SCI 225 MIDTERM EXAM (NIGHTINGALE) NEWEST 2026/
2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| SCI 225
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
A 48-year-old woman presents with anxiety, dizziness, and perioral
tingling after several hours of rapid breathing. Arterial blood gas results
show pH 7.49, PaCO₂ 29 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L. Which acid–
base disorder is most likely?
A. Metabolic alkalosis with compensation
B. Respiratory alkalosis with compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
D. Respiratory acidosis with compensation - Correct Answer – B.
Respiratory alkalosis with compensation
Excessive ventilation decreases carbon dioxide, raising blood pH. The
slightly decreased bicarbonate suggests early renal compensation.
A newborn has hypocalcemia, a congenital cardiac defect, and an absent
thymic shadow on chest imaging. Which underlying abnormality best
explains these findings?
A. Impaired B-cell maturation
B. Excessive immunoglobulin production
C. Defective neutrophil migration
D. Abnormal development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches -
Correct Answer – D. Abnormal development of the third and fourth
pharyngeal pouches
pg. 1
,DiGeorge syndrome results from abnormal development of the thymus
and parathyroid glands, causing T-cell deficiency and hypocalcemia.
An Rh-negative pregnant woman carries an Rh-positive fetus. She
previously delivered an Rh-positive infant without receiving Rh immune
globulin. Which event places the current fetus at risk for hemolytic
disease?
A. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and attacks fetal erythrocytes
B. Fetal IgM crosses the placenta and destroys maternal erythrocytes
C. Maternal albumin binds fetal red blood cells
D. Fetal platelets trigger maternal antibody production - Correct Answer
- A. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and attacks fetal erythrocytes
Maternal sensitization can produce anti-D IgG antibodies that cross the
placenta and destroy Rh-positive fetal red blood cells.
A woman presents with joint pain, photosensitivity, proteinuria, and a
malar rash. Laboratory testing supports systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE). Which mechanism primarily contributes to tissue injury in many
affected organs?
A. Deficient production of all immunoglobulins
B. Isolated bacterial invasion of connective tissue
C. Autoantibody formation and immune-complex deposition
D. Excessive destruction of red blood cells by parasites - Correct
Answer – C. Autoantibody formation and immune-complex deposition
SLE involves loss of self-tolerance, autoantibody production, and
immune-complex inflammation that can damage the kidneys, skin,
joints, and other tissues.
pg. 2
,A patient with advanced HIV infection develops Pneumocystis jirovecii
pneumonia. Which laboratory finding most strongly reflects the
underlying immune defect?
A. Increased circulating erythrocytes
B. Reduced CD4-positive T-helper lymphocytes
C. Elevated serum albumin
D. Increased mature neutrophil production - Correct Answer – B.
Reduced CD4-positive T-helper lymphocytes
HIV targets CD4-positive T-helper cells, progressively impairing cellular
immunity and increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections.
A pregnancy ends in fetal loss. Chromosome analysis reveals 92
chromosomes in most fetal cells. Which chromosomal abnormality is
present?
A. Tetraploidy
B. Trisomy
C. Monosomy
D. Triploidy - Correct Answer – A. Tetraploidy
Tetraploidy involves four complete sets of chromosomes, typically 92 in
humans, and is generally incompatible with survival to term.
A newborn has a high-pitched, cat-like cry, microcephaly, and
developmental impairment. Which chromosomal abnormality is most
likely responsible?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Deletion of chromosome 22q11.2
C. Deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5
pg. 3
, D. Extra X chromosome - Correct Answer – C. Deletion of the short arm
of chromosome 5
Cri-du-chat syndrome results from deletion of chromosome 5p and is
associated with a characteristic high-pitched cry and developmental
abnormalities.
A 42-year-old man develops progressive involuntary movements,
personality changes, and cognitive decline. His father had similar
symptoms beginning in adulthood. Which genetic mechanism is
associated with this disease?
A. Mitochondrial DNA deletion
B. CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion
C. Chromosome 21 nondisjunction
D. Deletion of chromosome 5p - Correct Answer – B. CAG trinucleotide
repeat expansion
Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by CAG
repeat expansion in the HTT gene. Larger expansions are associated
with earlier onset.
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops muscle weakness and
cardiac conduction abnormalities. Laboratory results reveal elevated
potassium. Which physiological effect explains the danger of this
abnormality?
