NSG 500 Exam 1 Actual Exam V3 | NSG 500 Advanced Health
Assessment (NSG500 Exam 1) [PDF] | Wilkes University
1. During a health history, a patient reports feeling ‘heart palpitations’ that began two days
ago. Which of the following data types does this information represent?
A. Objective data
B. Pertinent negative
C. Subjective data
D. Functional assessment
Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information provided by the patient that cannot be
independently measured by the clinician, such as symptoms or feelings. Objective data,
conversely, involves observable and measurable signs gathered during the physical
examination. This distinction is critical for accurate documentation in the ‘S’ section of a
SOAP note.
2. A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain. The nurse practitioner asks, ‘Does the pain
radiate to your left arm or jaw?’ This question targets which component of the symptom
analysis?
A. Severity
B. Location/Radiation
C. Timing
D. Aggravating factors
Answer: B
Rationale: Radiation refers to the movement of pain from the primary site to another area
of the body, which is a hallmark of ischemic cardiac events. Assessing location and
radiation helps differentiate between musculoskeletal pain and visceral pain. Accurate
symptom analysis using the OLD CARTS mnemonic ensures a comprehensive
understanding of the patient’s complaint.
3. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action when a patient becomes
tearful while discussing their recent divorce?
A. Ask the patient to stop crying so the interview can continue.
B. Provide a tissue and sit quietly for a moment to allow the patient to express emotion.
C. Change the subject to a less emotional topic immediately.
,D. Refer the patient to a psychiatrist before completing the physical exam.
Answer: B
Rationale: Empathetic listening and silence are essential patient-centered interviewing
techniques that build trust and rapport. Providing a tissue acknowledges the patient’s
distress without demanding they suppress it. This approach encourages the patient to
share deeper concerns that may impact their physical health.
4. An 82-year-old female is being assessed for her ability to live independently. The nurse
practitioner assesses her ability to use the telephone, manage medications, and handle
finances. These are examples of:
A. Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)
B. Primary prevention strategies
C. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)
D. Subjective health history
Answer: C
Rationale: IADLs are complex skills needed to live independently in a community, such as
managing a budget or shopping. ADLs are basic self-care tasks like dressing, bathing, and
eating. Distinguishing between these two categories helps clinicians determine the level of
support an older adult requires.
5. When conducting a comprehensive health history on a new patient, which section is used
to gather information about the health of the patient’s first-degree relatives?
A. Family History
B. Past Medical History
C. Review of Systems
D. Social History
Answer: A
Rationale: Family history identifies genetic risks and patterns of illness within a family,
focusing specifically on first-degree relatives. This information is often organized visually
in a genogram for better analysis. Understanding these risks allows the practitioner to
implement early screening and preventative measures.
6. A patient presents with a cough. To establish the ‘P’ in the PQRST mnemonic, the nurse
practitioner should ask:
A. ‘How long does the cough last?’
B. ‘On a scale of 1 to 10, how bad is the cough?’
, C. ‘Where exactly do you feel the irritation?’
D. ‘What makes the cough better or worse?’
Answer: D
Rationale: In the PQRST mnemonic, ‘P’ stands for Provocative or Palliative factors, which
identify what triggers or relieves the symptom. This helps in narrowing down the
differential diagnosis, such as identifying if a cough is triggered by exercise or relieved by
rest. This step is vital for understanding the pathophysiology of the patient’s condition.
7. Which of the following statements represents objective data collected during a physical
examination?
A. Patient states, ‘I have a headache.’
B. Patient reports a history of asthma.
C. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
D. Patient complains of nausea after eating.
Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data is what the clinician observes, feels, hears, or smells during the
examination. Clear lung sounds are a finding observed through auscultation by the
provider. Subjective data, such as a headache or nausea, relies entirely on the patient’s
report and cannot be verified through physical maneuvers.
8. A nurse practitioner is screening a patient for alcohol use disorder using the CAGE
questionnaire. What does the ‘G’ in CAGE stand for?
A. Gastrointestinal issues related to drinking
B. General health status
C. Guilty feelings about drinking
D. Going to work while intoxicated
Answer: C
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a validated screening tool for alcohol use, where ‘G’
stands for feeling ‘Guilty’ about drinking. A positive response to two or more items suggests
a potential alcohol problem. Using standardized tools like CAGE ensures that risk
assessments are evidence-based and reproducible.
9. During a review of systems (ROS), a patient denies having any chest pain, shortness of
breath, or palpitations. These denials are documented as:
A. Pertinent negatives
B. Subjective findings
Assessment (NSG500 Exam 1) [PDF] | Wilkes University
1. During a health history, a patient reports feeling ‘heart palpitations’ that began two days
ago. Which of the following data types does this information represent?
A. Objective data
B. Pertinent negative
C. Subjective data
D. Functional assessment
Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information provided by the patient that cannot be
independently measured by the clinician, such as symptoms or feelings. Objective data,
conversely, involves observable and measurable signs gathered during the physical
examination. This distinction is critical for accurate documentation in the ‘S’ section of a
SOAP note.
2. A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain. The nurse practitioner asks, ‘Does the pain
radiate to your left arm or jaw?’ This question targets which component of the symptom
analysis?
A. Severity
B. Location/Radiation
C. Timing
D. Aggravating factors
Answer: B
Rationale: Radiation refers to the movement of pain from the primary site to another area
of the body, which is a hallmark of ischemic cardiac events. Assessing location and
radiation helps differentiate between musculoskeletal pain and visceral pain. Accurate
symptom analysis using the OLD CARTS mnemonic ensures a comprehensive
understanding of the patient’s complaint.
3. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action when a patient becomes
tearful while discussing their recent divorce?
A. Ask the patient to stop crying so the interview can continue.
B. Provide a tissue and sit quietly for a moment to allow the patient to express emotion.
C. Change the subject to a less emotional topic immediately.
,D. Refer the patient to a psychiatrist before completing the physical exam.
Answer: B
Rationale: Empathetic listening and silence are essential patient-centered interviewing
techniques that build trust and rapport. Providing a tissue acknowledges the patient’s
distress without demanding they suppress it. This approach encourages the patient to
share deeper concerns that may impact their physical health.
4. An 82-year-old female is being assessed for her ability to live independently. The nurse
practitioner assesses her ability to use the telephone, manage medications, and handle
finances. These are examples of:
A. Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)
B. Primary prevention strategies
C. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)
D. Subjective health history
Answer: C
Rationale: IADLs are complex skills needed to live independently in a community, such as
managing a budget or shopping. ADLs are basic self-care tasks like dressing, bathing, and
eating. Distinguishing between these two categories helps clinicians determine the level of
support an older adult requires.
5. When conducting a comprehensive health history on a new patient, which section is used
to gather information about the health of the patient’s first-degree relatives?
A. Family History
B. Past Medical History
C. Review of Systems
D. Social History
Answer: A
Rationale: Family history identifies genetic risks and patterns of illness within a family,
focusing specifically on first-degree relatives. This information is often organized visually
in a genogram for better analysis. Understanding these risks allows the practitioner to
implement early screening and preventative measures.
6. A patient presents with a cough. To establish the ‘P’ in the PQRST mnemonic, the nurse
practitioner should ask:
A. ‘How long does the cough last?’
B. ‘On a scale of 1 to 10, how bad is the cough?’
, C. ‘Where exactly do you feel the irritation?’
D. ‘What makes the cough better or worse?’
Answer: D
Rationale: In the PQRST mnemonic, ‘P’ stands for Provocative or Palliative factors, which
identify what triggers or relieves the symptom. This helps in narrowing down the
differential diagnosis, such as identifying if a cough is triggered by exercise or relieved by
rest. This step is vital for understanding the pathophysiology of the patient’s condition.
7. Which of the following statements represents objective data collected during a physical
examination?
A. Patient states, ‘I have a headache.’
B. Patient reports a history of asthma.
C. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
D. Patient complains of nausea after eating.
Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data is what the clinician observes, feels, hears, or smells during the
examination. Clear lung sounds are a finding observed through auscultation by the
provider. Subjective data, such as a headache or nausea, relies entirely on the patient’s
report and cannot be verified through physical maneuvers.
8. A nurse practitioner is screening a patient for alcohol use disorder using the CAGE
questionnaire. What does the ‘G’ in CAGE stand for?
A. Gastrointestinal issues related to drinking
B. General health status
C. Guilty feelings about drinking
D. Going to work while intoxicated
Answer: C
Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a validated screening tool for alcohol use, where ‘G’
stands for feeling ‘Guilty’ about drinking. A positive response to two or more items suggests
a potential alcohol problem. Using standardized tools like CAGE ensures that risk
assessments are evidence-based and reproducible.
9. During a review of systems (ROS), a patient denies having any chest pain, shortness of
breath, or palpitations. These denials are documented as:
A. Pertinent negatives
B. Subjective findings
