NURS 1150 Exam 2 Actual Exam V1 | NURS 1150 Nurse Pharmacology
I (NURS1150 Exam 2) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. A patient is prescribed epinephrine for an anaphylactic reaction. Which physiological effect
should the nurse expect to observe after administration?
A. Bronchoconstriction and bradycardia
B. Increased heart rate and bronchodilation
C. Decreased blood pressure and miosis
D. Increased urinary output and vasodilation
Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine is a non-selective adrenergic agonist that stimulates alpha-1, beta-
1, and beta-2 receptors. This stimulation results in vasoconstriction to increase blood
pressure, bronchodilation to open airways, and an increased heart rate. The nurse must
monitor for tachycardia and hypertension following administration.
2. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which medication
should the nurse question if prescribed?
A. Propranolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Metoprolol
D. Lisinopril
Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that antagonizes both beta-1 and
beta-2 receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which is
dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Metoprolol is a selective beta-1 blocker and is
generally safer, though still used with caution.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer bethanechol to a post-operative patient. What is the
primary therapeutic indication for this drug?
A. Management of non-obstructive urinary retention
B. Reduction of intraocular pressure
C. Treatment of postoperative bradycardia
D. Control of excessive salivation
Answer: A
,Rationale: Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that stimulates the muscarinic
receptors of the urinary bladder. It increases the tone of the detrusor muscle and relaxes
the urinary sphincter to facilitate urination. It is commonly used for patients experiencing
postoperative or postpartum urinary retention.
4. Which clinical finding would most likely indicate that a patient is experiencing a cholinergic
crisis?
A. Excessive salivation, diarrhea, and muscle weakness
B. Dry mouth, constipation, and tachycardia
C. Hypertension, dilated pupils, and urinary retention
D. Fever, tremors, and skin flushing
Answer: A
Rationale: A cholinergic crisis is caused by an overdose of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
leading to excessive acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Symptoms are often
remembered by the acronym SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI
distress, Emesis). Atropine is the immediate antidote used to reverse these muscarinic
effects.
5. A patient is receiving atropine preoperatively. What is the main purpose of this medication
in the surgical setting?
A. To decrease salivary and bronchial secretions
B. To lower the heart rate to prevent stress
C. To increase gastrointestinal motility
D. To induce skeletal muscle relaxation
Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) medication. In surgery, it
is used to dry up secretions and prevent aspiration under anesthesia. It also helps prevent
reflexive bradycardia that can occur during surgical manipulation.
6. The nurse is teaching a patient about lisinopril. Which side effect is most common and
might lead the patient to stop taking the medication?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypokalemia
D. A persistent dry cough
Answer: D
, Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents the breakdown of bradykinin in the
lungs. The accumulation of bradykinin often causes a persistent, non-productive dry cough.
If this occurs, the patient is often switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB)
which does not have this effect.
7. A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Serum sodium level
C. Serum calcium level
D. Serum albumin level
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes significant excretion of water,
sodium, and potassium. Hypokalemia is a dangerous potential adverse effect that can lead
to cardiac arrhythmias. Nurses must monitor potassium levels and encourage the intake of
potassium-rich foods or supplements as ordered.
8. A patient with chronic stable angina is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. How should the
nurse instruct the patient to take this medication during an attack?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water
B. Place one tablet under the tongue and repeat every 5 minutes if pain persists, up to 3
doses
C. Take one tablet every 15 minutes for up to one hour
D. Crush the tablet and mix it with food to avoid gastric upset
Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue for rapid
absorption into the bloodstream. The standard protocol is to take one dose every 5 minutes
for a maximum of three doses. If pain is not relieved after the first dose, the patient should
call emergency services immediately.
9. Which medication is the preferred antidote for heparin-induced bleeding?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Fresh frozen plasma
Answer: B
I (NURS1150 Exam 2) | Northwest College (NWC)
1. A patient is prescribed epinephrine for an anaphylactic reaction. Which physiological effect
should the nurse expect to observe after administration?
A. Bronchoconstriction and bradycardia
B. Increased heart rate and bronchodilation
C. Decreased blood pressure and miosis
D. Increased urinary output and vasodilation
Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine is a non-selective adrenergic agonist that stimulates alpha-1, beta-
1, and beta-2 receptors. This stimulation results in vasoconstriction to increase blood
pressure, bronchodilation to open airways, and an increased heart rate. The nurse must
monitor for tachycardia and hypertension following administration.
2. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which medication
should the nurse question if prescribed?
A. Propranolol
B. Amlodipine
C. Metoprolol
D. Lisinopril
Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that antagonizes both beta-1 and
beta-2 receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which is
dangerous for patients with asthma or COPD. Metoprolol is a selective beta-1 blocker and is
generally safer, though still used with caution.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer bethanechol to a post-operative patient. What is the
primary therapeutic indication for this drug?
A. Management of non-obstructive urinary retention
B. Reduction of intraocular pressure
C. Treatment of postoperative bradycardia
D. Control of excessive salivation
Answer: A
,Rationale: Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that stimulates the muscarinic
receptors of the urinary bladder. It increases the tone of the detrusor muscle and relaxes
the urinary sphincter to facilitate urination. It is commonly used for patients experiencing
postoperative or postpartum urinary retention.
4. Which clinical finding would most likely indicate that a patient is experiencing a cholinergic
crisis?
A. Excessive salivation, diarrhea, and muscle weakness
B. Dry mouth, constipation, and tachycardia
C. Hypertension, dilated pupils, and urinary retention
D. Fever, tremors, and skin flushing
Answer: A
Rationale: A cholinergic crisis is caused by an overdose of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
leading to excessive acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Symptoms are often
remembered by the acronym SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI
distress, Emesis). Atropine is the immediate antidote used to reverse these muscarinic
effects.
5. A patient is receiving atropine preoperatively. What is the main purpose of this medication
in the surgical setting?
A. To decrease salivary and bronchial secretions
B. To lower the heart rate to prevent stress
C. To increase gastrointestinal motility
D. To induce skeletal muscle relaxation
Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) medication. In surgery, it
is used to dry up secretions and prevent aspiration under anesthesia. It also helps prevent
reflexive bradycardia that can occur during surgical manipulation.
6. The nurse is teaching a patient about lisinopril. Which side effect is most common and
might lead the patient to stop taking the medication?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypokalemia
D. A persistent dry cough
Answer: D
, Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents the breakdown of bradykinin in the
lungs. The accumulation of bradykinin often causes a persistent, non-productive dry cough.
If this occurs, the patient is often switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB)
which does not have this effect.
7. A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Serum sodium level
C. Serum calcium level
D. Serum albumin level
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that causes significant excretion of water,
sodium, and potassium. Hypokalemia is a dangerous potential adverse effect that can lead
to cardiac arrhythmias. Nurses must monitor potassium levels and encourage the intake of
potassium-rich foods or supplements as ordered.
8. A patient with chronic stable angina is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. How should the
nurse instruct the patient to take this medication during an attack?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water
B. Place one tablet under the tongue and repeat every 5 minutes if pain persists, up to 3
doses
C. Take one tablet every 15 minutes for up to one hour
D. Crush the tablet and mix it with food to avoid gastric upset
Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue for rapid
absorption into the bloodstream. The standard protocol is to take one dose every 5 minutes
for a maximum of three doses. If pain is not relieved after the first dose, the patient should
call emergency services immediately.
9. Which medication is the preferred antidote for heparin-induced bleeding?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Fresh frozen plasma
Answer: B
