam Questions & Verified Answers
Description:
This document is a Final Exam V2 question bank for NR.567. It
contains multiple-choice questions with
explanations covering neurology, psychiatry, anesthesia, cardiology,
endocrinology, oncology, infectious disease, and hematology. The
resource is structured as a review tool with rationales to prepare for the
AGACNP pharmacology exam.
NR 567/ NR567
, 2
NR 567/ NR567
1. Which of the following medications should be given to patients
presenting to the emergency department (ED) with an altered level of
consciousness, seizures, or both, if a concern of Wernicke-Korsakoff
syndrome exists?
Answer: Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by thiamine
(Vitamin B1) deficiency, often seen in chronic alcohol use.
Administration of thiamine is critical to prevent irreversible
neurological damage in patients presenting with altered
consciousness or seizures where this deficiency is suspected.
2. Which of the following pharmaceutical agents is not recommended
for treating methanol poisoning?
Answer: Disulfiram (Antabuse)
Rationale: Disulfiram is used as an aversive therapy for alcohol
dependence; it inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. It is not used in the
acute management of methanol poisoning. Treatment for methanol
poisoning includes ethanol or fomepizole (to inhibit alcohol
dehydrogenase), sodium bicarbonate (to correct metabolic acidosis),
and potentially dialysis.
NR 567/ NR567
, 3
NR 567/ NR567
3. Which of the following pharmaceutical agents is the preferred
antiseizure medication for a generalized seizure disorder in a 25-
year-old pregnant female?
Answer: Levetiracetam (Keppra)
Rationale: Valproate is a known human teratogen associated with
major congenital malformations (e.g., spina bifida) and
neurodevelopmental risks. Levetiracetam is generally considered to
have a more favorable safety profile during pregnancy compared to
other listed options like phenobarbital or topiramate.
4. Which of the following is the least preferable initial treatment of
choice for status epilepticus?
Answer: Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (lorazepam or diazepam) are first-line
for immediate termination of seizures in status epilepticus.
Fosphenytoin/phenytoin is a standard second-line agent for
preventing seizure recurrence after benzodiazepines have been
administered. Propofol is used for refractory cases.
5. Which of the following statements is not true?
NR 567/ NR567
, 4
NR 567/ NR567
Answer: Sedative hypnotics can be utilized as an anticonvulsant;
zolpidem (Ambien) and lorazepam (Ativan) are excellent
options for managing seizures.
Rationale: While benzodiazepines like lorazepam are first-line for
acute seizure management, non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotics
like zolpidem are not used as anticonvulsants. The other statements
about cardiovascular/respiratory depression and benzodiazepine-
induced amnesia are accurate.
6. Your patient has been taking risperidone (Risperdal) but has
developed hyperprolactinemia. Which of the following may help
manage hyperprolactinemia?
Answer: Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Rationale: Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that directly inhibits
prolactin secretion from the pituitary gland. The other agents
(haloperidol, promethazine, chlorpromazine) are dopamine
antagonists and could worsen hyperprolactinemia.
7. A 35-year-old female with a long history of anxiety treated with
diazepam (Valium) has increasingly become fearful and anxious about
the Coronavirus pandemic and triples her daily dose. She is found
NR 567/ NR567
NR 567/ NR567
NR 567/ NR567 FINAL Exam (Latest 2026/
2027) Advanced Pharmacology for the
AGACNP | Q/A | Grade A | Chamberlain
Subject: Advanced Pharmacology for the AGACNP
Source: Chamberlain University
Format: Exam Questions & Verified Answers
Description:
This document is a Final Exam V2 question bank for NR.567. It
contains multiple-choice questions with
explanations covering neurology, psychiatry, anesthesia, cardiology,
endocrinology, oncology, infectious disease, and hematology. The
resource is structured as a review tool with rationales to prepare for the
AGACNP pharmacology exam.
NR 567/ NR567
, 2
NR 567/ NR567
1. Which of the following medications should be given to patients
presenting to the emergency department (ED) with an altered level of
consciousness, seizures, or both, if a concern of Wernicke-Korsakoff
syndrome exists?
Answer: Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by thiamine
(Vitamin B1) deficiency, often seen in chronic alcohol use.
Administration of thiamine is critical to prevent irreversible
neurological damage in patients presenting with altered
consciousness or seizures where this deficiency is suspected.
2. Which of the following pharmaceutical agents is not recommended
for treating methanol poisoning?
Answer: Disulfiram (Antabuse)
Rationale: Disulfiram is used as an aversive therapy for alcohol
dependence; it inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. It is not used in the
acute management of methanol poisoning. Treatment for methanol
poisoning includes ethanol or fomepizole (to inhibit alcohol
dehydrogenase), sodium bicarbonate (to correct metabolic acidosis),
and potentially dialysis.
NR 567/ NR567
, 3
NR 567/ NR567
3. Which of the following pharmaceutical agents is the preferred
antiseizure medication for a generalized seizure disorder in a 25-
year-old pregnant female?
Answer: Levetiracetam (Keppra)
Rationale: Valproate is a known human teratogen associated with
major congenital malformations (e.g., spina bifida) and
neurodevelopmental risks. Levetiracetam is generally considered to
have a more favorable safety profile during pregnancy compared to
other listed options like phenobarbital or topiramate.
4. Which of the following is the least preferable initial treatment of
choice for status epilepticus?
Answer: Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (lorazepam or diazepam) are first-line
for immediate termination of seizures in status epilepticus.
Fosphenytoin/phenytoin is a standard second-line agent for
preventing seizure recurrence after benzodiazepines have been
administered. Propofol is used for refractory cases.
5. Which of the following statements is not true?
NR 567/ NR567
, 4
NR 567/ NR567
Answer: Sedative hypnotics can be utilized as an anticonvulsant;
zolpidem (Ambien) and lorazepam (Ativan) are excellent
options for managing seizures.
Rationale: While benzodiazepines like lorazepam are first-line for
acute seizure management, non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotics
like zolpidem are not used as anticonvulsants. The other statements
about cardiovascular/respiratory depression and benzodiazepine-
induced amnesia are accurate.
6. Your patient has been taking risperidone (Risperdal) but has
developed hyperprolactinemia. Which of the following may help
manage hyperprolactinemia?
Answer: Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Rationale: Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that directly inhibits
prolactin secretion from the pituitary gland. The other agents
(haloperidol, promethazine, chlorpromazine) are dopamine
antagonists and could worsen hyperprolactinemia.
7. A 35-year-old female with a long history of anxiety treated with
diazepam (Valium) has increasingly become fearful and anxious about
the Coronavirus pandemic and triples her daily dose. She is found
NR 567/ NR567
