NURS 1150 Exam 3 Actual Exam V1 | NURS 1150 Nurse Pharmacology
I (NURS1150 Exam 3) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin to a 10-year-old child with a fever. What is the
primary reason the nurse should question this order?
A. Risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Severe hypotension
C. Increased risk of ototoxicity
D. Potential for Reye’s syndrome
Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin is contraindicated in children and teenagers with viral infections due to
the association with Reye’s syndrome. This condition leads to severe brain and liver
damage and can be fatal. Nurses must advocate for alternative antipyretics like
acetaminophen in this age group.
2. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize for a patient receiving morphine
sulfate via PCA pump?
A. Constipation
B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min
C. Urinary retention
D. Pinpoint pupils
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of opioid analgesics
like morphine. A respiratory rate below 10-12 breaths per minute requires immediate
intervention and potential administration of naloxone. While constipation and urinary
retention are common, they are not life-threatening in the acute phase.
3. A patient who has been taking high doses of ibuprofen for osteoarthritis reports black,
tarry stools. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Renal failure
C. Gastrointestinal perforation or bleeding
D. Lower bowel obstruction
Answer: C
,Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen inhibit COX-1, which protects the stomach lining, leading
to an increased risk of peptic ulcers and GI bleeding. Black, tarry stools (melena) are a
classic sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should be taught to take NSAIDs
with food to minimize mucosal irritation.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an acute opioid overdose. Which medication
should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes for opioid receptor sites,
reversing respiratory depression and sedation. It has a shorter half-life than most opioids,
so repeated doses may be necessary. The nurse must monitor the patient closely for the
recurrence of respiratory depression.
5. What is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for a healthy adult to prevent
hepatotoxicity?
A. 2000 mg
B. 3000 mg
C. 4000 mg
D. 5000 mg
Answer: C
Rationale: The FDA and manufacturers generally recommend a maximum of 4000 mg of
acetaminophen in 24 hours for healthy adults. Exceeding this dose can lead to severe liver
damage and failure. Nurses must also check other combination products (like cold meds)
that may contain hidden acetaminophen.
6. A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which statement by
the patient indicates understanding?
A. I will take this with a full glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
B. This drug will help my pain without causing as many stomach ulcers.
C. I can stop taking my blood pressure medicine while on this.
D. This drug is safe for me even though I have a sulfa allergy.
Answer: B
, Rationale: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, designed to reduce inflammation
without inhibiting the protective COX-1 enzymes in the gut. This results in a lower risk of
GI ulceration compared to non-selective NSAIDs. However, it still carries cardiovascular
risks that must be monitored.
7. Which lab value is most important for the nurse to monitor in a patient receiving long-term
Allopurinol therapy for gout?
A. Serum calcium
B. Blood glucose
C. Uric acid levels
D. Potassium levels
Answer: C
Rationale: Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, the enzyme responsible for
uric acid production. The goal of therapy is to lower serum uric acid levels to prevent gout
attacks and stone formation. Nurses should also encourage high fluid intake to prevent
kidney stones during therapy.
8. A patient is prescribed Sumatriptan for a migraine. Which condition in the patient’s history
would be a contraindication?
A. Type 2 Diabetes
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Asthma
D. Glaucoma
Answer: B
Rationale: Sumatriptan causes vasoconstriction of cranial arteries but can also cause
systemic vasoconstriction. It is contraindicated in patients with ischemic heart disease or
uncontrolled hypertension due to the risk of myocardial infarction. Nurses must assess for
chest pain after administration.
9. When administering Vancomycin IV, the nurse notes the patient’s neck and chest are
becoming flushed and red. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Slow the rate of the infusion.
B. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.
C. Administer an antihistamine per standing orders.
D. Apply cold compresses to the reddened areas.
Answer: A
I (NURS1150 Exam 3) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin to a 10-year-old child with a fever. What is the
primary reason the nurse should question this order?
A. Risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Severe hypotension
C. Increased risk of ototoxicity
D. Potential for Reye’s syndrome
Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin is contraindicated in children and teenagers with viral infections due to
the association with Reye’s syndrome. This condition leads to severe brain and liver
damage and can be fatal. Nurses must advocate for alternative antipyretics like
acetaminophen in this age group.
2. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize for a patient receiving morphine
sulfate via PCA pump?
A. Constipation
B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min
C. Urinary retention
D. Pinpoint pupils
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of opioid analgesics
like morphine. A respiratory rate below 10-12 breaths per minute requires immediate
intervention and potential administration of naloxone. While constipation and urinary
retention are common, they are not life-threatening in the acute phase.
3. A patient who has been taking high doses of ibuprofen for osteoarthritis reports black,
tarry stools. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Renal failure
C. Gastrointestinal perforation or bleeding
D. Lower bowel obstruction
Answer: C
,Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen inhibit COX-1, which protects the stomach lining, leading
to an increased risk of peptic ulcers and GI bleeding. Black, tarry stools (melena) are a
classic sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should be taught to take NSAIDs
with food to minimize mucosal irritation.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an acute opioid overdose. Which medication
should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes for opioid receptor sites,
reversing respiratory depression and sedation. It has a shorter half-life than most opioids,
so repeated doses may be necessary. The nurse must monitor the patient closely for the
recurrence of respiratory depression.
5. What is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for a healthy adult to prevent
hepatotoxicity?
A. 2000 mg
B. 3000 mg
C. 4000 mg
D. 5000 mg
Answer: C
Rationale: The FDA and manufacturers generally recommend a maximum of 4000 mg of
acetaminophen in 24 hours for healthy adults. Exceeding this dose can lead to severe liver
damage and failure. Nurses must also check other combination products (like cold meds)
that may contain hidden acetaminophen.
6. A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which statement by
the patient indicates understanding?
A. I will take this with a full glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
B. This drug will help my pain without causing as many stomach ulcers.
C. I can stop taking my blood pressure medicine while on this.
D. This drug is safe for me even though I have a sulfa allergy.
Answer: B
, Rationale: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, designed to reduce inflammation
without inhibiting the protective COX-1 enzymes in the gut. This results in a lower risk of
GI ulceration compared to non-selective NSAIDs. However, it still carries cardiovascular
risks that must be monitored.
7. Which lab value is most important for the nurse to monitor in a patient receiving long-term
Allopurinol therapy for gout?
A. Serum calcium
B. Blood glucose
C. Uric acid levels
D. Potassium levels
Answer: C
Rationale: Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, the enzyme responsible for
uric acid production. The goal of therapy is to lower serum uric acid levels to prevent gout
attacks and stone formation. Nurses should also encourage high fluid intake to prevent
kidney stones during therapy.
8. A patient is prescribed Sumatriptan for a migraine. Which condition in the patient’s history
would be a contraindication?
A. Type 2 Diabetes
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Asthma
D. Glaucoma
Answer: B
Rationale: Sumatriptan causes vasoconstriction of cranial arteries but can also cause
systemic vasoconstriction. It is contraindicated in patients with ischemic heart disease or
uncontrolled hypertension due to the risk of myocardial infarction. Nurses must assess for
chest pain after administration.
9. When administering Vancomycin IV, the nurse notes the patient’s neck and chest are
becoming flushed and red. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Slow the rate of the infusion.
B. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.
C. Administer an antihistamine per standing orders.
D. Apply cold compresses to the reddened areas.
Answer: A