A. Increased hemoglobin synthesis
B. Enhanced calcium absorption
C. Reduced production of immunoglobulins
D. Altered myocardial membrane potentials - Correct Answer – D.
Altered myocardial membrane potentials
pg. 4
2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| SCI 225
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+
A 48-year-old woman presents with anxiety, dizziness, and perioral
tingling after several hours of rapid breathing. Arterial blood gas results
show pH 7.49, PaCO₂ 29 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 22 mEq/L. Which acid–
base disorder is most likely?
A. Metabolic alkalosis with compensation
B. Respiratory alkalosis with compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
D. Respiratory acidosis with compensation - Correct Answer – B.
Respiratory alkalosis with compensation
Excessive ventilation decreases carbon dioxide, raising blood pH. The
slightly decreased bicarbonate suggests early renal compensation.
A newborn has hypocalcemia, a congenital cardiac defect, and an absent
thymic shadow on chest imaging. Which underlying abnormality best
explains these findings?
A. Impaired B-cell maturation
B. Excessive immunoglobulin production
C. Defective neutrophil migration
D. Abnormal development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches -
Correct Answer – D. Abnormal development of the third and fourth
pharyngeal pouches
pg. 1
,DiGeorge syndrome results from abnormal development of the thymus
and parathyroid glands, causing T-cell deficiency and hypocalcemia.
An Rh-negative pregnant woman carries an Rh-positive fetus. She
previously delivered an Rh-positive infant without receiving Rh immune
globulin. Which event places the current fetus at risk for hemolytic
disease?
A. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and attacks fetal erythrocytes
B. Fetal IgM crosses the placenta and destroys maternal erythrocytes
C. Maternal albumin binds fetal red blood cells
D. Fetal platelets trigger maternal antibody production - Correct Answer
- A. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and attacks fetal erythrocytes
Maternal sensitization can produce anti-D IgG antibodies that cross the
placenta and destroy Rh-positive fetal red blood cells.
A woman presents with joint pain, photosensitivity, proteinuria, and a
malar rash. Laboratory testing supports systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE). Which mechanism primarily contributes to tissue injury in many
affected organs?
A. Deficient production of all immunoglobulins
B. Isolated bacterial invasion of connective tissue
C. Autoantibody formation and immune-complex deposition
D. Excessive destruction of red blood cells by parasites - Correct
Answer – C. Autoantibody formation and immune-complex deposition
SLE involves loss of self-tolerance, autoantibody production, and
immune-complex inflammation that can damage the kidneys, skin,
joints, and other tissues.
pg. 2
,A patient with advanced HIV infection develops Pneumocystis jirovecii
pneumonia. Which laboratory finding most strongly reflects the
underlying immune defect?
A. Increased circulating erythrocytes
B. Reduced CD4-positive T-helper lymphocytes
C. Elevated serum albumin
D. Increased mature neutrophil production - Correct Answer – B.
Reduced CD4-positive T-helper lymphocytes
HIV targets CD4-positive T-helper cells, progressively impairing cellular
immunity and increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections.
A pregnancy ends in fetal loss. Chromosome analysis reveals 92
chromosomes in most fetal cells. Which chromosomal abnormality is
present?
A. Tetraploidy
B. Trisomy
C. Monosomy
D. Triploidy - Correct Answer – A. Tetraploidy
Tetraploidy involves four complete sets of chromosomes, typically 92 in
humans, and is generally incompatible with survival to term.
A newborn has a high-pitched, cat-like cry, microcephaly, and
developmental impairment. Which chromosomal abnormality is most
likely responsible?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Deletion of chromosome 22q11.2
C. Deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5
pg. 3
, D. Extra X chromosome - Correct Answer – C. Deletion of the short arm
of chromosome 5
Cri-du-chat syndrome results from deletion of chromosome 5p and is
associated with a characteristic high-pitched cry and developmental
abnormalities.
A 42-year-old man develops progressive involuntary movements,
personality changes, and cognitive decline. His father had similar
symptoms beginning in adulthood. Which genetic mechanism is
associated with this disease?
A. Mitochondrial DNA deletion
B. CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion
C. Chromosome 21 nondisjunction
D. Deletion of chromosome 5p - Correct Answer – B. CAG trinucleotide
repeat expansion
Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by CAG
repeat expansion in the HTT gene. Larger expansions are associated
with earlier onset.
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops muscle weakness and
cardiac conduction abnormalities. Laboratory results reveal elevated
potassium. Which physiological effect explains the danger of this
abnormality?
A. Increased hemoglobin synthesis
B. Enhanced calcium absorption
C. Reduced production of immunoglobulins
D. Altered myocardial membrane potentials - Correct Answer – D.
Altered myocardial membrane potentials
pg. 4
