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EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam Practice Test (100 Questions)
Exam Format: 70 multiple-choice & scenario-based questions | 120 minutes | Passing score:
75-80% (53-56/70 correct)
Blueprint: Airway/Respiration ~18% | Cardiology ~15% | Trauma ~20% | Medical ~22% |
OB/Peds ~15% | Operations ~10%
Section 1: Preparatory, Legal & Ethical Issues (Questions 1–15)
1. The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called:
A. Duty to act
B. Scope of practice
C. Advanced directives
D. Good Samaritan laws
Answer: B
2. Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or
action by an EMT?
A. Child and mentally incompetent adult
B. Implied
C. Applied
D. Expressed
Answer: C
3. When you inform the adult patient of the procedures you are about to perform and its
associated risks, you are asking for his or her:
A. Expressed consent
B. Negligence
C. Implied consent
D. Applied consent
Answer: A
4. You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell.
Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the
EMT's life-saving interventions is called:
A. Expressed consent
B. Implied consent
C. Negligence
D. Applied consent
Answer: B
5. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against his or her will may result
in charges against the EMT:
,2
A. Abandonment
B. Assault and battery
C. Implied consent
D. Negligence
Answer: B
6. Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving
report to a healthcare professional is an example of:
A. Liability infraction
B. Battery
C. Abandonment
D. Breach of duty
Answer: C
7. The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is the:
A. NHTSA
B. ANSI
C. HIPAA
D. OSHA
Answer: C
8. The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:
A. Gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse
B. Receives a verbal confirmation from the patient's family
C. Leaves the hospital premises to return to the station
D. Completes the patient care report form
Answer: A
9. An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care. Which document
outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Answer: B
10. Which mode of pathogen transmission involves contact with contaminated objects or
surfaces?
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Indirect contact transmission
D. Vector-borne transmission
Answer: C
, 3
11. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a
tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
A. You are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately
B. The disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms
C. You contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions
D. You were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient
Answer: D
12. Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
is correct?
A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care
setting
B. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with
your intact skin
C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly
into the bloodstream
D. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in
duration and severity
Answer: C
13. An EMT arrives on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The scene is safe, and there
are multiple patients. Which of the following actions should the EMT take FIRST?
A. Begin triage of patients
B. Don appropriate PPE
C. Immediately begin patient assessment
D. Request additional resources
Answer: B
14. An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They have no equipment.
The EMT should:
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
D. Only call 911 but not approach
Answer: B
15. When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is
considered a(n) _____ of the EMT.
A. Advanced directive
B. Protocol
C. Ethical responsibility
D. Legal responsibility
Answer: C
EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam Practice Test (100 Questions)
Exam Format: 70 multiple-choice & scenario-based questions | 120 minutes | Passing score:
75-80% (53-56/70 correct)
Blueprint: Airway/Respiration ~18% | Cardiology ~15% | Trauma ~20% | Medical ~22% |
OB/Peds ~15% | Operations ~10%
Section 1: Preparatory, Legal & Ethical Issues (Questions 1–15)
1. The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called:
A. Duty to act
B. Scope of practice
C. Advanced directives
D. Good Samaritan laws
Answer: B
2. Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or
action by an EMT?
A. Child and mentally incompetent adult
B. Implied
C. Applied
D. Expressed
Answer: C
3. When you inform the adult patient of the procedures you are about to perform and its
associated risks, you are asking for his or her:
A. Expressed consent
B. Negligence
C. Implied consent
D. Applied consent
Answer: A
4. You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell.
Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the
EMT's life-saving interventions is called:
A. Expressed consent
B. Implied consent
C. Negligence
D. Applied consent
Answer: B
5. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against his or her will may result
in charges against the EMT:
,2
A. Abandonment
B. Assault and battery
C. Implied consent
D. Negligence
Answer: B
6. Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving
report to a healthcare professional is an example of:
A. Liability infraction
B. Battery
C. Abandonment
D. Breach of duty
Answer: C
7. The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is the:
A. NHTSA
B. ANSI
C. HIPAA
D. OSHA
Answer: C
8. The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:
A. Gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse
B. Receives a verbal confirmation from the patient's family
C. Leaves the hospital premises to return to the station
D. Completes the patient care report form
Answer: A
9. An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care. Which document
outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Answer: B
10. Which mode of pathogen transmission involves contact with contaminated objects or
surfaces?
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Indirect contact transmission
D. Vector-borne transmission
Answer: C
, 3
11. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a
tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
A. You are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately
B. The disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms
C. You contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions
D. You were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient
Answer: D
12. Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
is correct?
A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care
setting
B. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with
your intact skin
C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly
into the bloodstream
D. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in
duration and severity
Answer: C
13. An EMT arrives on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The scene is safe, and there
are multiple patients. Which of the following actions should the EMT take FIRST?
A. Begin triage of patients
B. Don appropriate PPE
C. Immediately begin patient assessment
D. Request additional resources
Answer: B
14. An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They have no equipment.
The EMT should:
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
D. Only call 911 but not approach
Answer: B
15. When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is
considered a(n) _____ of the EMT.
A. Advanced directive
B. Protocol
C. Ethical responsibility
D. Legal responsibility
Answer: C
