MATERNITY CLINICAL JUDGMENT EXAM CJE 2026/2027 | 100 VERIFIED
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | EXAMSOFT BY TURNITIN PREP | INSTANT
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Section 1: Antepartum Care and Assessment
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks' gestation. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Fundal height at the umbilicus
B. Fetal heart rate 150 beats/min
C. Blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg and 3+ proteinuria
D. Mild ankle edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg with proteinuria after 20 weeks suggests preeclampsia,
which can progress to severe disease and eclampsia. Fundal height at the umbilicus is expected around
20–22 weeks. Fetal heart rate of 150 is normal. Mild ankle edema is common in pregnancy.
,Question 2
A client's GTPAL is documented as G4 T2 P1 A0 L3. Which interpretation is correct?
A. 4 pregnancies, 2 term, 1 preterm, 0 abortions, 3 living children
B. 4 pregnancies, 2 abortions, 1 preterm, 0 term, 3 living children
C. 4 living children, 2 term, 1 preterm, 0 abortions
D. 4 pregnancies, 2 twins, 1 singleton, 0 losses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL: G = gravida (total pregnancies), T = term births, P = preterm births, A =
abortions/miscarriages, L = living children. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3 means 4 pregnancies, 2 term births, 1 preterm
birth, 0 abortions, and 3 living children.
Question 3
Using Naegele's rule, a client's last menstrual period began on June 10. What is the estimated date of
birth?
A. March 3
B. March 17
C. March 24
D. April 10
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period. June 10 → March 10 + 7 days = March 17.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client who is planning pregnancy about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should start folic acid after I confirm pregnancy."
B. "I need 400 mcg daily before conception and during early pregnancy."
C. "Folic acid prevents all birth defects."
D. "I only need folic acid if I have a family history of spina bifida."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid 400 mcg daily is recommended before conception and during early pregnancy to
reduce neural tube defects. Waiting until pregnancy is confirmed may miss the critical period of neural
tube closure. It does not prevent all defects.
,Question 5
A client who is Rh-negative and unsensitized gives birth to an Rh-positive newborn. What should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Hepatitis B immune globulin
D. Tetanus toxoid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin prevents Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative mother who may have
been exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood. It should be given within 72 hours of birth. Rubella vaccine is
given postpartum if nonimmune, but not for Rh.
Question 6
At what gestational age is screening for gestational diabetes typically performed?
A. 8–12 weeks
B. 16–20 weeks
C. 24–28 weeks
D. 32–36 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Routine screening for gestational diabetes is performed at 24–28 weeks' gestation, when
insulin resistance increases. Early screening may be done for high-risk clients.
Question 7
A client at 36 weeks' gestation reports a severe headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. What is
the priority nursing action?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Assess blood pressure and reflexes
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Position the client supine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms suggest severe preeclampsia. The nurse should immediately assess blood
pressure, deep tendon reflexes, and fetal status, and notify the provider. Acetaminophen is not
appropriate. Supine position can worsen vena cava compression.
, Question 8
A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium
toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate 16/min
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
C. Urine output 20 mL/hr
D. Respiratory rate 10/min and absent reflexes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity signs include respiratory depression (<12/min), absent deep tendon
reflexes, and oliguria. The antidote is calcium gluconate. Urine output should be ≥30 mL/hr.
Question 9
A client at 33 weeks' gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is used for fetal
neuroprotection?
A. Betamethasone
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Nifedipine
D. Indomethacin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used for fetal neuroprotection before 32–34 weeks in preterm labor.
Betamethasone is for fetal lung maturity. Nifedipine and indomethacin are tocolytics.
Question 10
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Weight loss of 2 kg
B. Urine specific gravity 1.030
C. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
D. Nausea in the morning
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness. Normal potassium is
3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Weight loss and concentrated urine are expected. Morning nausea is common.
Question 11
A client with placenta previa should be instructed to avoid:
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | EXAMSOFT BY TURNITIN PREP | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD .
Section 1: Antepartum Care and Assessment
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks' gestation. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Fundal height at the umbilicus
B. Fetal heart rate 150 beats/min
C. Blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg and 3+ proteinuria
D. Mild ankle edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg with proteinuria after 20 weeks suggests preeclampsia,
which can progress to severe disease and eclampsia. Fundal height at the umbilicus is expected around
20–22 weeks. Fetal heart rate of 150 is normal. Mild ankle edema is common in pregnancy.
,Question 2
A client's GTPAL is documented as G4 T2 P1 A0 L3. Which interpretation is correct?
A. 4 pregnancies, 2 term, 1 preterm, 0 abortions, 3 living children
B. 4 pregnancies, 2 abortions, 1 preterm, 0 term, 3 living children
C. 4 living children, 2 term, 1 preterm, 0 abortions
D. 4 pregnancies, 2 twins, 1 singleton, 0 losses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL: G = gravida (total pregnancies), T = term births, P = preterm births, A =
abortions/miscarriages, L = living children. G4 T2 P1 A0 L3 means 4 pregnancies, 2 term births, 1 preterm
birth, 0 abortions, and 3 living children.
Question 3
Using Naegele's rule, a client's last menstrual period began on June 10. What is the estimated date of
birth?
A. March 3
B. March 17
C. March 24
D. April 10
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period. June 10 → March 10 + 7 days = March 17.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a client who is planning pregnancy about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should start folic acid after I confirm pregnancy."
B. "I need 400 mcg daily before conception and during early pregnancy."
C. "Folic acid prevents all birth defects."
D. "I only need folic acid if I have a family history of spina bifida."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid 400 mcg daily is recommended before conception and during early pregnancy to
reduce neural tube defects. Waiting until pregnancy is confirmed may miss the critical period of neural
tube closure. It does not prevent all defects.
,Question 5
A client who is Rh-negative and unsensitized gives birth to an Rh-positive newborn. What should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Hepatitis B immune globulin
D. Tetanus toxoid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin prevents Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative mother who may have
been exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood. It should be given within 72 hours of birth. Rubella vaccine is
given postpartum if nonimmune, but not for Rh.
Question 6
At what gestational age is screening for gestational diabetes typically performed?
A. 8–12 weeks
B. 16–20 weeks
C. 24–28 weeks
D. 32–36 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Routine screening for gestational diabetes is performed at 24–28 weeks' gestation, when
insulin resistance increases. Early screening may be done for high-risk clients.
Question 7
A client at 36 weeks' gestation reports a severe headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. What is
the priority nursing action?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Assess blood pressure and reflexes
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Position the client supine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms suggest severe preeclampsia. The nurse should immediately assess blood
pressure, deep tendon reflexes, and fetal status, and notify the provider. Acetaminophen is not
appropriate. Supine position can worsen vena cava compression.
, Question 8
A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium
toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate 16/min
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
C. Urine output 20 mL/hr
D. Respiratory rate 10/min and absent reflexes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity signs include respiratory depression (<12/min), absent deep tendon
reflexes, and oliguria. The antidote is calcium gluconate. Urine output should be ≥30 mL/hr.
Question 9
A client at 33 weeks' gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is used for fetal
neuroprotection?
A. Betamethasone
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Nifedipine
D. Indomethacin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used for fetal neuroprotection before 32–34 weeks in preterm labor.
Betamethasone is for fetal lung maturity. Nifedipine and indomethacin are tocolytics.
Question 10
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Weight loss of 2 kg
B. Urine specific gravity 1.030
C. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
D. Nausea in the morning
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness. Normal potassium is
3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Weight loss and concentrated urine are expected. Morning nausea is common.
Question 11
A client with placenta previa should be instructed to avoid:
