NURS 1150 Exam 2 Actual Exam V3 | NURS 1150 Nurse Pharmacology
I (NURS1150 Exam 2) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed a non-selective beta-blocker. Which
medication should the nurse question?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic antagonist that blocks both beta-
1 and beta-2 receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can lead to bronchoconstriction, which is
dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Selective beta-blockers like metoprolol are
preferred if a beta-blocker is strictly necessary for these patients.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient. Which vital sign must be assessed
before administration?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Apical pulse
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must assess the apical pulse for one full minute before administering
digoxin. Digoxin is a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope that slows the heart rate.
If the apical pulse is less than 60 beats per minute, the medication should be withheld and
the provider notified.
3. A patient is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor to evaluate effectiveness?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count
Answer: C
,Rationale: The aPTT is the primary laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic effect
of unfractionated heparin. The goal is typically to maintain the aPTT between 1.5 to 2.5
times the normal baseline. While platelet counts are monitored for heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia, aPTT measures the actual coagulation delay.
4. Which of the following is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Dry, nonproductive cough
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent dry cough in many patients. This side effect is a common reason for patients to
discontinue the medication and switch to an ARB. The nurse should explain that this is a
known side effect and notify the prescriber if it becomes intolerable.
5. What is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Flumazenil
Answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin K is the specific reversal agent for warfarin-induced anticoagulation. It
promotes the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. In cases of severe
bleeding, fresh frozen plasma may also be administered alongside Vitamin K.
6. A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
primarily monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of water, sodium, and
potassium. Hypokalemia is a frequent and potentially dangerous adverse effect that can
, lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Patients are often encouraged to consume potassium-rich
foods or take a potassium supplement while on this therapy.
7. A patient reports severe muscle pain after starting atorvastatin. What should the nurse
suspect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Gout flare-up
Answer: C
Rationale: Statins can cause a rare but serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which
involves the breakdown of skeletal muscle tissue. This condition can lead to acute renal
failure due to myoglobin release into the bloodstream. The nurse must instruct the patient
to report any unexplained muscle pain or tea-colored urine immediately.
8. Which medication is considered a selective alpha-1 blocker used to treat hypertension and
BPH?
A. Atenolol
B. Clonidine
C. Prazosin
D. Hydralazine
Answer: C
Rationale: Prazosin is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist that causes vasodilation of
both arterioles and veins. It is used to treat hypertension and can also help with symptoms
of benign prostatic hyperplasia by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder neck. Nurses
should monitor for ‘first-dose syncope’ when this medication is initiated.
9. Which instruction is essential for a patient prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
B. Store the medication in a clear plastic container.
C. Discard the bottle one year after opening.
D. Take up to three doses, five minutes apart, then call 911 if pain persists.
Answer: D
Rationale: Patients are taught to take one sublingual tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If
pain is not relieved, they can take a second and third dose at 5-minute intervals. If pain
I (NURS1150 Exam 2) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed a non-selective beta-blocker. Which
medication should the nurse question?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic antagonist that blocks both beta-
1 and beta-2 receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can lead to bronchoconstriction, which is
dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Selective beta-blockers like metoprolol are
preferred if a beta-blocker is strictly necessary for these patients.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient. Which vital sign must be assessed
before administration?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Apical pulse
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must assess the apical pulse for one full minute before administering
digoxin. Digoxin is a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope that slows the heart rate.
If the apical pulse is less than 60 beats per minute, the medication should be withheld and
the provider notified.
3. A patient is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor to evaluate effectiveness?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count
Answer: C
,Rationale: The aPTT is the primary laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic effect
of unfractionated heparin. The goal is typically to maintain the aPTT between 1.5 to 2.5
times the normal baseline. While platelet counts are monitored for heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia, aPTT measures the actual coagulation delay.
4. Which of the following is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Dry, nonproductive cough
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can lead to a
persistent dry cough in many patients. This side effect is a common reason for patients to
discontinue the medication and switch to an ARB. The nurse should explain that this is a
known side effect and notify the prescriber if it becomes intolerable.
5. What is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Flumazenil
Answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin K is the specific reversal agent for warfarin-induced anticoagulation. It
promotes the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. In cases of severe
bleeding, fresh frozen plasma may also be administered alongside Vitamin K.
6. A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
primarily monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of water, sodium, and
potassium. Hypokalemia is a frequent and potentially dangerous adverse effect that can
, lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Patients are often encouraged to consume potassium-rich
foods or take a potassium supplement while on this therapy.
7. A patient reports severe muscle pain after starting atorvastatin. What should the nurse
suspect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Gout flare-up
Answer: C
Rationale: Statins can cause a rare but serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which
involves the breakdown of skeletal muscle tissue. This condition can lead to acute renal
failure due to myoglobin release into the bloodstream. The nurse must instruct the patient
to report any unexplained muscle pain or tea-colored urine immediately.
8. Which medication is considered a selective alpha-1 blocker used to treat hypertension and
BPH?
A. Atenolol
B. Clonidine
C. Prazosin
D. Hydralazine
Answer: C
Rationale: Prazosin is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist that causes vasodilation of
both arterioles and veins. It is used to treat hypertension and can also help with symptoms
of benign prostatic hyperplasia by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder neck. Nurses
should monitor for ‘first-dose syncope’ when this medication is initiated.
9. Which instruction is essential for a patient prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
B. Store the medication in a clear plastic container.
C. Discard the bottle one year after opening.
D. Take up to three doses, five minutes apart, then call 911 if pain persists.
Answer: D
Rationale: Patients are taught to take one sublingual tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If
pain is not relieved, they can take a second and third dose at 5-minute intervals. If pain
